Bihar Judiciary — Prelims 2021

Correct answer: B

Kalibangan, a major Indus Valley/Harappan site, lies on the bank of the Ghaggar in Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan.

Correct answer: C

Mohenjo-daro is in Larkana district, Sindh province, present-day Pakistan.

Correct answer: A

Vikramshila University (in Bihar) was founded by King Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty in the late 8th/early 9th century.

Correct answer: D

The Rigveda is the oldest of the four Vedas.

Correct answer: C

Ayodhya is situated on the bank of the Saryu (Ghaghara) river.

Correct answer: B

Badrinath Dham is in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand.

Correct answer: A

Megasthenes was the Greek (Seleucid) ambassador sent to the court of Chandragupta Maurya at Pataliputra.

Correct answer: B

The Ajanta caves are located in the Aurangabad (Sambhajinagar) district of Maharashtra.

Correct answer: D

Parshvanatha was the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism; Mahavira was the 24th.

Correct answer: B

There are four Purusharthas: Dharma, Artha, Kama and Moksha.

Correct answer: C

The Panchatantra was composed by Vishnu Sharma.

Correct answer: D

The Tripitakas (Vinaya, Sutta, Abhidhamma) are the canonical scriptures of Buddhism.

Correct answer: A

Alauddin Khilji is famous for his market-control (price-control) reforms.

Correct answer: C

Among the options, the Gupta dynasty (c. 320–550 CE, roughly 230 years) ruled the longest, exceeding the Maurya, Sunga and Kushana dynasties.

Correct answer: B

Humayun's Tomb is situated in Delhi.

Correct answer: C

Nizamuddin Auliya belonged to the Chishti Sufi order.

Correct answer: D

Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth and last human Sikh Guru.

Correct answer: B

Firuz Shah Tughlaq established the Madrasa-i-Firuz Shahi in Delhi.

Correct answer: C

Padmawat (Padmavat) was written by Malik Muhammad Jayasi in Awadhi.

Correct answer: B

Mughal painting reached its zenith under Jahangir, a noted patron of miniature painting.

Correct answer: C

Shivaji's father was Shahji Bhonsle.

Correct answer: D

Among the options, Aurangzeb reigned the longest (1658–1707, about 49 years).

Correct answer: C

The Bhakti saint Chaitanya Mahaprabhu's birth/real name was Vishwambhar Mishra.

Correct answer: D

Gandhi gave the 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) slogan during the Quit India Movement of 1942.

Correct answer: B

Bal Gangadhar Tilak started the newspapers Mahratta (English) and Kesari (Marathi).

Correct answer: A

'Vande Mataram' was composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and appears in his 1882 novel Anandamath.

Correct answer: A

Satyarth Prakash was written by Swami Dayananda Saraswati, the founder of the Arya Samaj.

Correct answer: B

Dr. Rajendra Prasad wrote 'India Divided' (1946); 'India Wins Freedom' is by Abul Kalam Azad and 'Discovery of India' by Nehru.

Correct answer: D

Jayaprakash Narayan made his famous escape from Hazaribagh Central Jail on the night of Diwali in November 1942 during the Quit India Movement.

Correct answer: B

Mangal Pandey began the revolt of 1857 on 29 March 1857 at Barrackpore, attacking British officers of the 34th Native Infantry.

Correct answer: D

Raja Rammohan Roy campaigned alongside Lord William Bentinck for the abolition of Sati, achieved through Regulation XVII of 1829.

Correct answer: C

Jyotirao (Jyotiba) Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth-Seekers) in Pune in 1873.

Correct answer: C

The Universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were established in 1857 under the Wood's Despatch, during the governor-generalship of Lord Canning.

Correct answer: B

The Chauri Chaura incident occurred on 4 February 1922, leading Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement; Jallianwala Bagh was 1919.

Correct answer: C

Kanpur is the most populous city of Uttar Pradesh as per the 2011 Census, with the city proper around 2.76 million.

Correct answer: D

Nagarjuna Sagar dam is on the Krishna river, not the Godavari, so the Godavari-Nagarjuna Sagar pair is incorrectly matched.

Correct answer: A

Marwar (the Jodhpur region) lies in the western, arid part of Rajasthan within the Thar Desert.

Correct answer: B

Panna in Madhya Pradesh is famous for its diamond mines, the only significant diamond-producing area in India.

Correct answer: A

Ranthambore National Park is in Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan, and is the nearest of the listed options to Jaipur.

