Live Bihar Judiciary 2026 mock series · 50 free questions Start now

Bihar Judiciary — Prelims 2016

150 questions Objective 150 answers with solutions PDF
1

Who was the founder of Deccan Education Society?

  • aJyotiba Phule
  • bFiroz Shah Mehta
  • cM.G. Ranade
  • dBal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Deccan Education Society was founded in 1884 by Bal Gangadhar Tilak along with Agarkar and Chiplunkar; it established Fergusson College, Pune.

2

The manuscript of Arthashastra was discovered by

  • aSir William Jones
  • bShyama Shastri
  • cRam Gopal Bhandarkar
  • dJames Mill
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The manuscript of Kautilya's Arthashastra was discovered and edited by R. Shamasastry (Shyama Shastri) in 1905 at the Mysore Oriental Library.

3

Who was the author of the famous text, Mudrarakshasa?__

  • aVisakhadatta
  • bKalidas
  • cSudraka
  • dRajshekhar
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Sanskrit political drama Mudrarakshasa was authored by Visakhadatta.

4

The first Buddhist Council was summoned by

  • aChandragupta Maurya
  • bAshoka
  • cAjatasatru
  • dKanishka
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajgriha shortly after Buddha's death under the patronage of King Ajatasatru of Magadha.

5

Mahatma Buddha gave his first sermon at

  • aLumbini
  • bBodhGaya
  • cSamath
  • dKapilvastu
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Buddha delivered his first sermon (Dharmachakra Pravartana) at Sarnath, near Varanasi.

6

Which archaeological site Is associated with the Mauryan palace?

  • aKaushambi
  • bTaxila
  • cHastinapur
  • dKumrahar
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The remains of the Mauryan palace (the 80-pillared hall) were excavated at Kumrahar in Patna.

7

Which Rock Edict of Ashoka mentions the Kalinga War?

  • a(XII) Thirteenth
  • b(VIII) Eighth
  • c(II) Second
  • d(V) Fifth
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Thirteenth (XIII) Major Rock Edict of Ashoka describes the Kalinga War and his consequent remorse and turn to Dhamma.

8

Rajarajeshwara temple at Tanjore Is the finest example of which architecture?

  • aPallava
  • bChalukya
  • cChola
  • dPandya
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Rajarajeshwara (Brihadeeswarar) Temple at Tanjore, built by Rajaraja I, is the finest example of Chola architecture.

9

The system of ‘Dagh’ and ‘Huliya’ was Introduced by

  • aIltutmish
  • bAla-ud-din Khilji
  • cBalban
  • dFiruz Shah Tughlaq
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The system of Dagh (branding of horses) and Huliya/Chehra (descriptive roll of soldiers) was introduced by Ala-ud-din Khilji.

10

English 'reveller William Hawkins visited India during the time of which Mughal emperor?

  • aShah Jahan
  • bAkbar
  • cAurangzeb
  • dJahangir
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

William Hawkins of the English East India Company visited the court of Mughal emperor Jahangir (1608-1611).

11

The ‘Iqtadari’ system was introduced by

  • aBalban
  • bIltutmish
  • cAla-ud-din Khilji
  • dFiruz Shah Tughlaq
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Iqta (Iqtadari) system in the Delhi Sultanate was introduced/organised by Iltutmish.

12

What was the name of the Persian translation of Mahabharata?

  • aSakinat-ul-Auliya
  • bSirrulAsrar
  • cAnwar-i-Suhaili
  • dRazmnama
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Persian translation of the Mahabharata, prepared under Akbar, was titled Razmnama ('Book of War').

13

Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagar empire was a contemporary of

  • aAkbar
  • bFiruz Shah Tughlaq
  • cBabur
  • dBalban
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagar (r. 1509-1529) was a contemporary of Babur, founder of the Mughal Empire.

14

Baburnama was composed in which language?

  • aTurkish
  • bPersian
  • cArabic
  • dUrdu
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Baburnama (memoirs of Babur) was originally written in Chagatai Turkish.

15

‘Servants of Indian Society’ was founded by

  • aGopal Krishna Gokhale
  • bBal Gangadhar Tilak
  • cMahatma Gandhi
  • dGovind Ranade
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905.

16

Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was passed during the time of which Governor-General?

  • aLord Minto
  • bLordHardinge
  • cLord Curzon
  • dLord Linlithgow
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904 was passed during the Governor-Generalship of Lord Curzon.

17

Who was the author of History British India?

  • aJames Mill
  • bV.A. Smith
  • cV.D. Savarkar
  • dR.C.Majumdar
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'The History of British India' was authored by James Mill.

18

Which was a Uie Iirsi newspaper published In India?

  • aGazette
  • bCalcutta Gazette
  • cBombay Herald
  • dBengal Journal
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

First newspaper in India was Hicky's Bengal Gazette (1780); options are OCR-garbled, but 'Gazette' (a) is the intended/closest match. Flagged due to broken option text.

19

Go back to the Vedas’. Who gave this slogan?

  • aRaja Ram Mohan Roy
  • bKeshav Chandra Sen
  • cIshwar Chandra Vidyasagar
  • dSwami Dayanand Saraswati
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The slogan 'Go back to the Vedas' was given by Swami Dayanand Saraswati, founder of the Arya Samaj.

20

Arya Sama] was established In

  • a1870
  • b1872
  • c1873
  • d1875
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Arya Samaj was established by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875 (in Bombay).

21

The worst famine In India under the British rule occurred during

  • a1860-1861
  • b1876-1878
  • c1896-1897
  • d1899-1900
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Great Famine of 1876-1878 was the worst famine under British rule, with an estimated 5.6-9.6 million deaths.

22

Who among the following women was associated with the revolutionary

  • amovement?
  • bTorn Dutt
  • cRamabai
  • dBhikajiCama
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Options are OCR-corrupted (option 'a' is part of the stem); among the named women, Bhikaji Cama (d) was the revolutionary associated with the movement. Flagged for broken options.

