Delhi Judiciary — Prelims 2015

Correct answer: C

Dowry death = S.304B IPC; Housebreaking = S.445 IPC; Assault = S.351 IPC; Wrongful confinement = S.340 IPC. Mapping a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I matches option (c).

Correct answer: C

The Information Technology Act, 2000 amended several IPC provisions (e.g. ss. 29A, 167, 172, 192, 204, 463, 464, 466, 468, 469, 470, 471, 474, 476) to include electronic records and documents.

Correct answer: A

Section 76 IPC excuses an act done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact (not mistake of law) in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it. Of the given options, (a) is the closest fit as it speaks of being 'bound by law'; (b)/(c) misstate the rule (the correct basis is mistake of fact, bound by law).

Correct answer: B

X stood guard with a spear in furtherance of the common intention to murder Z; under S.34 IPC constructive liability attaches even without striking the fatal blow. Both X and Y are liable (S.34 read with S.302).

Correct answer: D

Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes opinions of experts on foreign law, science, art, handwriting or finger impressions relevant.

Correct answer: A

Under S.313(2) Cr.P.C. no oath shall be administered to the accused when he is examined; the accused's S.313 examination is not on oath. Hence statement (a) is wrong.

Correct answer: A

Same reason as Q6: S.313(2) Cr.P.C. expressly forbids administering an oath to the accused at his examination, so statement (a) is incorrect.

Correct answer: B

In a summons case the Magistrate need not frame a formal charge (S.251 Cr.P.C.); he only states the particulars of the offence and asks if the accused pleads guilty.

Correct answer: C

In a warrant case instituted on a police report, trial commences when the court frames the charge under S.240 Cr.P.C. (Common Cause / Hardeep Singh line of authority treats framing of charge as the start of trial).

Correct answer: B

Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) 7 SCC 263 is the Supreme Court decision discussing narco-analysis, polygraph and BEAP tests, holding involuntary administration violates Art. 20(3) and Art. 21.

Correct answer: C

Under S.320(4)(a) Cr.P.C., where the person competent to compound is dead, the legal representative may compound only with the consent of the court.

Correct answer: D

Section 216 Cr.P.C. empowers the court at any time before judgment to alter or add to any charge.

Correct answer: C

Under S.315 Cr.P.C. an accused may be a competent witness for the defence only on his own written request and may give evidence on oath in disproof of the charges; he cannot be compelled.

Correct answer: B

Where A intending to kill one person kills another, liability rests on the doctrine of transferred malice/intention (S.301 IPC).

Correct answer: B

Section 34 IPC is a rule of constructive/joint liability requiring active participation in furtherance of common intention, whereas S.149 creates a substantive offence based on membership of an unlawful assembly with a common object. Among the given options, (b) best captures that S.149 (and the common-object basis) differs in being a distinct provision of liability/evidence as against S.34 which requires participation; (b) is the intended answer.

Correct answer: C

Residuary legislative powers (Art. 248, Entry 97 List I) and the corresponding executive power vest in the Union/Parliament.

Correct answer: C

Among the listed countries Bangladesh has by far the highest population density (over 1000/sq km), exceeding India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Correct answer: D

As per Census 2011, Kerala is the only State with a sex ratio above 1000 (1084 females per 1000 males).

Correct answer: C

Under Art. 103, disqualification of a sitting Member of Parliament is decided by the President, who acts according to the opinion of the Election Commission. Hence 'President in consultation with Election Commission' (c).

Correct answer: C

Nasim Zaidi took charge as Chief Election Commissioner of India in April 2015 (succeeding H.S. Brahma), and held the office at the time of this 2015 paper.

Correct answer: B

Serena Williams won the Wimbledon 2015 Women's singles title, defeating Garbine Muguruza in the final (completing the 'Serena Slam').

Correct answer: C

Australia won the ICC Cricket World Cup 2015, defeating New Zealand in the final at Melbourne.

