Delhi Judiciary — Prelims 2011

Correct answer: D

Cyrus P. Mistry was named Chairman designate of Tata Sons in November 2011, set to succeed Ratan Tata.

Correct answer: D

Under Article 58, a candidate need only be qualified for election to the Lok Sabha; he need not actually be elected as a member of the House of the People.

Correct answer: A

Meira Kumar was the Speaker of the 15th Lok Sabha (2009-2014), in office when the paper was set.

Correct answer: A

Under Article 64, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Correct answer: D

John Austin defined jurisprudence as the 'philosophy of positive law', founding the analytical/positivist school.

Correct answer: B

Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Constitution.

Correct answer: B

Under Article 56, the President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Correct answer: D

The Presidency (Chartered) High Courts are Calcutta, Bombay and Madras; Jabalpur (M.P. High Court) is not a Presidency court.

Correct answer: A

Rohinton Fali (R.F.) Nariman took office as Solicitor General of India in July 2011 after Gopal Subramanium resigned, making him the SG current at the time of the paper.

Correct answer: D

The Communist Manifesto (1848) was authored by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels.

Correct answer: B

The Council of States (Rajya Sabha) was first constituted on 3 April 1952.

Correct answer: B

The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2009 rescinded the SEBI (Disclosure and Investor Protection) Guidelines, 2000 (notified August 2009).

Correct answer: C

Under Article 80, the Rajya Sabha has a maximum of 250 members, of whom 238 are elected (representatives of States and UTs) and 12 are nominated.

Correct answer: D

In November 2011 the Cabinet approved raising FDI in multi-brand retail to 51%.

Correct answer: D

Under Article 84, the minimum age is 25 years for the Lok Sabha (the lower of the two Houses), so the minimum qualifying age to be an MP is 25.

Correct answer: C

The UIDAI issues the unique identity number/card called Aadhaar.

Correct answer: A

Egyptian President Hosni Mubarak was ousted on 11 February 2011 during the Arab Spring.

Correct answer: A

The 2014 Commonwealth Games were held in Glasgow, Scotland.

Correct answer: D

Article 32 mentions five writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. 'Interrogatory' is not a writ.

Correct answer: D

Sachin Tendulkar was the first Indian to 13,000 Test runs (2010); Rahul Dravid became the second, reaching the mark at the Wankhede in November 2011.

Correct answer: C

Osama bin Laden was killed by US forces in Abbottabad, Pakistan, on 2 May 2011.

Correct answer: A

The International Labour Organisation is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

Correct answer: D

Steve Jobs, co-founder and CEO of Apple Inc., died in October 2011.

Correct answer: D

Hina Rabbani Khar was Pakistan's Foreign Minister (appointed July 2011), in office when the paper was set.

Correct answer: A

Hillary Clinton was the US Secretary of State (2009-2013), serving at the time of the paper.

Correct answer: B

WikiLeaks was founded by Australian journalist Julian Assange in 2006.

Correct answer: C

The Royal Bengal Tiger is the National Animal of India (declared 1973).

Correct answer: C

The Ashoka Chakra in the Indian national flag has 24 spokes.

Correct answer: C

Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) are in Part IVA, not Part IV; the statement saying they are in Part IV is incorrect. (FRs Part III, DPSP Part IV, Union Territories Part VIII are all correct.)

Correct answer: D

A High Court Judge retires at 62 (Art. 217), lower than a Supreme Court Judge who retires at 65 (Art. 124).

Correct answer: A

Habeas corpus literally means 'you may have the body' i.e. produce the body of the detained person before the court.

Correct answer: D

The President of India is formally addressed as 'His/Her Excellency'.

Correct answer: B

UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

Correct answer: C

In telecom, 2G stands for Second Generation mobile network technology.

Correct answer: D

Nassir Abdulaziz Al-Nasser of Qatar was elected President of the 66th session of the UN General Assembly (2011-12).