Correct answer: B

Gangasagar, at the mouth of the Hooghly on Sagar Island, is a well-known Hindu pilgrimage centre, especially for the Makar Sankranti mela.

Correct answer: C

The Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the Narmada river in Gujarat.

Correct answer: A

Kanyakumari, the southernmost tip of mainland India, is located in Tamil Nadu.

Correct answer: C

Pangong Tso lies in the Union Territory of Ladakh, created after the reorganisation effective 31 October 2019.

Correct answer: D

Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is the major lignite (brown coal) mining centre in India.

Correct answer: B

Kodagu (Coorg) in Karnataka is famous as a major coffee-producing region.

Correct answer: D

Rourkela in Odisha is the steel production centre (Rourkela Steel Plant); Bhilai is in Chhattisgarh and Bhadravati in Karnataka.

Correct answer: C

Kanchenjunga (8,586 m) is the highest peak within India's recognised borders; K2 lies in Pakistan-administered territory.

Correct answer: C

Tamil Nadu receives most of its rainfall during the October-December northeast (retreating) monsoon.

Correct answer: A

Tamil Nadu has historically exploited the maximum installed wind-energy potential among Indian states, led by the Muppandal wind farm.

Correct answer: C

NASA's Mars 2020 rover was named 'Perseverance' through the winning essay of seventh-grader Alexander Mather, announced in March 2020.

Correct answer: A

Bimal Julka took oath as Chief Information Commissioner on 6 March 2020 and administered oath to Amita Pandove as Information Commissioner in the CIC.

Correct answer: B

The Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 is a dispute-resolution scheme for settling pending direct tax (income tax) disputes.

Correct answer: D

Cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin run on blockchain, a distributed-ledger technology.

Correct answer: A

Australian Associated Press (AAP), which announced its closure in March 2020 after 85 years, was founded by Sir Keith Murdoch in 1935.

Correct answer: B

The Shaheen Bagh interlocutors (Sanjay Hegde and Sadhana Ramachandran) filed their sealed-cover report before the Supreme Court bench of Justices S.K. Kaul and K.M. Joseph in Feb 2020.

Correct answer: C

Julian Assange was held at Belmarsh Prison in London, from where he was produced before District Judge Vanessa Baraitser in February 2020.

Correct answer: D

In Mukesh Kumar v. State of Uttarakhand (7 Feb 2020), the Supreme Court held there is no fundamental right to reservation in promotion and set aside the Uttarakhand High Court ruling.

Correct answer: C

Shashi Tharoor's weekly 'Word of the Week' column began in April 2019 in Hindustan Times, New Delhi.

Correct answer: B

Novak Djokovic beat Dominic Thiem in the 2020 Australian Open men's singles final to claim his eighth AO title.

Correct answer: C

Anjula Singh Mahaur, the Mayor of Agra (2017-2022), presented the ceremonial silver key of the city to US President Donald Trump during his February 2020 visit.

Correct answer: A

Babita Puniya, who filed the first PIL in 2003, was the lead petitioner in Secretary, Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya (2020) on permanent commission for women in the Army.

Correct answer: D

Pink Floyd co-founder Roger Waters recited Amir Aziz's poem 'Sab Yaad Rakha Jayega' ('Everything Will Be Remembered') at a February 2020 London event.

Correct answer: B

Mitt Romney was the only Republican senator to vote to convict Trump (on abuse of power) in his first impeachment trial in February 2020.

Correct answer: C

Christina Koch's 328-day spaceflight (returned Feb 2020) broke Peggy Whitson's 289-day record for the longest single spaceflight by a woman.

Correct answer: B

The 'Azadi ke Diwane' Museum, dedicated to freedom fighters, was inaugurated at the Red Fort, Delhi in March 2019.

Correct answer: D

Viswanathan Anand's autobiography is titled 'Mind Master: Winning Lessons from a Champion's Life' (with Susan Ninan).

Correct answer: A

Muhyiddin Yassin was sworn in as Malaysia's eighth Prime Minister on 1 March 2020 after Mahathir Mohamad's resignation.

Correct answer: C

Chapchar Kut is a spring festival celebrated in Mizoram by the Mizo people.

Correct answer: B

Brazilian President Jair Bolsonaro was the chief guest at India's 2020 Republic Day celebrations.

Correct answer: C

Mobile communication uses microwave radiation (in the GHz range) for transmitting signals.

Correct answer: D

LEDs do not contain mercury; that statement is incorrect (CFLs contain mercury). The other statements about LEDs are true.