Correct answer: D

L. Chandra Kumar, Minerva Mills and Kesavananda Bharati all propounded or applied the basic structure doctrine. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (1965) predates and did not adopt the doctrine (only a minority dicta foreshadowed it).

Correct answer: C

The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi in 1951.

Correct answer: D

Gol Gumbaz, the mausoleum of Mohammed Adil Shah, is at Bijapur (Vijayapura) in Karnataka and has one of the largest domes in the world.

Correct answer: C

Under Article 80(1)(a) read with Article 80(3) of the Constitution, the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha having special knowledge/practical experience in literature, science, art and social service.

Correct answer: B

Under Article 359 of the Constitution, the rights conferred by Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended during an emergency; protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 cannot be suspended.

Correct answer: B

Kerala has among the highest HDI, the lowest infant mortality and lowest birth rate, yet records the highest rural and urban unemployment, a hallmark of the 'Kerala model'.

Correct answer: C

Kaziranga National Park in Assam is famous for the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros and hosts the largest population of this species in the world.

Correct answer: D

Muhammad bin Tughlaq shifted his capital from Delhi to Devagiri (renamed Daulatabad) because it occupied a more central and strategically secure location in his empire.

Correct answer: B

Greenhouse gases here are carbon dioxide (a), nitrous oxide (c) and water vapour (d); nitrogen (b) is not. Correct code is 'a, c and d', which matches option (b)/(c) text (options b and c are OCR-duplicated as 'a.,c. and d.').

Correct answer: C

The Stockholm Convention (2001) is the international treaty to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

Correct answer: C

Mycoplasma (microplasma) is the smallest known free-living cell; viruses are not cellular, so the smallest living cell is that of mycoplasma.

Correct answer: A

Insider trading requires being a connected/insider person with access to unpublished price-sensitive information; a financial journalist covering a company is normally an outsider and would not, in ordinary circumstances, be accused of insider trading.

Correct answer: B

B.B. King (d. 2015) was an American blues guitarist, singer and songwriter, best known as a legendary musician/guitarist ('King of the Blues').

Correct answer: C

Harilal Jekisundas Kania was the first Chief Justice of India, taking office in 1950.

Correct answer: A

Under Article 19(2), reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech can be imposed on grounds including the sovereignty and integrity of India; the dignity of the PM or Council of Ministers is not a listed ground.

Correct answer: C

Under Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) by proportional representation.

Correct answer: B

Under Article 53(2) of the Constitution, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President of India.

Correct answer: D

'Sub judice' is the Latin term meaning a matter is 'under consideration of a court of law' and pending judicial determination.

Correct answer: A

Union Budget 2015-16 announced AIIMS in Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh and Assam; the statement is incorrect because it wrongly adds Bihar and miscounts (the genuine set excludes Bihar in that list).

Correct answer: B

Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P. (2014) 2 SCC 1 held that registration of an FIR under Section 154 CrPC is mandatory where the information discloses a cognizable offence.

Correct answer: B

As per the 2011 Census, the Bhils are the most populous Scheduled Tribe in India, followed by the Gonds.

Correct answer: B

In Re: Ramlila Maidan Incident (2012) 5 SCC 1, the Supreme Court recognised the 'right to sleep' as a facet of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.

Correct answer: C

Article 21-A, inserted by the 86th Amendment (2002), makes the right to education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.

Correct answer: C

A mandatory injunction (Section 39, Specific Relief Act, 1963) is an equitable, discretionary relief; the grant of injunctions lies in the court's discretion.

Correct answer: D

Section 10 CPC (stay of suit) can be invoked at any stage of the subsequent suit, i.e., before filing of written statement, before settlement of issues, or after settlement of issues.

Correct answer: B

Under Order I Rule 8(4) CPC, a representative suit cannot be withdrawn, abandoned or compromised without notice to all persons interested in the suit.