Correct answer: C

Zohra Sehgal, Y.V. Reddy and Prathap Chandra Reddy all received the Padma Vibhushan in 2010; actor Aamir Khan did not.

Correct answer: D

Under Article 215, every High Court is a court of record, so the claim that the Supreme Court is the only court of record is false.

Correct answer: A

India won 38 gold medals (101 total) at the 2010 Commonwealth Games in Delhi.

Correct answer: B

The Charminar (built 1591) is located in Hyderabad.

Correct answer: C

The Sutlej flows broadly west; the Ganga, Yamuna and Narmada are the others (Narmada flows east-to-west). Sutlej is the odd one not flowing west-to-east among the Himalayan/Gangetic rivers listed.

Correct answer: D

In 2011 Somdev Devvarman was the highest-ranked Indian in ATP singles (career-high around No. 62); Paes and Bhupathi rank in doubles.

Correct answer: C

Mahatma Gandhi never won the Nobel Prize; Raman (Physics 1930), Tagore (Literature 1913) and Amartya Sen (Economics 1998) did.

Correct answer: A

U.S. President Barack Obama won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2009.

Correct answer: C

Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India (appointed 1989).

Correct answer: B

Blood cancer is commonly known as leukaemia.

Correct answer: D

The International Court of Justice is located at The Hague, Netherlands.

Correct answer: A

'De jure' means 'by/according to law' (as opposed to de facto, in fact).

Correct answer: A

'A priori' reasoning proceeds from causes to effects, i.e. deductive reasoning.

Correct answer: D

At its December 2011 national conference, Australia's Labor Party voted to overturn the long-standing ban on uranium sales to India despite India being outside the NPT.

Correct answer: D

Hans Kelsen propounded the Pure Theory of Law, treating law as a system of norms (the basic norm/Grundnorm).

Correct answer: B

The word 'Socialist' was inserted into the Preamble by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, which came into force on 3rd January, 1977.

Correct answer: A

The basic structure doctrine was propounded for the first time by the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, (1973) 4 SCC 225.

Correct answer: A

Article 16(1) guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment to all citizens; it is a citizen-only right.

Correct answer: C

Protection against double jeopardy ('no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once') is a fundamental right under Article 20(2) of the Constitution.

Correct answer: A

Article 53(1) vests the executive power of the Union in the President, exercised by him directly or through officers subordinate to him.

Correct answer: D

Right to property ceased to be a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment (1978) and is now only a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A. The other options are fundamental rights under Articles 21 and 19.

Correct answer: A

Question is an incomplete/OCR-broken Match-the-List header with only a header fragment as the single option; not answerable as a standalone MCQ. Best guess (a) as the only listed option.

Correct answer: A

Correct matching: Habeas corpus - unlawful arrest/detention (B); Mandamus - non-performance of public duty (D); Quo warranto - exercise of power without jurisdiction (C); Certiorari - violation of natural justice (A). This is option (1): I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A.

Correct answer: A

Under Sections 135A of the CPC / legislative privilege, members are exempt from arrest only in civil process during the session and 40 days before and after it; there is no exemption from criminal arrest.

Correct answer: B

Under Article 149, the CAG's duties extend to accounts of the Union and States and of any other authority or body as may be prescribed by or under a law made by Parliament.

Correct answer: D

Article 14 covers equality before law, equal protection of laws and (through E.P. Royappa) protection against arbitrariness. Protection of life and liberty falls under Article 21, not Article 14.

Correct answer: B

The freedoms under Article 19 are guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons or foreigners.

Correct answer: B

A decision rendered by a court/tribunal lacking jurisdiction is a nullity and cannot operate as res judicata (a competent court is an essential condition under Section 11 CPC).

Correct answer: C

Pecuniary jurisdiction is determined by the principal sum/value of the suit (Rs. 3 lakhs), excluding future interest from date of suit till realisation; hence the Civil Judge is competent to try and decide the suit.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 17 CPC, a suit for partition of immovable property situate within the jurisdiction of different courts may be instituted in any court within whose local limits any portion of the property is situated.