23

Simon Commission visited India In

  • a1927
  • b1928
  • c1929
  • d1930
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Simon Commission arrived in India in February 1928 (appointed 1927), met by 'Simon Go Back' protests.

24

Under which Act were the Muslims provided * separate electorates In British India?

  • aIndian Council Act, 1892
  • bMorley-Minto Reforms, 1909
  • cIndian Council Act, 1861
  • dMontagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Separate electorates for Muslims were introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms).

25

Who among the following women social reformers was called ‘Pandit’?

  • aGangabai
  • bRamabai
  • cAnnie Besant
  • dSister Subbalakshmi
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Pandita Ramabai, the noted social reformer, was honoured with the title 'Pandit'.

26

Where did the Indigo Revolt take place?

  • aOrissa
  • bUttar Pradesh
  • cBengal
  • dMaharashtra
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Indigo Revolt (Nil Bidroha) of 1859-60 took place in Bengal, centred in the Nadia district, against oppressive indigo planters.

27

Where did the Indigo Revolt take place?

  • aOrissa
  • bUttar Pradesh
  • cBengal
  • dMaharashtra
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Duplicate of Q26: the Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 occurred in Bengal.

28

Who among the following authors has called the Revolt of 1857 as the First war of independence?

  • aR.C Majumdar
  • bS.N Sen
  • cV.D Savarkar
  • dAshok mehta
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

V.D. Savarkar termed the Revolt of 1857 the 'First War of Independence' in his 1909 book 'The Indian War of Independence, 1857'.

29

‘Abhinav bharat’ founded in 1904 was

  • aa secret organisation of revolutionary activities
  • ba newspaper
  • ca cultural organisation
  • da trade union movement
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Abhinav Bharat (Young India Society), founded by V.D. Savarkar and his brother in 1904, was a secret society engaged in revolutionary activities.

30

“History Is a continuous process of Interaction between past and present’’. Who said this?

  • aE.H.Carr
  • bCharles Firth
  • cKarl Marx
  • dV.A. Smith
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

E.H. Carr, in 'What is History?' (1961), described history as 'a continuous process of interaction between the historian and his facts, an unending dialogue between the present and the past.'

31

The famine code for India was recommended by which Commission?

  • aMacDonnell Commission
  • bCampbell Commission
  • cLyall Commission
  • dStrachey Commission
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Strachey Commission (First Famine Commission, 1880, chaired by Sir Richard Strachey) recommended the Famine Code, drafted as the provisional code in 1883.

32

Who was associated with the newspaper, Mooknayak?

  • aJyotiba Phule
  • bB.R. Ambedkar
  • cM.N.Roy
  • dAnnie Besant
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

B.R. Ambedkar founded and edited the Marathi fortnightly 'Mooknayak' (Leader of the Voiceless) in 1920.

33

Who among the following has called Tilak as 'Father of Indian Unrest’?

  • aMahatma Gandhi
  • bJawaharlal Nehru
  • cPowell Price
  • dValentine Chirol
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Valentine Chirol called Bal Gangadhar Tilak the 'Father of Indian Unrest' in his book 'Indian Unrest' (1910).

34

Who among the following persons was considered by Gandhiji as his ‘Political Guru’?

  • aDadabhai Naoroji
  • bM.G. Ranade
  • cGopal Krishna Gokhale
  • dBal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Mahatma Gandhi regarded Gopal Krishna Gokhale as his political guru.

35

New India and Commonweal newspapers were associated wlfh

  • aR.C. Dutt
  • bMahatma Gandhi
  • cRaja Ram Mohan Roy
  • dAnnie Besant
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Annie Besant founded and published the newspapers 'New India' (daily) and 'Commonweal' (weekly) around 1914 to advance the Home Rule movement.

36

ITCZ stands for

  • aInter Temperate Convergence Zone
  • bIntertropical Convergence Zone
  • cIndia-Thailand Convergence Zone
  • dInterTropical Convergence Zone
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

ITCZ stands for the Intertropical Convergence Zone, the low-pressure belt near the equator where the trade winds converge.

37

On which river, the Rana Pratap Sagar Dam Is constructed?

  • aGhaghara
  • bKosi
  • cYamuna
  • dChambal
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is constructed on the Chambal River in Rajasthan (Chambal Valley Project).

38

Amarkantak is the source head of

  • aSon, Narmada and Mahanadi
  • bSon, Chambal and Betwa
  • cNarmada, Ben Ganga and Kene
  • dMahanadi, Tapti and Son
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Amarkantak plateau is the source of the Narmada, the Son, and (in the wider Maikal region) the Mahanadi rivers.

39

Match the following:

  • a(4) (3) (2) (1)
  • bGujjar (2) Himachal Pradesh
  • cGaddi (3) Kashmir
  • dDafla (4) Uttarakhand
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

OCR-broken match-the-following; options/answer rows are garbled and the correct pairings cannot be reliably reconstructed. Correct ethnographic pairings: Gujjar–Himachal Pradesh/J&K, Gaddi–Himachal Pradesh, Dafla–Arunachal Pradesh, so no listed code can be verified.

40

The largest reserves of sal forest Is found In

  • aNilgiri hills
  • bDun valley
  • cAravallis
  • dAssam
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The largest reserves of sal (Shorea robusta) forest in India are found in the Dun Valley (Doon valley) region of the Shivaliks/Uttarakhand.

41

Telangana State is surrounded by which of the following groups of States?

  • aTamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
  • bChhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra and Karnataka
  • cMaharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
  • dMadhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Telangana is surrounded by Maharashtra (N), Chhattisgarh (NE), Karnataka (W) and Andhra Pradesh (S/E).

42

Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) separates

  • aGanga Plain and Siwaliks
  • bSiwaliks and Lesser Himalaya
  • cLesser Himalaya and Greater Himalaya
  • dGreater Himalaya and Trans-Himalaya
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) separates the Siwaliks (Outer Himalaya) from the Lesser/Lower Himalaya.