Correct answer: C

Res judicata does not operate against a pro forma defendant, since there is no adjudication of a real conflict of interest involving such a party.

Correct answer: A

Where a suit is dismissed in default, an attachment before judgment ceases; but on restoration of the suit the attachment revives automatically (Order XXXVIII read with settled CPC principles/Order IX Rule 9).

Correct answer: D

Section 2(2) CPC defines 'decree' as including decrees that are preliminary, final, or partly preliminary and partly final. The Code recognises all three.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 9 CPC, a suit of a civil nature includes suits regarding right to property, right to office/worship, and damages for civil wrongs. All listed are civil in nature.

Correct answer: B

Section 14 CPC creates the rebuttable presumption that, on production of a certified copy of a foreign judgment, it was pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction unless the contrary appears on record or is proved.

Correct answer: C

Under Order IX Rule 7 CPC the defendant set ex parte may, on showing good cause for non-appearance, be allowed to participate in further proceedings; both statements are correct.

Correct answer: B

Order XXIII Rule 1 CPC: a plaintiff who withdraws WITHOUT the court's permission (to file fresh suit) is precluded from a fresh suit on the same subject matter. The statement framing this as automatic precluding regardless is the incorrect one as worded; withdrawal simpliciter does bar fresh suit, making (b) the marked incorrect statement among the options as intended.

Correct answer: D

Section 55 CPC governs arrest and detention of the judgment-debtor in execution of a decree.

Correct answer: D

Preliminary decrees may be passed in suits for partition (O.XX R.18), partnership accounts/dissolution (O.XX R.15), and possession with mesne profits (O.XX R.12). All these qualify.

Correct answer: B

Section 45 CrPC protects members of the Armed Forces from arrest for anything done in discharge of official duties except with consent of the Central Government.

Correct answer: A

In a partition suit the decree is one and indivisible; setting aside the ex parte preliminary decree on one defendant's application necessarily operates in favour of all defendants. The order is legal.

Correct answer: D

Order XIV Rule 2 CPC requires the court ordinarily to pronounce judgment on all issues; deciding only the res judicata issue without recording findings on other issues is improper. The procedure is illegal.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 39 read with Order XXI Rules 5-6 CPC, the transferring court sends a copy of the decree and a certificate of non-satisfaction (stating the extent unsatisfied) to the transferee court.

Correct answer: C

Section 38/Order XXI: a transferee executing court cannot further transfer the decree to yet another court (it must send it back); the power to transfer execution rests with the court that passed the decree (Section 39).

Correct answer: D

Under Order VII Rule 11 CPC, a plaint is rejected for the defects in (a),(b),(c); where the plaint DOES disclose a cause of action, it cannot be rejected. So the court cannot reject in case (d).

Correct answer: B

Under Order XLVII Rule 7 CPC, an order rejecting/dismissing an application for review is not appealable; no appeal lies.

Correct answer: A

Order X Rule 2 CPC empowers oral examination of parties to elucidate matters in controversy; it is not for recording evidence or securing admissions.

Correct answer: D

The Constitution of India was ADOPTED on 26 November 1949 (and came into force on 26 January 1950).

Correct answer: C

The Constitution (First Amendment) Act was enacted in 1951. Option (c) in the merged list reads '1951'.

Correct answer: C

Part III of the Constitution of India (Articles 12-35) deals with Fundamental Rights.

Correct answer: A

In Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002) 5 SCC 111, the seven-judge bench overruled Sabhajit Tewary v. Union of India on the test of 'State' under Article 12.

Correct answer: C

Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and makes its practice in any form a punishable offence.

Correct answer: C

Article 19(1)(e) guarantees the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

Correct answer: D

Article 48-A (Directive Principle) directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.

Correct answer: B

Article 30 guarantees the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Correct answer: B

Article 39(d) obligates the State to secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Correct answer: A

Article 40 (Directive Principle) directs the State to organise village panchayats.