Correct answer: A

The incorrect statement is (a): a temporary injunction (Order 39 CPC) may be granted at any stage of a suit, not only at the time of institution.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 16 CPC (proviso), a suit for specific performance of a contract relating to immovable property may be filed either where the property is situate or where the defendant resides/works for gain.

Correct answer: C

An ex parte decree is set aside under Order 9 Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Correct answer: A

A garnishee order (Order 21 Rule 46A CPC) prohibits the judgment-debtor's debtor (the garnishee) from paying the judgment-debtor and directs payment instead toward the decree.

Correct answer: C

Under Order 1 Rule 9 CPC, no suit fails for non-joinder or misjoinder of parties except for non-joinder of a necessary party (one in whose absence no effective decree can be passed).

Correct answer: A

Section 10 bars an even number of arbitrators; under MMTC v. Sterlite Industries, an agreement providing for an even number is not void but, on failure of mechanism, is construed as arbitration by a sole arbitrator (Section 10(2)/11).

Correct answer: A

Under Section 85(2)(a) of the 1996 Act, in relation to arbitral proceedings commenced before the new Act, the provisions of the Arbitration Act, 1940 continue to apply (including challenge to the award).

Correct answer: D

Under Sections 34(3) and 36, an award becomes enforceable as a decree only after the three-month (plus condonable 30-day) period to apply under Section 34 has expired or such application has been refused.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 11 of the 1996 Act (as it stood), appointment is by the Chief Justice of the High Court (or his designate) / Supreme Court; the application lies before the High Court, not the Civil Judge/District Judge.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a judicial authority referring parties to arbitration must dismiss the suit (the matter being referred to arbitration), not stay it.

Correct answer: C

Parties may by consensus terminate the mandate of the arbitrator (s.14/15) and appoint a substitute; under s.15(4) the substitute arbitrator has the discretion whether to repeat or continue from the earlier stage, so de novo is not automatic and lies in the arbitrator's discretion, not the parties'.

Correct answer: B

Under the law prevailing in 2011 (SBP & Co. v. Patel Engineering and National Insurance v. Boghara Polyfab), the Chief Justice deciding a s.11 application could examine whether the claim was a live or a dead/time-barred claim and decline to appoint an arbitrator if the claim was ex facie barred by limitation.

Correct answer: C

Under the pre-BALCO position prevailing in 2011, jurisdiction to entertain a s.34 challenge was determined by CPC s.20 on a concurrent basis: the court where the cause of action arose / a party resides (Delhi, where both companies were based and the transaction occurred) and the court where the award was made (Mumbai) both had jurisdiction.

Correct answer: A

A third party (C) claiming to be the real tenant, alleging a collusive eviction petition designed to evict him, can maintain a suit and is entitled to a temporary injunction restraining A from proceeding with the collusive eviction petition, as he is not a party to and has no remedy within those proceedings.

Correct answer: D

A contract for personal/professional skill (architect's designs) is a contract dependent on personal qualifications and cannot be specifically enforced (Specific Relief Act s.14); B is entitled to refund of advance and damages for breach, and the negative covenant can be enforced by permanent injunction (s.42).

Correct answer: A

A plaintiff who admittedly holds no copyright and has no personal interest has no cause of action/locus standi; a private civil suit cannot be filed merely to enforce laws in the public interest, so the plaint is liable to be rejected at the threshold as barred by law (Order 7 Rule 11).

Correct answer: A

Under s.10 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specific performance is granted where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by non-performance; the other options are grounds for refusing, not granting, specific performance (s.14).

Correct answer: A

A time-barred debt cannot be sued upon afresh (s.3 Limitation Act bars the suit), nor pleaded as a counterclaim, but it can be pleaded defensively as an equitable set-off, which is treated as an exception to limitation.

Correct answer: B

A written, signed promise to pay a debt already barred by limitation is a valid and enforceable contract without fresh consideration under s.25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, giving rise to an independent enforceable contract.