Correct answer: A

A sewing machine needle moves up and down repeatedly, which is periodic (oscillatory) motion.

Correct answer: C

Potential difference (voltage) is measured in volts.

Correct answer: D

The human eye forms a real, inverted image of an object on the retina.

Correct answer: D

Violet light has the shortest wavelength of visible light, so it deviates (bends) the most through a prism.

Correct answer: C

Newton's third law: to every action there is an equal and opposite reaction; the forces are always equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

Correct answer: B

Change of state from gaseous to liquid (or solid) is condensation; evaporation and dew formation are subsets/opposites and 'liquidization' is not the general term.

Correct answer: D

Cryogenic engines use liquefied gases (liquid hydrogen/oxygen) as propellant and are used in rockets such as the GSLV upper stage.

Correct answer: A

A fuse is a safety device that melts and breaks the circuit on excessive current, protecting (saving) the electric circuit.

Correct answer: B

A ions at 8 corners contribute 8x(1/8)=1; B ions at 6 face-centres contribute 6x(1/2)=3, giving the empirical formula AB3.

Correct answer: B

CrO2 is a well-known metallic and ferromagnetic oxide (used in magnetic tapes); TiO2, VO2 and MnO2 are not ferromagnetic metallic conductors.

Correct answer: C

Equivalents of Ca = 40000/20 = 2000; same charge gives same equivalents of Al, and at 50% efficiency = 1000 equiv x (27/3=9) = 9000 g = 9 kg.

Correct answer: B

For E=1.1 V with n=2, log K = nE/0.059 = 2x1.1/0.059 = 37.3, so the equilibrium constant is of order 10^37.

Correct answer: C

Reducing strength increases with more negative electrode potential; with x=-1.2, y=+0.5, z=-3.0, the order is z>x>y.

Correct answer: D

For a zero-order reaction t(1/2) = [A]0/2k, which is directly proportional to initial concentration, so doubling [A]0 doubles the half-life.

Correct answer: C

Gold sol is negatively charged, so by the Hardy-Schulze rule the cation of highest valency coagulates it best; among the options Mg2+ (from MgCl2) is the highest-valency cation.

Correct answer: C

He-4 is an even-even nucleus (2 protons, 2 neutrons), so its nuclear spin is zero; 2H, 14N and 10B have non-zero spin.

Correct answer: A

India holds the world's largest reserves of monazite (in beach sands of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala); standard answer keys give monazite as the ore found in abundance in India.

Correct answer: D

Dry ice to CO2 gas is sublimation: it absorbs heat (H positive) and increases disorder going from solid to gas (S positive), so both H and S are positive.

Correct answer: D

Cell organelles are isolated/separated by differential (gradient) centrifugation based on their densities.

Correct answer: A

Pairing of homologous chromosomes (synapsis, forming bivalents) occurs during the zygotene stage of prophase I of meiosis.

Correct answer: B

Mutualism (both benefit) and protocooperation are positive interactions between species.

Correct answer: A

Trypsin acts in the alkaline medium of the small intestine, whereas pepsin acts in the acidic medium of the stomach.

Correct answer: C

Adrenaline (noradrenaline) and acetylcholine are the classical neurotransmitters; secretin and cholecystokinin are gut hormones, not neurotransmitters.

Correct answer: D

The discovery of restriction endonucleases, which cut DNA at specific sites, made recombinant DNA technology and genetic engineering possible.

Correct answer: B

A queen honey bee lays two types of eggs: fertilised eggs developing into queens and workers, and unfertilised eggs developing into drones (haplodiploidy).

Correct answer: D

Ribosomes of bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplasts are 70S type, consistent with the endosymbiotic origin of these organelles.

Correct answer: A

Ray fungi are Actinomycetes, filamentous bacteria that resemble fungi (note options c/d are duplicated as Phycomycetes in the OCR).

Correct answer: C

Under water stress, abscisic acid (ABA) accumulates and induces stomatal closure to reduce water loss.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement made without consideration is void (subject to the listed exceptions).

Correct answer: A

Under the doctrine of frustration (Section 56, Indian Contract Act), a contract is discharged by supervening impossibility, government restrictions, or destruction of subject matter, but mere commercial impossibility/hardship does not frustrate a contract.

Correct answer: C

Section 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act defines a voidable contract as an agreement enforceable by law at the option of one or more parties but not at the option of the other(s).