Correct answer: B

Article 72 confers on the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites and to suspend, remit or commute sentences. Option (b) is Article 72.

Correct answer: C

Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights; it is itself a Fundamental Right (Dr. Ambedkar's 'heart and soul' of the Constitution).

Correct answer: A

Article 124(1) provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court of India.

Correct answer: C

Article 235 vests in the High Court control over subordinate courts, including matters of posting, promotion, leave and discipline of district/subordinate judges.

Correct answer: A

Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys and to bar the jurisdiction of courts in such disputes.

Correct answer: A

The Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, which created the NJAC, was struck down in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Assn. v. Union of India (2015) 5 SCC 1 as violative of the basic structure (judicial independence).

Correct answer: C

The basic structure doctrine was first propounded in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) 4 SCC 225, holding Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

Correct answer: D

Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with other countries or decisions of international bodies.

Correct answer: C

Section 2(1)(c) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 defines 'arbitral award' to include an interim award; thus it covers both final and interim awards.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 7(4) of the Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if contained in any of the three modes listed (signed document, exchange of communications, or exchange of pleadings with admission); all three qualify.

Correct answer: C

A request for appointment of an arbitrator by the (then) Chief Justice/High Court designate on the parties' failure to agree is made under Section 11(6) of the Act.

Correct answer: B

The 1996 Act was enacted taking into account the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration and the UNCITRAL Conciliation Rules, as stated in its Preamble.

Correct answer: B

An application to a Court for interim measures of protection is filed under Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (option (b), the OCR-garbled 'Section 0' = Section 9).

Correct answer: C

Section 2(1)(f) defines 'international commercial arbitration' to cover all the listed categories — foreign national/resident individual, foreign body corporate, foreign-managed association, or a foreign government; all four qualify.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 21, absent contrary agreement, arbitral proceedings commence on the date on which the request to refer the dispute to arbitration is received by the respondent.

Correct answer: B

Section 36 of the Act provides for enforcement of an arbitral award as if it were a decree of the court once it becomes final.

Correct answer: B

The 1996 Act came into force on 25 January 1996 (Ordinance) / 22 August 1996 (Act). An award made on 21 August 1996 is governed by the saving in Section 85(2)(a), so the old Arbitration Act, 1940 applies to challenge it.

Correct answer: D

Section 31(6) expressly permits the tribunal to make an interim award during the proceedings; the statement that it 'shall not' make an interim award is contrary to the Act.

Correct answer: D

Section 37 (read with the 2015 Ordinance) provides appeals against orders refusing reference under Section 8, granting/refusing measures under Section 9, and setting aside or refusing to set aside an award under Section 34; all listed are appealable.

Correct answer: B

Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with enforcement of certain foreign awards (New York and Geneva Convention awards).

Correct answer: D

R. Ashwin was the cricketer conferred the Arjuna Award in 2014.

Correct answer: D

Nitin Jairam Gadkari was Union Cabinet Minister for Road Transport & Highways and Shipping in 2015 (Modi government from May 2014).

Correct answer: B

Ban Ki-moon was the UN Secretary-General from January 2007 to December 2016, hence in office at the time of this 2015 paper.

Correct answer: B

C. Rajagopalachari was the first and last Indian Governor-General of free India (1948–1950), succeeding Lord Mountbatten.

Correct answer: C

Kuchipudi is the classical dance form that originated in Andhra Pradesh.

Correct answer: A

"Ghosts of Calcutta" (Fantomes a Calcutta) was written by Sebastien Ortiz (pen name of French diplomat Fabrice Etienne). Amitav Ghosh is a distractor.

Correct answer: B

Dr. Vivek Murthy, an Indian-American physician, was sworn in as the 19th US Surgeon General in December 2014.

Correct answer: C

Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 (Belur Math).

Correct answer: C

"Anandamath" (1882), containing 'Vande Mataram', was authored by Bankim Chandra Chatterji.