43

The valley of flowers Is located in

  • aHimachal Himalaya
  • bGarhwal Himalaya
  • cKashmir Himalaya
  • dNepal Himalaya
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Valley of Flowers National Park lies in the Garhwal Himalaya, Chamoli district, Uttarakhand.

44

In India, coal is found in the geological formation of

  • aDharwar
  • bVindhyan
  • cGondwana
  • dKadapa
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Most of India's coal occurs in the Gondwana rock system (e.g., Damodar, Son and Mahanadi valley coalfields).

45

Rohtang pass connects the valleys of

  • aBhagirathi and Alaknanda
  • bKali and Dholi
  • cKullu and Spiti
  • dJhelum and Ravi
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti valleys.

46

The basic reason of winter rainfall in northwestern part of India Is

  • asouth-west monsoon
  • btrade wind
  • cretreating of monsoon
  • dwestern disturbances
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Winter rainfall in north-western India is caused by western disturbances - extratropical cyclonic storms originating over the Mediterranean.

47

Laterite soil mostly found in

  • aKarnataka
  • bPunjab
  • cUttar Pradesh
  • dWest Bengal
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Among the options, laterite soil is most extensively found in Karnataka (Western Ghats/Deccan), formed by intense leaching under high rainfall.

48

Which one of the following pairs ls_not correct?

  • aBhakra Nangal Dam—Sutlej
  • bSardar Sarovar Dam—Narmada
  • cHirakud Dam—Mahanadi
  • dNagarjuna Sagar Dam—Godavari
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The incorrect pair is Nagarjuna Sagar Dam-Godavari; Nagarjuna Sagar is actually built on the Krishna River, not the Godavari.

49

Which river valley was severely affected by the disaster in JuneJ&LS?

  • aAlaknanda
  • bMandakini
  • cNandakini
  • dBhagirathi
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The June 2013 Kedarnath/Uttarakhand disaster most severely affected the Mandakini river valley (Kedarnath lies on the Mandakini).

50

Match the following:

  • a(1) (2) (3) (4)
  • bRawatbhata atomic (2) Gujarat power station
  • cKakapada atomic power station (3) Rajasthan
  • dKaiga atomic (4) Maharashtra power station
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

OCR-broken match-the-following with garbled code rows; best reconstruction of true pairings is Rawatbhata-Rajasthan, Kakrapar-Gujarat, Kaiga-Karnataka, so a code mapping Rawatbhata->Rajasthan (3) is most consistent, but the answer key cannot be reliably confirmed from the corrupt options.

51

Which of the following countries recently became a member of the World Trade

  • aOrganization (WTO)?
  • bSudan
  • cBhutan
  • dEthiopia
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The correct answer is Afghanistan, which became a WTO member (164th) on 29 July 2016, but Afghanistan is not among the listed options (OCR-mangled: option 'a' is the stem tail 'Organization (WTO)?', leaving Sudan/Bhutan/Ethiopia). None of the given options is correct; flagged as broken/incomplete, best of the bad lot is left blank-equivalent.

52

Which of the following organisations has sanctioned $ 1.5 billion loan to support the Swachh Bharat mission (SBM)?

  • aWorld bank
  • bIMF
  • cADB
  • dJapan bank for international corporation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The World Bank approved a US$1.5 billion loan in December 2015 to support India's Swachh Bharat Mission (rural sanitation/SBM-Gramin).

53

In which of the following Indian States Lokayukta has been appointed by the Supreme Court of India by using Its extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution?

  • aUttar Pradesh
  • bBihar
  • cKarnataka
  • dAndhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Supreme Court appointed Justice Virendra Singh as Lokayukta of Uttar Pradesh using its Article 142 powers after the state failed to recommend a name within the stipulated time.

54

Satellites of which of the following countries have been successfully-launched by using

  • aISRO’sPSLV C29?
  • bCanada
  • cIndonesia
  • dSaudi Arabia
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

PSLV-C29 (Dec 2015) successfully launched six satellites of Singapore, but Singapore is not among the listed options (OCR-mangled: option 'a' is the stem tail "ISRO's PSLV C29?", leaving Canada/Indonesia/Saudi Arabia). None of the given options is correct; flagged as broken.

55

As per the 2015 Human Development Report (HDR), what was India’s rank In Human Development Index (HDI) for 2014?

  • a121
  • b130
  • c132
  • d138
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

As per the 2015 Human Development Report, India ranked 130 out of 188 countries on the HDI for 2014.

56

India’s largest National Cancer Institute is set up In which of the following States?

  • aAndhra Pradesh
  • bHaryana
  • cGujarat
  • dWest Bengal
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

India's largest National Cancer Institute was set up at the AIIMS Jhajjar campus (Badhsa village) in Haryana.

57

Which of the following countries has hosted the International Neutrality Conference?,

  • aIndia
  • bSri Lanka
  • cTurkmenistan
  • dPakistan
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Turkmenistan hosted the high-level International Conference on the Policy of Neutrality in Ashgabat in December 2015.

58

Which of the following committees has been appointed to look Into dispute between~ONGC and RiL on KG gas fields?

  • aPradhan Committee
  • bA.P. Shah Committee
  • cM.B. Shah Committee
  • dDeshmukhCommittee
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A one-man committee headed by Justice (Retd.) A.P. Shah was appointed in Dec 2015 to examine the ONGC-RIL KG-basin gas migration dispute.

59

Which of the following Is the first bank to tie up with “Indian railways to sell rail tickets through its web-site?

  • aState Bank of India
  • bICICI Bank
  • cAxis Bank Ltd.
  • dPunjab National Bank
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

ICICI Bank was the first bank to tie up with Indian Railways/IRCTC to sell rail tickets directly through its own website.

60

Which of the following banks Is the World’s largest bank by assets?

  • aBank of America
  • bIndustrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC)
  • cBNP Paribas
  • dBank of China
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC) has been the world's largest bank by total assets since 2012.

61

Which of the following space agencies has launched the USA Pathfinder?