Correct answer: C

Both Kedarnath v. Gorie Mohammad and Delhi Cloth & General Mills Ltd. v. Union of India are leading cases discussed under the doctrine of promissory estoppel in Indian contract law.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, the communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.

Correct answer: D

Hadley v. Baxendale concerns remoteness/measure of damages, not public policy; hence the pairing 'Public Policy—Hadley vs. Baxendale' is the incorrectly matched one.

Correct answer: C

The Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1997 amended Section 28 (agreements in restraint of legal proceedings) to also void clauses extinguishing rights or discharging liability on expiry of a specified period.

Correct answer: B

Novation (Section 62, Indian Contract Act) is the substitution of a new contract or change in the nature of the obligation, replacing the existing one.

Correct answer: B

Section 68 deals with necessaries supplied to a minor/incapable person; the minor is not personally liable, only the minor's property is liable for reimbursement.

Correct answer: B

Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act defines a 'continuing guarantee' as a guarantee which extends to a series of transactions.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, agreements by way of wager are void (not unlawful), and no suit lies to recover anything won on a wager.

Correct answer: B

Salmond propounded the 'pigeon-hole theory' of tort, holding there is a fixed catalogue of nominate torts; Winfield opposed it with the wider 'law of tort' theory.

Correct answer: A

'Res ipsa loquitur' (the thing speaks for itself) is a rule of evidence in negligence that shifts the burden of proof to the defendant when the accident itself implies negligence.

Correct answer: A

The rule of strict liability was laid down by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher (1868).

Correct answer: C

'Qui facit per alium facit per se' (he who acts through another does the act himself) is the basis of vicarious liability.

Correct answer: D

Blackstone, in his Commentaries, divided wrongs into private wrongs (civil injuries) and public wrongs (crimes).

Correct answer: C

The valid tort defences include volenti non fit injuria, vis major (act of God) and consent; 'scienti non fit injuria' (mere knowledge of risk) is NOT a valid/complete defence, as knowledge alone does not imply consent.

Correct answer: A

'Damnum sine injuria' means actual damage suffered without infringement of any legal right, for which no action lies.

Correct answer: B

In the law of tort the duty is fixed by law and owed towards persons generally, i.e. the world at large, unlike contractual duty owed to specific persons.

Correct answer: A

The maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' (where there is a right there is a remedy) was recognized in Ashby v. White (1703).

Correct answer: B

Independent tortfeasors who cause the same damage by separate acts are liable severally only (not jointly), each for the damage caused; joint tortfeasors are liable jointly and severally.

Correct answer: C

Absolute liability, laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), is stricter than strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher, admitting none of its exceptions.

Correct answer: C

To succeed in negligence the plaintiff must prove a duty of care owed to him (the plaintiff), its breach, and resulting damage; breach of a duty owed to the plaintiff is essential.

Correct answer: D

Defamation requires publication to a third party; a defamatory letter that is never posted and kept in one's own custody is not 'published', so no action lies.

Correct answer: C

Both prescription (acquiring a right by 20 years' continuance) and statutory authority are recognized defences to the tort of nuisance.

Correct answer: B

'De minimis non curat lex' means the law does not concern itself with trifles, i.e. trivial discrepancies must be overlooked.

Correct answer: D

Under Sec 2(6) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, 'future goods' are goods to be manufactured, produced or acquired by the seller after the making of the contract of sale, i.e. goods not yet in existence/owned by the seller.

Correct answer: B

The statement is reversed: a completed sale creates jus in rem (a right against the world/property right), whereas an agreement to sell creates jus in personam (a right against the other party). Hence (b) is the incorrect distinction.

Correct answer: C

'Caveat emptor' (Sec 16, Sale of Goods Act) literally means 'let the buyer beware' - the buyer must check the goods himself, subject to statutory exceptions.

Correct answer: B

Under Sec 27 (mercantile/sale by agent), good title passes when the seller is a mercantile agent acting in the ordinary course of business as such agent, not 'as an owner of the goods'; so (b) is the incorrect statement.

Correct answer: D

Under Sec 37(2), on delivery of a larger quantity the buyer may reject the whole, accept the whole, or accept the contracted quantity and reject the rest; if he accepts the whole he must pay at the contract rate for the whole, so (d) (retain whole but pay only for ordered) is incorrect.

Correct answer: B

Under Sec 4 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a promissory note contains an UNCONDITIONAL undertaking; describing it as a 'conditional undertaking' is incorrect.

Correct answer: D

A cheque is dishonoured by non-payment, not by non-acceptance (a cheque needs no acceptance); therefore statement (d) is incorrect.