Correct answer: B

'Sui generis' (Latin: of its own kind) means the only one of its kind / unique.

Correct answer: D

Under CPC s.20, a suit for damages for breach of contract may be filed where the cause of action arises wholly or in part, which includes the place where the contract was executed and the place where it was to be performed.

Correct answer: D

Under Article 105 of the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for arrears of maintenance lies for three years, so arrears can be claimed only for the last three years.

Correct answer: C

Both Acts co-exist; s.4 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 expressly provides that the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 shall not apply to LLPs save as otherwise provided.

Correct answer: B

Absent public notice of retirement (s.32(3) Partnership Act), the retiring partner C continues liable to third parties who deal with the firm without notice; the incoming partner X is not liable for the firm's obligations before his admission (s.31). Hence Z can sue A, B and C.

Correct answer: D

A partnership firm is not a distinct legal entity or juristic person separate from its partners (unlike a company); 'firm' is merely a compendious name for the partners. Hence none of (a)-(c) is correct.

Correct answer: B

Under s.4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put in a course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.

Correct answer: C

Under s.24 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, if any part of a single consideration for one or more objects, or any one of several considerations for a single object, is unlawful, the agreement is void as a whole.

Correct answer: D

Under s.21 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a contract is not voidable merely because it was caused by a mistake as to a law in force in India; such a contract remains valid, so 'None of these'.

Correct answer: C

Under the Explanation to s.21 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact (rendering the agreement void under s.20 if both parties are under a mistake essential to the agreement).

Correct answer: B

Under s.27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, every agreement in restraint of a lawful trade, business or profession is void (subgoodwill exception apart).

Correct answer: A

A bid at an auction is an offer (which the auctioneer accepts by the fall of the hammer); a banker's catalogue of charges and a restaurant menu are merely invitations to offer.

Correct answer: A

Under s.34 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where a contingent event is the way a person will act at an unspecified time, the event is considered impossible when that person does anything which renders it impossible that he should so act within any definite time.

Correct answer: D

A contingent contract becomes void both where the event contemplated within a fixed time does not happen or becomes impossible (s.35) and where it is contingent on an impossible event (s.36); hence both (1) and (2).

Correct answer: C

The defence has no merit ('No'): s.69 of the Partnership Act bars a suit by an unregistered firm, but registration need only exist at the time the suit is instituted, not when the cause of action accrued; registration obtained before filing (even on the last day of limitation) cures the bar.

Correct answer: B

The defence has no merit ('No'): a tenant's possession is permissive and cannot become adverse to the landlord merely because no rent was collected for some years; adverse possession requires open, hostile possession denying the owner's title, which mere non-collection of rent does not establish.

Correct answer: B

Statement is false/garbled. Under s.42 Indian Contract Act 1872, joint promisors must jointly fulfil the promise; a single promisee is not 'liable alone to discharge' a promise (promisees are entitled, not liable). The proposition is False.

Correct answer: A

Per the passage (Aristotle's Topics), the man who draws a false figure 'does not fall within the definition' of contentious or dialectical reasoning; it is treated as a distinct form of reasoning derived from the special sciences. Hence 'a form of reasoning.'

Correct answer: B

The passage states first principles are 'true and primary,' believed 'on the strength not of anything else but of themselves.' A First Principle is a belief that is true and primary.

Correct answer: D

The passage says the man drawing a false figure 'reasons from things that are neither true and primary, nor yet generally accepted' — this is the mis-reasoning described.

Correct answer: D

Reasoning from 'opinions that are generally accepted' (subjective/received opinion) is termed dialectical reasoning in the passage.

Correct answer: B

The passage distinguishes two contentious reasonings: 'the former really deserves to be called reasoning... but the other should be called contentious reasoning.' Two forms.

Correct answer: B

Arguments whose premises 'command belief in and by itself' (true and primary) constitute a demonstration — i.e., demonstrative reasoning.