  • aJapan Aerospace Exploration Agency
  • bNASA '
  • cEuropean Space Agency
  • dChina National Space Administration
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The stem refers to LISA Pathfinder (OCR 'USA Pathfinder'), launched on 3 December 2015 by the European Space Agency on a Vega rocket from Kourou.

62

The new Parliament building of which of the following countries Is built by India?

  • aBhutan
  • bAfghanistan
  • cNepal
  • dMaldives
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

India built and inaugurated (Dec 2015) the new Afghan Parliament (National Assembly) building in Kabul.

63

Which of Hie following committees suggested Initiatives on Revisiting and Revitalising PPP Model?

  • aDinesh Pachauri Committee
  • bArun Pasricha Committee
  • cVijay Kelkar Committee
  • dDeepakMohanty Committee
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Committee on Revisiting & Revitalising the PPP Model of Infrastructure Development was chaired by Dr. Vijay Kelkar (report submitted Nov 2015).

64

Who among the following has been appointed as the 7iew~Director-GEneral of National

  • aCentre for Good Governance (NCG J7-
  • bArvind Subramanian
  • cGyanendra Badgaiyan
  • dSanjay Madhav
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Gyanendra Badgaiyan was appointed Director-General of the National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) (option 'a' is the OCR stem tail).

65

Which of the following States Is planning to construct the first ever uhderwateFTbad tunnel In the country?

  • aTamil Nadu
  • bGujarat
  • cAndhra Pradesh
  • dKerala
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Kerala planned the country's first underwater road tunnel (Vypin-Fort Kochi) under its Coastal Highway project.

66

Which of the following countries has announced the adoption of the Chinese Yuan as Its legal currency?

  • aGreece
  • bEgypt
  • cZimbabwe
  • dNamibia
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Zimbabwe announced in December 2015 that it would adopt the Chinese yuan as legal tender following China's cancellation of its debt.

67

The Salma Dam project is under reconstruction In which of the following countries?

  • aNepal
  • bBhutan
  • cAfghanistan
  • dBangladesh
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Salma Dam (Afghan-India Friendship Dam) on the Hari River was reconstructed by India in Afghanistan (inaugurated June 2016).

68

Which orIM rolling countries Ms launched the DAMPE satellite?

  • aChina
  • bRussia
  • cJapan
  • dUSA
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

China launched the DAMPE (Dark Matter Particle Explorer / 'Wukong') satellite on 17 December 2015.

69

Which of the following countries has approved the world's first dengue vaccine?

  • aUnited Kingdom
  • bCanada
  • cMexico
  • dFrance
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Mexico granted the world's first regulatory approval for a dengue vaccine (Sanofi's Dengvaxia) in December 2015.

70

Which of the following American Universities has launched the A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Fellowship for Indian students?

  • aHarvard University
  • bUniversity ofSouth Florida
  • cUniversity ofCalifornia, Berkeley
  • dUniversity of Chicago
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The University of South Florida launched the A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Postgraduate Fellowship for Indian students.

71

Which of the following acids does not contain oxygen?

  • aNitric acid
  • bSulphuric acid
  • cHydrochloric acid
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) contains no oxygen, unlike nitric acid (HNO3) and sulphuric acid (H2SO4); it is a hydracid.

72

Which of the following Is not biodegradable?

  • aDomestic sewage
  • bLab detergents
  • cSoap
  • dPlant leaves
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Synthetic lab detergents are non-biodegradable, whereas domestic sewage, soap and plant leaves are biodegradable.

73

The atomic nucleus was discovered by

  • aRutherford
  • bDalton
  • cEinstein
  • dThompson
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Ernest Rutherford discovered the atomic nucleus through his 1911 gold-foil (alpha-particle scattering) experiment.

74

The branch of Physics that deals with the motion of a very small particle is called

  • aField Theory
  • bParticle Physics
  • cQuantum Mechanics
  • dAtomic Physics
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Quantum Mechanics is the branch of physics dealing with the motion and behaviour of very small (subatomic) particles.

75

Which of the following foods provides the nutrient for the growth of new tissues In the human body?

  • aFruits
  • bVegetables
  • cCheese
  • dSweets
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Cheese is protein-rich, and proteins are the body-building nutrients required for growth and repair of new tissues (fruits/vegetables/sweets are not primary protein sources here).

76

Which of the following is the largest air pollutant?

  • aCarbon dioxide
  • bCarbon monoxide
  • cSulphur dioxide
  • dHydrocarbons
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Carbon monoxide is the single largest air pollutant by mass/volume among primary pollutants, produced chiefly by incomplete combustion in vehicles; it is the standard textbook answer.

77

In binary code, the number 7 Is written as

  • a110
  • b111
  • c101
  • d100
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Decimal 7 = 4+2+1 = binary 111.

78

Anthophobia is fear of which Of the following?

  • aBoss
  • bFire
  • cHowrse
  • dDogs
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Options are OCR-garbled; standard definition: Anthophobia is the fear of flowers, but no such option appears here, so the listed choices (boss/fire/horse/dogs) do not match; best-guess left as (d) for completeness.

79

Clove Is obtained from

  • aroot
  • bstem
  • cfruit
  • dflower bud
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Clove is the dried, unopened flower bud of Syzygium aromaticum.

80

Which of the following fights Infection In the body?

  • aRBC
  • bWBC
  • cBlood plasma
  • dHaemoglobin
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

White Blood Cells (leucocytes) defend the body against infection.

81

Green Revolution means

  • ause of green manure
  • bgrow more crops
  • chigh yield variety programmes
  • dgreen vegetation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Green Revolution refers to the adoption of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seed programmes with fertilisers/irrigation in the 1960s-70s.

82

Pedology Is the science related to the study of

  • aatmosphere
  • bsoil
  • cpollutants
  • dseeds
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Pedology is the branch of soil science dealing with the study of soils in their natural environment.

83

The unit of electrical resistance of a conductor is

  • afarad
  • bvolt
  • campere
  • dohm
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The SI unit of electrical resistance is the ohm.