Correct answer: B

Under Sec 9 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a holder in due course must acquire the instrument before maturity (for value, in good faith, complete and regular on its face); taking it 'on the date of maturity' is not an essential element, so (b) is incompatible.

Correct answer: B

The statement is reversed: an assignee takes subject to (is affected by) defects in the assignor's title, whereas a holder in due course is NOT affected by prior defects; hence (b) is the incorrect statement.

Correct answer: D

A banker may rightly dishonour for a post-dated cheque, insufficient funds, or countermand of payment; but where the customer has become insolvent and the bank has received no notice of it, the banker is not justified in refusing payment, so (d) is the answer.

Correct answer: C

Flagged: option (c) is garbled. The established exceptions to the indoor management (Turquand) rule are actual knowledge of the irregularity (a), suspicious circumstances requiring inquiry (b), and forgery (d); option (c) (acting beyond the Articles) is the odd one out and is the intended 'not an exception' answer.

Correct answer: B

The Articles of Association are subordinate to the Memorandum of Association; in case of inconsistency the Articles must give way to the Memorandum, so (b) is the correct statement.

Correct answer: C

On an ultra vires transaction a director can seek an injunction, directors are personally liable to the company, and ratification/estoppel cannot validate it; but the director is not personally liable to the third party for the third party's loss in the manner stated, so (c) is not correct.

Correct answer: D

Under Sec 149 of the Companies Act, 2013, a company may increase its directors beyond 15 by passing a special resolution alone - no prior Central Government approval is required; hence statement (d) is incorrect.

Correct answer: B

Under Sec 244, a member holding not less than ONE-TENTH (1/10) of the issued share capital may apply for relief against oppression/mismanagement; the figure '1/15' in (b) is wrong, making it the incorrect statement.

Correct answer: C

Under Sec 4/5 of the Partnership Act, partnership arises from a contract entered into by all the persons concerned, so (c) is correct; sharing of losses is not essential (only profit-sharing is the test), making (d) wrong.

Correct answer: B

A dormant (sleeping) partner shares profits and is liable to third parties for the firm's acts like any other partner; the statement that he is 'not liable for the firm's liability to outsiders' (b) is incorrect.

Correct answer: D

Under Sec 19(2)(f) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a partner's implied authority does NOT extend to acquiring immovable property on behalf of the firm; hence (d) is the incorrect statement.

Correct answer: C

Under Sec 30 of the Partnership Act, a minor admitted to the benefits of partnership may sue the partners for his agreed share of the profits or of the property of the firm (only on severing his connection), so (c) is the correct statement.

Correct answer: B

Under Sec 44, grounds for dissolution by court include a partner's permanent incapacity (a), the business being carried on only at a loss (c), and conduct prejudicial to the business (d); a partner merely transferring his whole interest to a third party (b) is a ground only for OTHER partners to seek dissolution, not for the suing partner himself, so (b) is not a perfect ground for him.

Correct answer: D

The mode of proof of a custom under the Indian Evidence Act is contained in Sec 32(4) (statement as to public right or custom), Sec 32(7) (statement in documents relating to the transaction creating the custom) and Sec 48 (opinion as to existence of custom); hence 'All of the above' (d).

Correct answer: B

Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor (1939) is the leading Privy Council decision on dying declarations and the scope of 'circumstances of the transaction' under Sec 32(1) of the Evidence Act.

Correct answer: C

The doctrine of estoppel (Sec 115, Indian Evidence Act) is a rule of evidence, not substantive law - it bars a person from denying what he earlier represented and another acted upon.

Correct answer: B

Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (inserted in 1983) provides the presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman within seven years of marriage where cruelty is shown.

Correct answer: A

Zahira Habibulla Sheikh was the prime/star witness in the Best Bakery case (2004) arising out of the Gujarat 2002 riots, in which the Supreme Court ordered a retrial outside Gujarat.

Correct answer: A

The CPC (Amendment) Act 2002's object was to expedite/speed up disposal of cases, but the question is OCR-broken: option (c) is missing and none of the printed options (a/b/d) capture the true intent, so no reliable correct option exists.

Correct answer: B

The Rule of Damdupat is a rule relating to interest, providing that the amount of interest recoverable at any one time cannot exceed the principal amount of the loan.

Correct answer: C

A commission for local investigation is issued under Order XXVI Rule 9 CPC, for elucidating any matter in dispute or ascertaining market value/mesne profits.