Correct answer: D

Fallacy means a false/erroneous belief, myth, or canard. 'Platitude' (a trite, commonplace remark) is not a synonym of fallacy.

Correct answer: D

'Illustrious' means famous/distinguished; antonyms are unknown, nameless, anonymous. 'Distinguished' is a synonym, not an antonym.

Correct answer: A

The passage notes generally accepted opinions are believed because accepted by most, whereas true-and-primary rests on themselves; thus generally accepted opinions need not be true and primary.

Correct answer: B

'Contentious' means causing argument; the nearest meaning is 'debatable.'

Correct answer: B

The passage's thrust is that satellite radar monitoring (overcoming verification difficulties) may remove a major obstacle to reducing deforestation-related CO2. Option (2) captures this main point.

Correct answer: B

The passage contrasts radar with photographic images, stating radar 'can be measured at night and during heavy cloud cover,' implying photographic images cannot be used efficiently at night.

Correct answer: D

The author rebuts critics and calls radar a 'promising step,' citing technological advances — reflecting reasoned optimism.

Correct answer: B

The passage attributes the Mapping Project's limited data 'only to the small amount of data that could be sent from the satellite,' implying more data might have made it successful.

Correct answer: C

All others are stated. The Kyoto treaty offered emissions trading/reforestation funding, not direct protection of rainforests from deforestation; (3) is the EXCEPT.

Correct answer: A

The author rebuts critics by noting modern satellites send '10 times more data.' If 100x more data was actually needed, that rebuttal collapses, weakening the author's argument.

Correct answer: D

The passage states a problem, proposes incentives/radar as solution, notes shortcomings (verification, past failures), suggests improved radar, and discusses obstacles — matching (4). It does not dismiss the solution, so (1) is wrong.

Correct answer: A

'Immutable' means unable to be changed; synonym is 'unchanging.'

Correct answer: B

'Balmy' (weather) means pleasantly mild/warm; synonym is 'warm.'

Correct answer: B

'Repugnant' means offensive/distasteful; synonym is 'disgusting.'

Correct answer: B

'Incessantly' means without interruption; synonym is 'continuously.'

Correct answer: A

'The most important event in India's history was the revolution of 1857' is the grammatical completion; the definite article 'The' fits.

Correct answer: A

'Vegetables are an excellent source of vitamins' — the correct preposition is 'of.'

Correct answer: D

'larger than they really are' is the grammatically correct comparative clause (subject 'they' + adverb + verb).

Correct answer: A

The sentence needs a finite main verb: 'The city of Gurgaon covers over 70 square miles.' Option (1) 'covers' completes the independent clause; 'that covers'/'covering' leave it a fragment.

Correct answer: D

A novel is written ABOUT a life story, so the relative phrase is 'about which a fascinating novel might be written.' 'About which' correctly attaches the preposition to the relative pronoun.

Correct answer: D

'Stolid' means calm, dependable and showing little emotion or animation.

Correct answer: D

'Encroach' means to intrude or trespass on the rights, property or domain of another.

Correct answer: C

'Potent' means powerful; having great power, strength or influence.

Correct answer: C

'Impolitic' means unwise or imprudent; not showing good judgement.

Correct answer: C

'Frenetic' means frantic, frenzied, wildly excited or uncontrolled.

Correct answer: C

A 'neologism' is a newly coined word or a new meaning given to an existing/old word.

Correct answer: D

'Tepid' means lukewarm; lacking warmth, interest or enthusiasm.

Correct answer: A

To 'hamper' is to hinder, impede or interfere with.

Correct answer: D

'Callow' means young, inexperienced or immature.

Correct answer: D

'Discerning' means showing good judgement; able to distinguish and appreciate one thing from another.

Correct answer: C

Logical order: Cash is the lifeblood -> if managed poorly, cardiac arrest -> to prevent, learn to manage cash flow -> several ways to do this -> after doing so, cash flow is strong and healthy (BCDEA).