84

The step that produces largest numberofATP molecules in our system is

  • aglycolysis
  • bKrebs cycle
  • cterminal respiratory chain
  • dhydrolysis
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The terminal respiratory (electron transport) chain / oxidative phosphorylation yields the largest number of ATP molecules in cellular respiration.

85

Brass is an alloy of

  • acopper and iron
  • bzinc and iron
  • ccopper and zinc
  • diron and nickel
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

86

When beams of red, blue and green lights fall on the same spot, the colour of the light becomes

  • aviolet
  • bRed
  • cyellow
  • dwhite
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Red, blue and green are the additive primary colours; combined in equal intensity they produce white light.

87

Which organ of the human body does the Alzeimer’s disease affect?

  • aEar
  • bBrain
  • cEye
  • dStomach
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder affecting the brain.

88

How many units of electricity will be consumed if you use a 60 watt electric bulb for 5 hours everyday for 30 days?

  • a12
  • b9
  • c6
  • d3
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

60 W x 5 h x 30 days = 9000 Wh = 9 units (kWh).

89

Soda wafer obtained by passing carbon dioxide in water is

  • aan oxidising agent
  • bbasic in nature
  • cMasoor
  • dPaddy
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Stem and options are OCR-broken (soda water is mildly acidic carbonic acid, not basic; options c/d read 'Masoor/Paddy'). The question is corrupted; no clean correct option exists, best-guess (b).

90

Who is authorised to abolish courts of small causes?

  • aThe concerned high court
  • bThe concerned state government
  • cThe concerned district court
  • dThe concerned district court after consultation with the concerned high court and the state government
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 1887, the State Government is empowered to establish and abolish Courts of Small Causes.

91

In which of the following cases, It was contended that the preamble to our Constitution should be the guiding star In Its Interpretation and hence any law made under the Article 21 should be held as void If it offended against the principles of natural justice?

  • aGopalan v. State of Madras
  • bKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  • cBhim Singh v. Union of India
  • dExcel Wear v. Union of India
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

In A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950) it was argued that the Preamble should be the guiding star and that any law under Article 21 offending natural justice should be void; the Court rejected the due-process/natural-justice reading.

92

Which of the following cases upheld ‘secularism’ as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution even before the word ‘secular’ was inserted in the Preamble?

  • aIndira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
  • bKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  • cWaman Rao v. Union of India
  • dSamathav. State ofAP
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) held secularism to be a basic feature of the Constitution, before the word 'secular' was inserted in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

93

In which of the following cases, the consensus of the majority of the Judgment was that the basic structure of the Constitution could not~be ~ be ~destroyed or damaged by amending the Constitution In exercise of the power under theHicle 368.. of the Indian Constitution?

  • aWaman Rao v. Union of India
  • bGolak Nath v. State ofPunjab
  • cKuldip Nayar v. Union of India
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Waman Rao v. Union of India (1980) reaffirmed by majority that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be damaged or destroyed by amendments made under Article 368; Golak Nath did not endorse the basic-structure doctrine.

94

A person who or whose father was not born In the territory of India but “who (a) has his domicile ‘In the territory of India’, and (b) has been ordinarily residing ‘within the territory of India* for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution’’ Is considered as Indian citizen. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes it?

  • aArticles
  • bArticle 5B
  • cArticle 5A
  • dArticle 5
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Article 5 of the Constitution confers citizenship at commencement on a person domiciled in India who has ordinarily resided in India for at least five years preceding commencement, even if neither he nor his parents were born in India.

95

Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution which was Inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed| according to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution Is a law within the meaning Of Article 13 and would, accordingly bo void If it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was declared void In which of the following cases?

  • aGolak Nath v. State of Punjab
  • bEdward Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Ajmer
  • cMinerva Mills v. Union of India
  • dGhulam Sarwar v. Union of India
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Stem is OCR-garbled and the premise is legally inverted (the 24th Amendment's Art 13(4)/368 was upheld in Kesavananda Bharati, not struck down). The doctrine that an amendment is 'law' under Art 13 came from Golak Nath, which is the intended coaching-key answer, but it predates the 24th Amendment and cannot have voided it; answer contested.

96

Which of the following Is an essential part of rule of law and Independence of judiciary?

  • aJudicial review
  • bImpartial appointment of judges
  • cImpeachment
  • dOriginal jurisdiction
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Judicial review is an essential component of the rule of law and independence of the judiciary, enabling courts to test the validity of executive and legislative action.

97

The test of reasonableness Is not a wholly test and Its contours are fairly

  • aIndicated by the Constitution
  • bsubjective
  • cdescriptive
  • dsummative
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Per the Supreme Court, the test of reasonableness is not a wholly subjective test, and its contours are fairly indicated by the Constitution (the phrasing tracks the classic formulation that it is not 'wholly subjective').

98

Taxation Is a/an............. power of the State and there is no fundamental right to be Immune from taxation.

  • aindependent
  • bstatutory
  • cauthoritative
  • dadministrative
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Taxation is an inherent/independent power of the State, and there is no fundamental right to immunity from taxation.

99

‘Protection In respect of conviction for offences’ Is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

  • aArticle 22
  • bArticle 21
  • cArticle 20
  • dArticle 19
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Article 20 of the Constitution provides 'Protection in respect of conviction for offences' (ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, self-incrimination).

100

According to£lause.(1) of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion Is subject to the Interest of

  • apublic order
  • bmorality
  • chealth
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Article 25(1) makes freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion subject to public order, morality and health (and the other Part III provisions).

101

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of the post of the Prime Minister in India?

  • aArticle 73
  • bArticle 74
  • cArticle 75
  • dArticle 74(1)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Article 75 of the Constitution deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other Ministers ('The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President...'), making it the Article that provides for the post of PM.

102

A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of the Parliament If

  • ahe is disqualified under the................... Schedule.
  • bSixth
  • cSeventh
  • dTenth
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Article 102(2), a person is disqualified for membership of either House if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law); the option text is OCR-shifted but 'Tenth' is the correct schedule.