Correct answer: A

The grounds for review are provided under Order XLVII Rule 1 CPC (discovery of new evidence, error apparent on the face of the record, or any other sufficient reason).

Correct answer: C

Under Section 148A CPC, a caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of 90 days from the date on which it was lodged.

Correct answer: C

Section 320 CrPC classifies and lists compoundable offences (and which require court permission); offences not so listed are non-compoundable.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 164 CrPC, a confession can be recorded only by a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate, and expressly not by a police officer.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 167(2)(a)(ii) CrPC, for offences other than those punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of not less than 10 years, the maximum detention during investigation is 60 days.

Correct answer: A

The stem is truncated ('on the ground of' with no ground stated). On the general rule under Section 125 CrPC, a divorce obtained by the husband does not by itself bar the wife's maintenance claim, so (a) is the best guess, but the incomplete stem makes the intended answer uncertain.

Correct answer: A

Section 164A CrPC, inserted by the CrPC (Amendment) Act 2005, deals with the medical examination of the victim of rape.

Correct answer: D

Arbitrators are appointed by the parties themselves, and on their default in international commercial arbitration the appointment is made by the Chief Justice of India (now the Supreme Court); hence 'Both (A) and (C)'.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 34(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, an application to set aside an award must be made within three months of receipt of the award (extendable by a further 30 days for sufficient cause).

Correct answer: A

Section 64 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 lays down the provision for the appointment of conciliators.

Correct answer: A

The Provincial Small Cause Courts Act 1887 came into force on 1st July 1887.

Correct answer: B

Under the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act 1887, the State Government is authorised to establish and abolish courts of small causes.

Correct answer: A

Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution which formed the basis of the Preamble; however the question is OCR-broken (option (A) Jawaharlal Nehru is merged into the stem and missing from the options list), so the correct choice is not selectable among b/c/d.

Correct answer: B

The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9th December 1946.

Correct answer: A

The Constituent Assembly adopted/completed the Constitution on 26th November 1949.

Correct answer: B

The concept of Fundamental Rights was borrowed from the US Constitution (Bill of Rights).

Correct answer: A

The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) aim at establishing a welfare state by securing social and economic justice.

Correct answer: B

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system.

Correct answer: B

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 is known as the 'Mini Constitution' due to its sweeping changes.

Correct answer: C

Pratibha Patil served as the 12th President of India (2007-2012).

Correct answer: C

Under Article 165, the Governor of the State appoints the Advocate General of the State.

Correct answer: B

The post of Deputy Prime Minister is non-constitutional; it finds no mention in the Constitution and is a purely political/executive office.

Correct answer: A

Part XII (Articles 264-300A) of the Constitution is titled 'Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits'.

Correct answer: D

Article 243ZM (Part IXB) deals with the audit of accounts of co-operative societies.

Correct answer: B

Article 279 is titled 'Calculation of net proceeds, etc.' and defines how net proceeds of a tax are ascertained and certified by the CAG.

Correct answer: B

In Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967), Justice Hidayatullah described the Preamble as the very soul of the Constitution, eternal and unalterable.

Correct answer: C

Justice J.R. Mudholkar, in Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (1965), observed that the Preamble 'appears to be an epitome of the basic features of the Constitution'.

Correct answer: B

The phrase 'equal protection of the laws' in Article 14 is borrowed from the American Constitution (14th Amendment), while 'equality before the law' derives from the British/Dicey tradition.

Correct answer: C

In Ekta Shakti Foundation v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi (2006), the Supreme Court held that the equality clause under Article 14 cannot be invoked to legitimise an illegal action (no negative equality).

Correct answer: C

Article 51 (a Directive Principle) directs the State to promote international peace and security.

Correct answer: C

Article 77(1) provides that all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.

Correct answer: C

In SC Advocates-on-Record Assn. v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment (NJAC) as unconstitutional.

Correct answer: B

Article 145(3) requires a minimum bench of five judges to decide any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.

Correct answer: C

Under Article 151(1), the CAG's reports relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the President, who causes them to be laid before Parliament.

Correct answer: C

Under Article 312, Parliament may create new All India Services only if the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) first passes a resolution by special majority; the Rajya Sabha's resolution is the prerequisite making it the exclusive initiating power.

Correct answer: B

Article 343(1) declares the official language of the Union to be Hindi in the Devanagari script.