Correct answer: C

The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2014 was conferred on veteran actor Shashi Kapoor (announced 2015).

Correct answer: A

The IGNI Award for 2013-14 actually went to P.V. Rajagopal (not an option). Among the listed options the intended/closest answer is Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, who received the Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration for 2012. Flagged: none of the options is the strictly correct 2013-14 awardee.

Correct answer: C

The Gandhi Peace Prize for 2014 was awarded to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), presented by the President in 2015.

Correct answer: A

Bharat Ratna for 2015 was conferred on Madan Mohan Malaviya (posthumous) and Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

Correct answer: B

The study of bees is apiology; apiculture is beekeeping. (Etymology is study of word origins; entomology is study of insects.)

Correct answer: D

Ushakothi (Badrama) Wildlife Sanctuary is situated near Sambalpur in Odisha.

Correct answer: C

Robert Peary is conventionally credited as the first man to reach the North Pole (1909). Roald Amundsen reached the South Pole.

Correct answer: B

The earliest known encyclopaedist is usually cited as Speusippus or Pliny the Elder; the OCR-garbled options make this unreliable. 'Nicolaus' is the best available match among the broken choices. Flagged: options appear corrupted.

Correct answer: C

Hirakud Dam is built on the Mahanadi river in Odisha; option (c) 'Mehndi' is an OCR rendering of Mahanadi.

Correct answer: C

The chemical formula of methane is CH4.

Correct answer: C

Gypsum is calcium sulphate dihydrate, CaSO4.2H2O.

Correct answer: D

Patrick Modiano (France) won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2014. The other names are Nobel science laureates of 2014.

Correct answer: C

The USA won the 2015 FIFA Women's World Cup, defeating Japan 5-2 in the final.

Correct answer: B

Indonesia is the world's leading producer of coconut (with the Philippines and India following).

Correct answer: D

The Veld is the temperate grassland of South Africa.

Correct answer: D

The Monge (Monge/Morumporten) waterfalls are located in Norway.

Correct answer: D

Part II of the Limitation Act, 1963 is titled 'Limitation of Suits, Appeals and Applications' (Ss. 3-11), thus covering all three.

Correct answer: D

Explanation to Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides all three: a suit is instituted when the plaint is presented to the proper officer; for a pauper, when the application for leave to sue is made; and against a company in winding-up, when the claimant first sends his claim to the official liquidator.

Correct answer: A

Section 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963: where the prescribed period expires on a day the court is closed, the proceeding may be instituted on the day the court reopens.

Correct answer: A

Section 5 (condonation of delay) of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies only to appeals and applications; it does NOT apply to suits.

Correct answer: B

Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963 excludes the day on which judgment was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree/order in computing limitation for appeals, revision and review.

Correct answer: D

Under S.19 of the Indian Contract Act, when consent is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation the contract is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was not free; option (d) describes a voidable contract.

Correct answer: A

Section 14 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 expressly declares that, subject to contract, the property of the firm includes the goodwill of the business.

Correct answer: D

Estoppel (S.115 Evidence Act) is merely a rule of evidence; it is neither a cause of action in itself nor does it create one, so neither (a) nor (b) is correct.

Correct answer: A

Under S.111 read with S.112 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a notice to determine a lease can be waived by the express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given (followed by an act showing intention to treat the lease as subsisting).

Correct answer: C

A sole proprietorship has no partners; on the proprietor's death the heirs do not automatically become partners of an 'old firm' (there being none), so the statement is false.

Correct answer: D

All three equations reflect the Contract Act definitions (S.2): proposal+acceptance=promise, promise+consideration=agreement, and agreement+enforceability=contract, so all are correct.

Correct answer: C

A garnishee order both prohibits the garnishee (judgment-debtor's debtor) from paying the judgment-debtor and directs him to pay the decree-holder instead, so both (a) and (b) are correct (Order XXI Rule 46 CPC).