103

Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from their office by

  • aimpeachment
  • bthe President
  • cthe Council of Ministers
  • dthe I louse of the People
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

A Supreme Court Judge can be removed only by the process of impeachment (removal by Presidential order after an address by both Houses with special majority) under Article 124(4); the President alone or the Council of Ministers cannot remove a judge.

104

Which of the following has been held to be questions of fact and not of law?

  • aWhether a fact has been proved when evidence for and against has been properly received
  • bWhether a statutory presumption has been rebutted
  • cWhether an endowment is private or public, there being no questions of misconstruction of a document involved
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Whether a fact has been proved on properly received evidence, whether a statutory presumption is rebutted, and whether an endowment is private or public (no document misconstruction) are all classic questions of fact, so 'All of the above' is correct.

105

The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the

  • aPrime Minister
  • bGovernor
  • cPresident
  • dVidhan Sabha
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Article 164(1), the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of the State (and other Ministers by the Governor on the CM's advice).

106

Absolutism means

  • athe state or quality of being absolute
  • ba sort of government in which public power is vested in some person or persons, unchecked and uncontrolled by any law or institution
  • cunconditional power or sovereignty vested in a monarch, an autocrat or an oligarchy
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Absolutism encompasses being absolute, a government with unchecked public power, and unconditional sovereignty vested in a monarch/autocrat/oligarchy, so all the descriptions together ('All of the above') define it.

107

Mandamus

  • ais issued to check the performance of duties of a public nature
  • bis issued to impede the performance of duties of a private nature
  • cis issued to compel the performance of duties of a public nature
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Mandamus ('we command') is a writ issued to compel a public authority to perform a duty of a public nature that it has failed to perform.

108

Which among the following has the power to extend functions of the State Public Service Commission?

  • aThe Governor
  • bthe State Legislator
  • cThe Chief Minister
  • dThe Advocate General
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Article 321, an Act of the State Legislature may provide for the exercise of additional functions by the State Public Service Commission, so the State Legislature has the power to extend its functions.

109

While a proclamation of emergency is in operation

  • a(I) the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised
  • b(II) the power of the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter shall include the power to make laws on the subject which is not enumerated in the Union List.
  • cBoth (I) and (II)
  • dNeither (I) nor (If)
  • eOnly (If)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

During a Proclamation of Emergency, Article 353 extends the Union's executive power to give directions to States and extends Parliament's legislative power to matters not in the Union List (State List subjects), so both (I) and (II) are correct.

110

The Governor must remain conscious of his constitutional obligations and not sacrifice either political responsibility or parliamentary conventions on the altar of political expediency’. In which of the following cases, the constitutional obligations of the Governor were mentioned?

  • aS.R. Chaudhari v. State of Punjab
  • bB.R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu
  • cKrishna Ballabh Sahay v. Commission of Inquiry
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The observation that the Governor must remain conscious of his constitutional obligations and not sacrifice political responsibility or parliamentary conventions 'on the altar of political expediency' was made in B.R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu (2001) regarding the Governor's appointment of a disqualified person as Chief Minister.

111

"Administrative Lav/ is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of the administrative authorities.”

  • aWho among the following Jurists has given the above definition?
  • bIvor Jennings
  • cOwen Hood Phillips
  • dKeith
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The definition 'Administrative law is the law relating to the administration; it determines the organisation, powers and duties of the administrative authorities' is Ivor Jennings's classic definition (from The Law and the Constitution).

112

State the similarity between constitutional and administrative laws

  • aBoth constitutional and administrative laws are private laws
  • bBoth constitutional and administrative laws regulate the highest norms of the
  • cBoth constitutional and administrative laws deal with the organisation and functions of the government at rest
  • dBoth constitutional and administrative laws are public laws
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Both constitutional law and administrative law are branches of public law (governing relations between the State and individuals/organs of government), which is the recognised similarity between them.

113

The privilege to withhold the documents/ Information under the administrative law Is

  • aenacted in which of the following Sections of the Evidence Act?
  • bSection 120
  • cSection 123
  • dSection 98
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The privilege to withhold documents/information relating to affairs of State (Crown/State privilege) is enacted in Section 123 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

114

According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule of law may be discussed under which of the

  • afollowing heads?
  • bEquality after law
  • cEquality under law
  • dEquality before law
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Dicey's rule of law is discussed under three heads, of which the relevant principle here is 'equality before the law' (along with supremacy of law and the constitution being the result of ordinary law); 'equality before law' is the correct Diceyan formulation among the options.

115

k.C. Davis in his book, Administrative Law gave several meanings of the term ‘rule of law'. Choose the correct option accordingly.

  • aFixed rules of law
  • bExclusion of discretion
  • cBoth (A) and (B)
  • dNeither (A) nor (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

K.C. Davis, in his Administrative Law, listed several meanings of 'rule of law' including law and order, fixed rules, and elimination/exclusion of discretion, so both 'fixed rules of law' and 'exclusion of discretion' are correct.

116

The doctrine of ‘separation of powers’ can be explained by which of the following? '

  • aSame person should not form the part of more than one of the three organs of the government
  • bSame person should not form the part of more than two of the three organs of the government
  • cSame person should not form the part of any organ of the three organs of the government
  • dNone of the above /
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The doctrine of separation of powers means the same person should not form part of more than one of the three organs (legislature, executive, judiciary) of government, as classically stated by Montesquieu.

117

In modern States, the executive function is further classified as quasi-legislative, quasi- judicial, minisIenaTardpurely administrative functions. This observation is based on which of the following cases?

  • aHarishankar Bagla v. State of MP
  • bManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
  • cHamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Flagged: the classification of executive function into quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial, ministerial and purely administrative functions actually derives from Jayantilal Amritlal Shodhan v. F.N. Rana, which is not among the listed options; the question/options appear defective. Best guess given choices is 'All of the above'.

118

Delegated legislation in India can be decided for the post-Constitution period. This was held by

  • aQueen v.Burah
  • bRe Delhi Laws Act, 1912 [AIR 1951 SC 332]
  • cJ.N. Gupta v. Province of Bihar
  • dBoth (A) and ©
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 [AIR 1951 SC 332] was the first leading Supreme Court case settling the law on delegated legislation in the post-Constitution period; Queen v. Burah is a pre-constitution Privy Council case.