Correct answer: D

Article 395 (repeals) along with continuance provisions; the law/judgments of the Privy Council are saved/continued under Article 372, but among the options Article 372 is absent and Article 395 is the closest constitutional provision dealing with the transition. The judgments of the Federal Court and Privy Council are preserved by the saving clause read with Article 395.

Correct answer: A

The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (set up in 2000) was chaired by Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah.

Correct answer: D

Certiorari is the writ used by a superior court to quash the order of an inferior court/tribunal, and is described as a judicial (quasi-judicial review) remedy.

Correct answer: A

Under Article 352(4), every proclamation of emergency must be laid before each House of Parliament.

Correct answer: C

Under Article 280, the Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President.

Correct answer: C

Under Article 316, the number and composition (conditions of service) of the UPSC are determined by the President; the Constitution does not fix a number.

Correct answer: A

Article 340 empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes (Backward Classes Commission).

Correct answer: C

Article 236(a) defines 'district judge' and the definition does not include a tribunal judge; it enumerates judges of city civil/sessions courts etc.

Correct answer: C

President's Rule under Article 356 is imposed by the President on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers (Union Cabinet), usually after the Governor's report.

Correct answer: C

The doctrine of due process of law is associated with Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty), into which the Supreme Court read substantive due process post-Maneka Gandhi.

Correct answer: B

The doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by Montesquieu in 'The Spirit of the Laws' (1748).

Correct answer: D

Dicey's Rule of Law connotes supremacy of law (absence of arbitrary power) and equality before the law; it does not mean supremacy of the judiciary or of Parliament, so (2) and (3) are correct.

Correct answer: B

The List-I/List-II matching pairs are not preserved in the OCR, so the match cannot be independently solved; however option (d) itself embeds the printed key 'Answer: (B)', so (b) is the paper's intended answer.

Correct answer: B

Delegated/subordinate legislation can operate retrospectively only when the parent Act expressly authorises retrospective operation; otherwise it is presumed prospective (Hukam Chand v. Union of India).

Correct answer: A

Vicarious liability in crime is justified mainly on grounds of public policy; option (A) 'Public policy' is printed in the stem and is missing from the listed options (b/c/d), so the option set is OCR-broken though the intended answer is (a).

Correct answer: C

This definition of Administrative Law focusing on powers, procedures and judicial review of administrative agencies is the classic definition given by K.C. Davis.

Correct answer: B

The Dayabhaga was written by Jimutavahana; the Mitakshara (a commentary on Yajnavalkya Smriti) was authored by Vijnaneshwara.

Correct answer: C

Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 declares a marriage void (for contravention of Section 5(i),(iv),(v)); Section 12 deals with voidable marriages.

Correct answer: D

Section 16 HMA confers legitimacy on children of void (s.11) and voidable (s.12) marriages; it does not legitimise children born wholly without any marriage.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 10(iv) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a child to be adopted must not have completed 15 years of age, absent a contrary custom or usage.

Correct answer: D

A Mitakshara coparcenary consists of persons who acquire interest by birth (son, adopted son, and after the 2005 amendment, daughter including married daughter); a daughter-in-law is never a coparcener.

Correct answer: A

An adopted son, an after-born natural son and a daughter are all Class I heirs of a Hindu male and take the self-acquired property equally; the stem is slightly truncated but the heir set makes equal division the answer.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 15 HSA, a Hindu female's property first devolves on her sons (which includes an illegitimate son) and daughters; a stepson is not her son, so it goes to her daughter and illegitimate son.

Correct answer: C

An illegitimate son is a member of the joint family but not a coparcener, so he has no right to a share on partition of coparcenary property (an adopted son is a coparcener and a widow takes a share when partition occurs).

Correct answer: A

Stridhan is property over which a woman has absolute ownership; the chastity of a female is not property and is not stridhan.

Correct answer: D

A Hindu idol is a juristic person but, being perpetually unable to manage its own affairs, its legal position is treated as that of a perpetual minor whose property is managed by the shebait.

Correct answer: D

The foremost and primary source of Muslim law is the Quran (Koran); Sunna, Ijma and Qiyas follow in that order.

Correct answer: B

Sunni law recognises only valid (sahih), irregular (fasid) and void (batil) marriages; muta (temporary) marriage is recognised only under Shia (Ithna Ashari) law.

Correct answer: A

Dower (mahr) is an obligation arising from marriage rather than a precondition to it; a Muslim marriage without specifying dower remains valid and proper dower (mahr-i-misl) becomes payable.

Correct answer: D

Under Muslim law a gift (hiba) requires an existing, ascertainable donee; a gift to an unborn person (one not in existence even in the womb) is void.