Correct answer: A

Section 12(1)(a) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 makes a marriage voidable where it has not been consummated owing to the impotence of the respondent.

Correct answer: C

In a usufructuary mortgage (S.58(d) TPA), the mortgagee remains in possession and enjoys the rents and profits in lieu of interest/principal until the mortgage money is repaid.

Correct answer: D

Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963 requires the court to dismiss a time-barred suit/appeal/application even though limitation has not been set up as a defence, i.e. the court must consider limitation suo motu.

Correct answer: C

Under S.120 of the Indian Evidence Act, the husband and wife are competent witnesses for and against each other in both civil and criminal proceedings.

Correct answer: D

The doctrine of privity of contract means that only parties to a contract can sue or be sued upon it; a stranger to the contract cannot.

Correct answer: A

Subrogation (e.g. S.92 TPA / S.140 Contract Act) enables a third person (such as a surety or person paying off the debt) to step into the shoes of the creditor and enforce his rights.

Correct answer: B

Statements (a) and (c) are correct: uberrima fides cases require utmost good faith and insurance is the classic instance; statement (b) is wrong because not every contract is one of uberrima fides.

Correct answer: C

'Puerile' means childish or immature.

Correct answer: A

'Vanished' means disappeared; among the options, 'gone/went missing' is the closest in meaning.

Correct answer: C

'Exdoes' is not a real word (intended 'exodus' is misspelt); the other three are correctly spelt, so (c) is the mis-spelt word.

Correct answer: D

'Random' means done without method or by chance; its opposite is 'Deliberate' (accidental, haphazard and incidental are synonyms).

Correct answer: C

One who walks in sleep is a 'somnambulist'.

Correct answer: A

'Marvellous' means wonderful/excellent; its antonym is 'Awful' (terrible).

Correct answer: C

'Blemish' means a flaw or stain; its synonym is 'Blot'.

Correct answer: A

'Veracity' means truthfulness or truth.

Correct answer: B

Quick and nimble movement is best described as 'agile'; agility specifically denotes the ability to move quickly and easily.

Correct answer: A

The sentence is correctly completed by the definite article 'The': 'The most important event in India's history was the revolution of 1857.'

Correct answer: B

Under S.329 CrPC, where the accused, though not of unsound mind, is incapable of understanding/making his defence, the court must record a finding and postpone further proceedings, i.e. it shall not proceed with the inquiry or trial.

Correct answer: B

Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides for exclusion of time spent prosecuting a proceeding bona fide in a court without jurisdiction (or other cause of a like nature).

Correct answer: B

Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963 excludes the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order (and, for setting aside an award, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the award).

Correct answer: A

Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963 lays down that once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it.

Correct answer: B

Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with the effect of acknowledgement in writing made before the expiration of the prescribed period, which gives a fresh period of limitation.

Correct answer: B

'Forsake' means to abandon/leave; politicians do not abandon (forsake) centre stage. It fits the sense and is the most apt word.

Correct answer: D

'Reconciled to the prospect of...' is the idiomatic collocation meaning to accept (something) as inevitable; the Government is reconciled to granting bonus.

Correct answer: C

'Feasibility study' is the standard collocation for assessing the viability of a project such as importing gas through a pipeline.

Correct answer: C

'Gregarious' means sociable/fond of company, contrasting with the following clause about mental versus physical companionship.

Correct answer: A

'Consent' is the noun that fits 'given our consent to conduct the survey'; it is the standard collocation.

Correct answer: B

APLOMB means self-confidence or composure; 'Assurance' is the closest synonym.

Correct answer: B

RISQUE means slightly indecent or liable to shock; 'Slightly improper' is the correct meaning.

Correct answer: C

ILLICIT means forbidden by law; 'Not legal' is the correct meaning.

Correct answer: A

COMPLEMENT (as distinct from 'compliment') means something that completes; 'To complete' is correct.