Correct answer: A

C introduces digital technologies opening new directions; D notes their infiltration is limited vs scholarly portals; B says one factor limits the former; A identifies that factor as exclusion (CDBA).

Correct answer: D

A introduces Adam Smith as founding father of economics; C continues with his market theory; B names his book 'Theory of Moral Sentiments'; D explains its importance (individual freedom); E elaborates that freedom (ACBDE).

Correct answer: A

D: scientists used the fruit fly as a model organism; A: today expanded to human-disease research; B: because of its robust genetic system; C: these diseases include Alzheimer's etc. (DABC).

Correct answer: D

B: sleepwalking occurs in deep sleep; A: it is one of a group of parasomnias; C: these range from teeth grinding to eating; D: body runs on a circadian rhythm; E: differences in this cycle may link to sleepwalking (BACDE).

Correct answer: C

The correlative pair for two alternatives is 'either ... or': 'either the chicken dish or the fish dish.'

Correct answer: C

Two subjects joined affirmatively use 'both ... and': 'Both my aunt and my uncle live in India.'

Correct answer: A

Stem is truncated/garbled (only one blank shown), but the natural correlative reading is 'not only ... but also'; best available is option (1). Flagged for incomplete OCR of the sentence.

Correct answer: B

Two destinations are joined additively: 'going to Ireland and Scotland.'

Correct answer: A

Two true, parallel facts call for 'not only ... but also': 'not only marks the end of high school but also the beginning of adulthood.'

Correct answer: A

'Packed like sardines' means crammed tightly together; to squeeze in as many people or things as possible.

Correct answer: B

A 'heavy heart' means being weighed down with sorrow, grief or sadness.

Correct answer: B

'My heart goes out to you' expresses sympathy or compassion for someone's distress.

Correct answer: C

The idiom 'worth its weight in gold' means extremely useful or valuable; option (3) is the standard dictionary meaning.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 191 IPC, false evidence is given when one makes a statement that is false and which he either knows/believes to be false OR does not believe to be true; all the described situations are covered.

Correct answer: C

Section 95 IPC ('act causing slight harm') codifies the maxim de minimis non curat lex - the law takes no account of trifles.

Correct answer: A

Under Sections 96-100 IPC, the right of private defence is available against every member of an unlawful assembly; it is not available in a free fight, so (1) is correct.

Correct answer: A

Section 111 IPC: when one act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable in the same manner provided the act done was a probable consequence of the abetment.

Correct answer: A

Circumstantial evidence carries a double risk of fallibility - in proving the fact from which the inference is drawn, and in the inference itself - making it weaker than direct evidence.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 319 IPC, hurt includes causing disease or infirmity, which can occur without any use of force or physical contact; hence it is irrelevant that no force was used.

Correct answer: B

Whether a weapon is a deadly/dangerous weapon depends on the nature of the weapon and manner of use in the given facts and is a question of fact.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 3 of the Evidence Act, 'fact' includes things perceptible by the senses, states of things, and any mental condition of which a person is conscious - all of the above.

Correct answer: A

The relevancy of facts is governed by Sections 5 to 55 of the Indian Evidence Act; only facts falling within these sections are made relevant.

Correct answer: A

Instigating a person who voluntarily and knowingly commits suicide makes the instigator guilty of abetment of suicide under Section 305/306 IPC; Shyam knew he was committing suicide, so it is abetment, not murder.

Correct answer: C

The truck driver, on perceiving the danger, manoeuvred to avoid the negligently-ridden cyclist; having tried to avert the risk, his act was neither rash nor negligent.

Correct answer: B

A dying declaration is admitted under Section 32(1) of the Evidence Act on the principle of necessity - the declarant being dead cannot testify, so his statement as to the cause of death is admitted out of necessity.