Correct answer: A

A bequest (will) to a child in the womb is valid under Sunni law only if the child is born alive within six months from the date of the will (the Shia period being ten months).

Correct answer: B

A wakf must be for a purpose recognised as religious, pious or charitable under Islam; dedication for construction of a church is not a valid wakf object, whereas a bridge, khanqah, or commemorating Ali Murtaza are valid.

Correct answer: D

For a valid acknowledgment of paternity, the acknowledger must be at least twelve and a half years older than the child acknowledged, this being the minimum age of puberty.

Correct answer: A

Once a Muslim marriage is consummated, the custody (and right of guardianship of the person) of even a minor wife vests in the husband rather than her parents.

Correct answer: D

Under Shia law an illegitimate child has no right of inheritance at all, not even from the mother (unlike Sunni law where he inherits from the mother), so his property is inherited by none of them.

Correct answer: C

Under Shia law a marriage with a fifth wife (exceeding the lawful limit of four) is void (batil); under Sunni law the same is only irregular (fasid). Since the question specifies a Shia Muslim, the fifth marriage is void.

Correct answer: D

OCR-corrupted match-the-list: List/code rows are garbled. The recognizable pairing 'Feeding the grant by estoppel = Section 43 TPA' fits the code 'a b c d 4 2 1 3' shown in option (d), so (d) is the best guess; reason: stem and options are broken/incomplete.

Correct answer: C

The doctrine of 'substituted security' is contained in Section 73 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, giving the mortgagee a right to the proceeds of a revenue sale or compensation on acquisition in substitution for the lost security.

Correct answer: D

OCR-broken: only statements 1-3 are printed but options reference a non-existent statement 4. Of the printed statements, 1 (lease assignable, licence not) and 3 (lease transfers interest, licence does not) are correct while 2 (licence-holder can sue trespasser in own name) is wrong; no option cleanly matches {1,3}. Best available guess (d) '3 and 4' captures the correct statement 3; reason: missing/garbled statement and options.

Correct answer: B

A mortgage by deposit of title deeds (equitable mortgage) under Section 58(f) TPA requires neither writing nor registration; the other listed mortgages require a registered instrument.

Correct answer: A

A bequest of a fund to a person 'for the next seven generations' offends the rule against perpetuity (Section 14 TPA) and is NOT an exception to it; transfer for public benefit, vested interests, and renewal-covenant leases are recognised exceptions.

Correct answer: B

'Lis pendens' literally means a suit pending or under consideration of a court of law; this underlies the doctrine of lis pendens in Section 52 TPA.

Correct answer: D

Section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with persons competent to transfer (every person competent to contract and entitled to the property).

Correct answer: A

Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act restricts the direction for accumulation of income from property beyond the permitted period.

Correct answer: C

Marshalling (Sections 56/81) and Contribution (Section 82) under the TPA are doctrines relating to securities/mortgages, governing how mortgaged properties bear the burden of debts.

Correct answer: A

Section 124 of the Transfer of Property Act declares void a gift of property not in existence at the date of the gift.

Correct answer: B

The primary/original source of equity is conscience (the dictates of conscience administered by the Court of Chancery), as distinct from written law, custom or precedent.

Correct answer: C

Equitable principles are statutorily recognised in the Indian Contract Act 1872, the Specific Relief Act, and the Indian Succession Act 1925, but NOT in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.

Correct answer: B

The classification of equity's jurisdiction as exclusive, concurrent and auxiliary is attributed to Story (in his Commentaries on Equity Jurisprudence).

Correct answer: A

English rules of equity have been substantially (not wholly) incorporated by the Indian legislature through statutes like the Contract Act, Specific Relief Act, Trusts Act and Transfer of Property Act.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 77 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, a trust is extinguished when its purpose is completely fulfilled, becomes unlawful or impossible, or (being revocable) is expressly revoked - hence all of the above.

Correct answer: B

'Breach of trust' is defined in Section 3 (the interpretation clause) of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 as a breach of any duty imposed on a trustee by law.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 7 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 a trust may be created by every person competent to contract; a minor (being incompetent to contract under Section 11 of the Contract Act) cannot create a trust.

Correct answer: A

Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act provides that a person entitled to possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure.

Correct answer: C

Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lays down the general principles/cases in which a perpetual injunction may be granted to prevent breach of an obligation.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 the grant of a mandatory injunction is discretionary - the court 'may in its discretion' grant it.