Correct answer: D

An OCULIST is an eye specialist (ophthalmologist); 'A specialist in the treatment of the disease of the eye' is correct.

Correct answer: D

Stem is garbled; no option ('National law', 'Lex Loci', 'Jus Remedium') is the recognised term for 'law of peace'. Best guess is 'None of these'.

Correct answer: B

ULTRA VIRES means 'beyond the powers' — an act beyond the scope of power allowed or granted by a charter or by law.

Correct answer: C

Judicial review is the power to examine the constitutional validity of any administrative action as well as legislative provision and strike it down if not in accordance with the Constitution.

Correct answer: B

Under the proviso to s.125(1) CrPC, a child who has attained majority can claim maintenance for physical/mental abnormality only if 'not being a married daughter'; thus an illegitimate major married daughter is excluded.

Correct answer: A

A test identification parade is held by/at the instance of a Magistrate (Metropolitan/Judicial Magistrate) to lend it evidentiary value; it is not conducted by the SHO or investigating officer.

Correct answer: A

'Section 620A' does not exist in the CrPC (OCR error, likely meant s.41); of the choices, arrest for an offence committed in the presence of a police officer is the clearest lawful ground. Stem is corrupt.

Correct answer: D

Under s.41(1) CrPC, the grounds for arrest include preventing further offences, ensuring proper investigation, and preventing tampering with evidence — all of the above.

Correct answer: D

Under s.164 CrPC, before recording a confession the Magistrate must explain to the person that he is not bound to make a confession and that it may be used against him.

Correct answer: B

Fairness in a TIP requires parading persons of the same or similar physical appearance along with the suspect (typically with dummies in adequate ratio); witnesses must view separately, not simultaneously.

Correct answer: B

Under s.468(2) CrPC, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year, the limitation period for taking cognizance is one year (six months applies only to fine-only offences).

Correct answer: A

Under s.469(1)(a) CrPC, the period of limitation commences, in the usual case, from the date of the offence.

Correct answer: A

The first and essential requirement of double jeopardy (Art. 20(2) Constitution; s.300 CrPC) is a prior trial by a court of competent jurisdiction; a trial by an incompetent court does not bar a fresh trial. Conviction or acquittal is a further requirement, but the threshold and indispensable condition is trial by a competent court.

Correct answer: C

An FIR is not substantive evidence; under s.157 Evidence Act it may corroborate, and under s.145 Evidence Act it may contradict, its maker/informant. Hence both (a) and (b).

Correct answer: A

Options (c) and (d) are OCR garbage carried over from Q180 and do not fit s.311 CrPC. Under s.311 the court may summon/recall a witness on its own motion or on a party's motion; among the given options, prosecution's motion (a) is correct. Defence motion (b) is equally valid, but the option set is corrupted; best available answer is (a).

Correct answer: D

Anticipatory bail under s.438 CrPC may be granted only by the High Court or the Court of Session, not by a Magistrate. Hence both (b) and (c).

Correct answer: A

The flying off of the spade-head causing death is an accident in doing a lawful act by lawful means with proper care and caution, excused under s.80 IPC; there is no mens rea, so A cannot be prosecuted for any offence. (Classic illustration to s.80 IPC.)

Correct answer: C

The right of private defence extends to defence of both body (s.97 read with s.100/s.101 IPC) and property (s.97 read with s.103/s.104 IPC).

Correct answer: D

Under s.100 IPC the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death in the enumerated cases, including apprehension of death/grievous hurt, rape, and assault with intent to kidnap/abduct. Hence all of the above.

Correct answer: D

Exception 1 to s.300 IPC: culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, deprived of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death. Mere intoxication/anger/lack of planning are not statutory exceptions.

Correct answer: A

Exception 1 to s.300 IPC requires the death to be of the person who gave the provocation (or by mistake/accident). Here B provoked but A killed C, B's innocent child, so the exception does not apply and A can be charged for murder.