Correct answer: D

Under Sections 91-92 of the Evidence Act, oral evidence cannot be led to supply material terms (property identity, price) left blank in a written contract; none of the proposed oral proofs is permissible.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 160 CrPC, a male person under the age of fifteen years cannot be required to attend at any place other than his residence; the 14-year-old can be made to join investigation only at his residence.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 306 CrPC, a Metropolitan Magistrate may tender pardon at any stage of investigation or inquiry, even where the offence is exclusively triable by Sessions; the Court of Sessions gets that power only after commitment (Section 307). Here the application is pre-commitment before the Metropolitan Magistrate, so he has the power.

Correct answer: C

The Section 25/26 Evidence Act bar applies only to confessions to a police officer or in police custody made to police; a confession voluntarily made to a friend is admissible.

Correct answer: C

Plea bargaining in India under Chapter XXIA CrPC is essentially sentence bargaining - the accused negotiates a mutually satisfactory disposition/reduced sentence, not the facts or charge.

Correct answer: D

Per Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) 7 SCC 263, polygraph, narco-analysis and BEAP tests cannot be administered without consent; an accused cannot be compelled to undergo them - hence None.

Correct answer: C

An incriminating circumstance not put to the accused under Section 313 CrPC cannot be used against him; the law mandates that such a circumstance must be excluded from consideration.

Correct answer: A

A police cancellation/closure report filed under Section 173 CrPC is submitted to and can be accepted only by the Magistrate, who alone may accept or reject it or order further investigation.

Correct answer: C

At noon the money was still in the employer's possession and not yet entrusted to the employee (entrustment was to operate only in the evening); taking it dishonestly without consent is theft under Section 378 IPC, not breach of trust.

Correct answer: B

A sharp-edged/cutting weapon is an instrument for cutting; causing hurt by such a dangerous weapon is punishable under Section 324 IPC (the injury being simple hurt, not grievous, rules out 325/326).

Correct answer: C

Under Section 325 CrPC, a Magistrate who finds the accused guilty but cannot pass a sufficiently severe sentence (a Magistrate cannot exceed 3 years - Section 29) must forward the case to the Chief Metropolitan/Chief Judicial Magistrate, who passes sentence - not to the Court of Sessions.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 178/179 CrPC, where an offence is committed partly in one place and consequence ensues in another (email sent from Delhi, accessed/effect at Kolkata), it may be tried at either place - both Delhi and Kolkata.

Correct answer: C

Under s.82 IPC nothing is an offence done by a child under 7; s.83 protects a child 7-12 lacking maturity. A 6-year-old (option a) and a girl below 12 (option b) are excused only if they LACK maturity, so 'having sufficient maturity' makes them liable. A man of 100 has no general age exemption either, but among these the only genuinely valid statement of complete defence is none of a/b as worded; the maturity wording in (a)&(b) defeats the s.82/83 defence. Best answer is (c) - extreme old age per se is no offence-creating fact, leaving him outside any culpability described, and notably (a)/(b) are wrong because maturity removes the defence.

Correct answer: C

Section 320(4)(b) CrPC: when the person competent to compound is dead, the legal representative of the deceased may, with the consent of the court, compound the offence.

Correct answer: C

Section 209 CrPC empowers the Magistrate to commit a case triable exclusively by the Court of Session whether instituted on a police report or otherwise than on a police report.

Correct answer: B

Collecting implements and going to the shop is mere preparation, not an attempt (no act towards commission as they returned on seeing police). However an agreement to commit theft plus an act in pursuance makes it criminal conspiracy under s.120A/120B IPC.

Correct answer: C

Section 79 IPC: an act done by a person justified, or who by reason of a mistake of fact in good faith believes himself bound/justified by law, is no offence. A police officer arresting C after reasonable inquiry, in good faith believing him to be B, commits no offence (illustration to s.79).

Correct answer: B

Section 220 CrPC: if in one series of acts so connected as to form the same transaction more offences than one are committed, the accused may be charged with and tried at one trial for every such offence.

Correct answer: B

Property was entrusted to B in safe custody; dishonest disposal of entrusted property is criminal breach of trust under s.405/406 IPC, not theft (which requires taking without consent / moving out of possession).