119

Choose the function which cannot be delegated under the administrative law.

  • aPower to give retrospective effect
  • bAppointed day or commencement of the Act
  • cApplication of existing laws
  • dSuspension of operation of all/any of the provisions of the Act
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Among non-delegable legislative functions, the power to give retrospective effect cannot be delegated (it is an essential legislative function that the legislature alone may exercise), whereas appointing the commencement day, applying existing laws and suspending provisions are commonly delegated.

120

What is the disadvantage in delegated legislation?

  • aIn case of gross violation of rights of the people, delegated legislation can be withdrawn/amended suitably without much delay
  • bThere are chances to misuse the powers which are given by parent act and thereby the executive may enjoy more power than the Parliament
  • cBoth (A) and (B)
  • dNeither (A) nor (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A key disadvantage of delegated legislation is the risk that powers granted under the parent Act may be misused, with the executive effectively wielding more power than Parliament; option (a) describes an advantage, so (a)+(b) together cannot both be disadvantages.

121

Conditional legislation under the administrative law is

  • aalso known as subordinate-legislation. While making legislation the subordinate authorities can use their discretion
  • balso known as contingent legislation. No discretion can be enjoyed as there is no rule-making power
  • cNeither (A) nor (B)
  • dBoth (A) and (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Conditional (contingent) legislation involves no exercise of rule-making discretion; the legislature lays down the law and leaves only the determination of a condition/contingency on which the law comes into operation to the executive, unlike delegated/subordinate legislation which does involve discretion.

122

“The principle of natural justice is one procedural rule for administrative action.” Considering the above statement, which of the following is/are justified?

  • aNo man should be judged in his own cause
  • bAll men should be judged in their own cause
  • cAll of the above
  • dNeither (A) nor (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The natural justice principle nemo judex in causa sua means no man should be a judge in his own cause; the contrary statement (all men judged in their own cause) is wrong, so only (a) is justified.

123

The courts In almost all the democratic countries enjoyed the power to decide the validity of the delegated legislation under the administrative law and apply the test.

  • aThe above Is related to which of the following?
  • bTest of substantive ultra vires and test of procedural ultra vires
  • cNeither (A)nor (B)
  • dBoth (A) and (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Courts test the validity of delegated legislation by the doctrine of ultra vires in both its forms: substantive ultra vires (substance/scope of power) and procedural ultra vires (non-compliance with prescribed procedure).

124

The rule against bias can be discussed under the following heads:

  • aDimes v. Grand Junction Canal
  • bGullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC
  • cA.K.Kraipak V. Union of India
  • dManak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The rule against bias is discussed under heads of pecuniary, personal and subject-matter (official/policy) bias; Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal is the leading authority on pecuniary bias and is the apt illustration heading the discussion.

125

Habeas corpus literally means 'have the corpus’ or ‘bring the body’. Under which case,habeas corpus was not issued?

  • aA.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
  • bBatul Chandra v. State of WestBengal
  • cBoth (A) and (B)
  • dNeither (A) nor (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

In A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, the habeas corpus petition challenging preventive detention failed and the writ was not issued, the detention under the Preventive Detention Act being upheld.

126

The essential of audi alteram partem is

  • aissuance of notice without hearing
  • btaking adverse action against him
  • cdepriving the rights
  • dnotice
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Audi alteram partem ('hear the other side') requires that a person be given notice of the action and an opportunity to be heard; notice is its foundational essential, the other options being negative/improper acts.

127

What Is the essential condition of mandamus?

  • aThe petitioner must have legal right which can be judicially enforceable
  • bThe public authority concerned must do his duty
  • cThe petitioner should not make a demand for the performance of the duty
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

A writ of mandamus lies only where the petitioner has a legal right that is judicially enforceable and the public authority has a corresponding public duty which it has failed to perform after demand.

128

According to the constitutional provisions regarding contractual liability of the State, which of the following conditions must be fulfilled In order to make a contract valid, In which the government Is a party?

  • aThe contract made has to be executed on behalf of the President or the government as the case may be
  • bAny executive entering the contract on his own
  • cAny contract expressed to be made without any authority
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Article 299 of the Constitution, a government contract is valid only if expressed to be made in the name of (and executed on behalf of) the President or the Governor; contracts made by officers on their own authority are not binding on the State.

129

"Tribunals deal with the service matter only."

  • aIt is presided over by the Judge or Magistrate
  • bCPC and rules of evidence must be followed
  • cIt is decide based on the rule of law, procedure and rules of evidence
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Tribunals are not bound by the strict CPC or the Evidence Act and need not be presided over by a judge/magistrate, so none of options (a)-(c) correctly describes them; 'None of the above' is correct.

130

What is the qualification of Ombudsman?

  • aLokpal shall not hold any office of profit
  • bLokpal shall be a Member ofParliament
  • cLokpal shall carry on any business/profession
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

A Lokpal/Ombudsman must not hold any office of profit, must not be a Member of Parliament/Legislature, and must not carry on any business or profession; the only correct qualifying condition listed is that he shall not hold any office of profit.

131

Hindu Law Is

  • aCivil Law
  • bPersonal Law
  • cConstitutional Law
  • dCriminalLaw
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Hindu Law is a body of personal law governing Hindus in matters of marriage, succession, adoption, etc., and is classified as personal law.

132

The ancient sources) of the Hindu Law Is/ are

  • aSruti
  • bSmriti
  • cdigest, commentaries and custom - .
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The recognised sources of Hindu law are Sruti, Smriti, digests/commentaries and custom; all of these are ancient sources, so 'All of the above' is correct.

133

Section 5(l) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for

  • amonogamy
  • bbigamy
  • cpolygamy
  • dpolyandry
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 mandates that neither party has a spouse living at the time of marriage, thereby establishing monogamy.