Correct answer: C

Exposure/abandonment of a child under 12 by its parent or person in care is an offence under s.317 IPC; where death results that offence subsists (and could attract higher charges only if causation/intent for homicide is proved). Among the options, the correct specific offence is s.317 IPC.

Correct answer: D

Breaking open a box to steal jewels but finding none is an attempt to commit theft (s.511 read with s.379 IPC), not completed theft/burglary/dacoity. Hence 'none of the above'.

Correct answer: D

Merely picking up a found note, not knowing the owner, with no dishonest intent to misappropriate at that moment, is not an offence. Criminal misappropriation under s.403 IPC arises only if he later dishonestly retains it after means of finding the owner are available (Explanation 2 to s.403). On these bare facts, no offence is committed.

Correct answer: D

Under s.320 IPC, grievous hurt by duration requires the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow ordinary pursuits for twenty days, not ten. Emasculation, permanent privation of hearing, and dislocation of a bone are all listed as grievous hurt; bodily pain for ten days is not.

Correct answer: B

A statement to a police officer in the course of investigation (s.161 CrPC) is hit by s.162 CrPC: it is not substantive evidence and may be used only to contradict the prosecution witness who made it (in the manner provided by s.145 Evidence Act), at the instance of the accused (and, to that extent, by prosecution with court's leave). It cannot be used to corroborate.

Correct answer: D

Under s.30 IPC (proviso/principle reflected in s.65 IPC), where the offence is punishable with both imprisonment and fine, the imprisonment in default of fine shall not exceed one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

Correct answer: C

Plea bargaining under Chapter XXIA (s.265A CrPC) does NOT apply to offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding seven years. Thus the inapplicable categories are (a) death, (b) life, and (c) exceeding seven years = option (a),(b)&(c).

Correct answer: C

When five or more persons conjointly commit robbery, the offence is dacoity (s.391 IPC). Here six men and women extort by putting the victim in fear of instant hurt (robbery, s.390), and being five or more, it is dacoity. Dacoity being the gravest, the offence committed is dacoity.

Correct answer: D

The Central Government notification (S.O. 1042(II) dated 11.07.2006) under s.265A(2) CrPC lists offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, including the Explosives Act 1884, the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act 1956 and the Arms Act 1959. The Cinematograph Act 1952 is NOT in that notified list.

Correct answer: D

Stalking is defined and punishable under s.354D IPC (inserted by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013). (s.354A is sexual harassment, 354B disrobing, 354C voyeurism.)

Correct answer: B

Under s.293 CrPC, reports of certain Government scientific experts (e.g. Chemical Examiner, Serologist, Fingerprint Bureau Director, Chief Controller of Explosives) are admissible per se without examining them. A post-mortem report by a doctor is not within s.293's list and is not admissible per se; the doctor must ordinarily be examined.

Correct answer: D

Rioting while armed/by an unlawful assembly is s.147/148 IPC; assaulting/obstructing a public servant in suppressing a riot is s.152 IPC; voluntarily causing hurt is s.323 IPC. Option (d) 148, 152 & 323 correctly maps these distinct offences (s.220 CrPC permits separate charges).

Correct answer: C

Under s.62 Evidence Act, primary evidence means the document itself produced for inspection; Explanation 2 provides that where a document is executed in counterpart, each counterpart is primary evidence as against the parties who executed it. Copies compared with or certified from the original are secondary evidence.

Correct answer: C

Theft under s.379 IPC is punishable with imprisonment up to three years. Under s.468(2)(c) CrPC, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment exceeding one year but not exceeding three years, the limitation for taking cognizance is three years.

Correct answer: B

Under s.32 Evidence Act, statements of a dead/untraceable person are relevant when against the maker's pecuniary or proprietary interest (s.32(3)), not in his favour. A statement made in favour of the maker's own interest is NOT relevant. (Dying declaration s.32(1), business records s.32(2), relationship s.32(5)/(6) are relevant.)