Correct answer: A

Article 20(1) of the Constitution bars subjecting a person to a penalty greater than that prescribed under the law in force at the time of the offence. The enhanced 7-year punishment cannot apply retrospectively, so A gets the 3-year sentence prescribed on the date of the offence.

Correct answer: B

Section 215 CrPC: no error or omission in stating the offence or particulars in the charge is material unless the accused was in fact misled and it has occasioned a failure of justice (prejudice).

Correct answer: D

Sections 298, 426 and 491 IPC are compoundable WITHOUT permission of the court under the s.320(1) CrPC table. Section 388 IPC (extortion by threat of accusation of an offence punishable with death/life) is not compoundable without court permission - it is non-compoundable, so it 'cannot be compounded without permission of the court'.

Correct answer: C

Section 72 IPC: where it is doubtful of which of several offences the offender is guilty, he shall be punished for the offence for which the lowest punishment is provided (assuming the same punishment for all is not provided).

Correct answer: D

Under the unamended s.497 IPC, the wife was not punishable even as an abettor for adultery. So B cannot be tried as abettor, adulteress or co-accused - none of the above.

Correct answer: D

Section 315 CrPC: an accused may be a competent witness for the defence and may give evidence on oath only on his own written request; he cannot be compelled or called as a witness by the prosecution/court.

Correct answer: C

Section 391 IPC: when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit robbery, the offence is dacoity. Hence dacoity is robbery committed by five or more persons.

Correct answer: D

Section 167(2) CrPC: detention in police custody (police remand) cannot in the whole exceed 15 days.

Correct answer: D

Section 34 IPC is not a substantive offence; it is a rule of evidence embodying constructive/joint liability for acts done in furtherance of common intention - both statements (2) and (3) correctly describe it. Statement (1) is wrong.

Correct answer: D

Section 142 of the Evidence Act: leading questions must not, if objected to, be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination (they are permitted in cross-examination under s.143).

Correct answer: A

A Test Identification Parade is a part of the investigation conducted to aid the investigating officer; it is not substantive evidence and belongs to the investigation stage, not the trial.

Correct answer: C

Section 306 CrPC: pardon may be tendered to an accomplice on condition of his making a full and true disclosure of the whole of the circumstances within his knowledge relating to the offence.

Correct answer: D

The Indian criminal justice system is adversarial in nature, and prosecution of offences is taken up by the State as a duty - both statements (1) and (2) are correct.

Correct answer: A

Section 162 CrPC: a statement recorded under s.161 cannot be used for any purpose at trial except to contradict the maker witness in the manner provided by s.145 of the Evidence Act.

Correct answer: B

A's telephonic information to police that he has committed murder is a confession to a police officer hit by s.25 of the Evidence Act and is also the FIR; it is admissible only to the limited extent of showing that A was the informant/maker (the confessional part is inadmissible).

Correct answer: B

Proviso (a) to Section 200 CrPC: the Magistrate need not examine the complainant and witnesses (pre-summoning evidence) if the complaint is made in writing by a public servant acting or purporting to act in discharge of his official duties (or by a court).

Correct answer: B

Preparation to commit dacoity IS an offence (s.399 IPC), so (1) is wrong; preparation to commit murder is generally not a distinct offence (only attempt is, s.307), so (2) is correct; attempting murder is an offence (s.307), so (3) is wrong. Only statement (2) is correct.

Correct answer: B

Section 304-A IPC (death by rash/negligent act) is the classic provision where mens rea in the sense of intention/knowledge is not an essential ingredient. Section 107 (abetment) requires mens rea/intention and s.364-A (kidnapping for ransom) requires the requisite intent, so only statement (2) is correct - option (d) is wrong because it includes s.107.

Correct answer: A

Under IPC Section 194 (giving or fabricating false evidence with intent to procure conviction of a capital offence), if an innocent person is thereby convicted and executed, the offender shall be punished with death. Hence the maximum penalty is death.