134

Under which Section of the Hindu MarriageAct. 1955. Judicial separation' has been provided'?

  • aSection 9
  • bSection 10
  • cSection II
  • dSection 13
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Judicial separation is provided under Section 10 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (Section 9 = restitution of conjugal rights; Section 11 = void marriages; Section 13 = divorce).

135

Section 18 of the Hindu Marriage Act. 1955 deals with the legitimacy of the children of

  • avoid marriages
  • bvoidable marriages
  • cvoid and voidable marriages
  • dvalid marriages
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages is governed by Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; the answer covering both void and voidable marriages is correct (the stem's 'Section 18' appears to be a typographical error).

136

A Hindu marriage may be solemnised according to the customary rites and ceremonies of

  • abride
  • bbridegroom
  • cboth the parties
  • deither party (bride and bridegroom) thereto
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage may be solemnised in accordance with the customary rites and ceremonies of either party thereto.

137

‘Son’, in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, does not include

  • aadopted son
  • bstepson
  • cillegitimate son
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In Class I of the Schedule to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, 'son' includes adopted and (through related entries) illegitimate sons in certain contexts but does not include a stepson.

138

Which of the following is correct under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 for the surviving sons, surviving daughters and mother of the male intestate?

  • aEach shall take one share
  • bAll will take one share
  • cAll the sons and daughters shall take one share and mother shall take one share
  • dAll the sons and daughters shall take one share and mother shall take no share
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Rule 2 of Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the surviving sons and daughters and the mother of the male intestate shall each take one share.

139

Under Section 14 of the Hindu Succession

  • aAct, 1956, any property possessed by a
  • bfemale Hindu, whether acquired by her before
  • cco owner with her husband
  • dNone of the above
  • efullowner
Answer & solution

Correct answer: E

Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 converts any property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired before or after the Act, into her absolute property, making her the full owner thereof and not a limited owner.

140

According to the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, ‘minor’ means a person who has net completed his or her age of

  • a14 years
  • b16 years
  • c15 years
  • d21 years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Reason: The statutory definition of 'minor' under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 is a person who has not completed eighteen years, which is not among the options; the keyed answer (c) 15 corresponds instead to the Section 10(iv) age-limit for the person to be adopted, so the question is internally flawed.

141

A female Hindu who is major and is of sound mind is legally capable to take in adoption, a son or a daughter, if

  • a( A) she is widow or divorced woman
  • bshe is unmarried woman
  • cher husband has completely and finally renounced the world or has ceased to be a Hindu or has been declared by a co– of competent jurisdiction to be o: unsound mind
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 8 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 (pre-2010 form), a female Hindu of sound mind and majority may adopt if she is a widow/divorcee, unmarried, or her husband has renounced the world/ceased to be a Hindu/been declared of unsound mind; hence 'All of the above'.

142

A junior male member of a Hindu undivided family may be its 'Karla

  • awhen he is able and intelligent
  • bwithout the consent of the coparceners of the family if he is able and clever
  • conly with the consent of the other coparceners of the family
  • donly with the order of the mother
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Ordinarily the senior-most male is the Karta; a junior male member can act as Karta of a Hindu undivided family only with the consent of the other coparceners.

143

What are the main sources of the Muslim Law?

  • aKoran
  • bSunnat and Hadees
  • cIjma and Qiyas
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The primary (formal) sources of Muslim law are the Quran, Sunna/Hadees, Ijma and Qiyas; all of these are main sources, so 'All of the above' is correct.

144

By which man a Muslim lady may legally marry?

  • aHindu
  • bMuslim
  • cKitabiya
  • dNoneofthe above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A Muslim woman can validly marry only a Muslim man; her marriage with a non-Muslim (including a Kitabia/non-Muslim) is irregular or void under Muslim law.

145

With whom a “Shia’ Muslim man Is entitled to perform a temporary marriage, I.e., ’Muta'?

  • aN muslim woman
  • bChristian woman
  • cJewish or a fire-worshipping woman
  • dAny of the women stated above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A Shia male may contract a muta (temporary) marriage with a Muslim, a Kitabia (Christian or Jewish) woman, or a fire-worshipping woman; hence any of the women stated above.

146

Whether a Muslim may give ‘Talaq’ in the state of intoxication or under pressure?

  • aYes, recognized under the 'Sunni Muslim Law
  • bYes, recognized under the 'Shia' muslim Law
  • cYes, according to the 'Ismailiya' Law
  • dYes, according to the "Usuli' Law
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Sunni (Hanafi) law a talaq pronounced under compulsion or in a state of voluntary intoxication is valid, whereas Shia law treats such a talaq as void.

147

By the third pronouncement (utterance) of ‘Talaq’, which kind of ‘Talaq’ becomes effective?

  • aTalaq - e- Hassan
  • bTalaq - e- Ahsan
  • cTalaq - e- Tafweez
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

In Talaq-e-Hasan the divorce becomes irrevocable and effective on the third pronouncement made in three successive tuhrs (Talaq-e-Ahsan is a single pronouncement).

148

Acknowledgement of paternity once made under Muslim law

  • aCannotbe revoked
  • bcan be revoked
  • ccan be revoked by previous permission of capable judiciary
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Muslim law, an acknowledgement of paternity (iqrar), once validly made, is irrevocable and cannot be retracted.

149

In whose custody, the Muslim Illegitimate children will be kept?

  • aFather
  • bMother
  • cBothfather and mother
  • dMaternal grandmother
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Custody (hizanat) of an illegitimate child under Muslim law belongs to the mother and her relations, as such a child is treated as related only to the mother.

150

Which of the following gifts is not valid?

  • aGiftin future
  • bConditional Gift
  • cGift based on wagering contract or contingent contract
  • dAlloftire above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Muslim law a hiba (gift) of a thing to come into existence in future, a conditional gift, and a gift based on a wagering or contingent contract are all invalid; hence 'All of the above'.

Practise Bihar Judiciary the smart way.

Free mock tests modelled on this exact paper pattern, plus the full Bihar Judiciary preparation guide.

Open exam guide
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.