Delhi Judiciary — Prelims 2018
Which of the following acts constitute the commissioning of theft: (1) 'C' finds a necklace in the bedroom of’D’, and *C* retains that necklace.
- a(2) 'C finds the necklace of 'D' on the road and keeps it.
- b(3) 'C' buys a necklace from 'E' and subsequently learns that 'E' had stolen it from rD'.
- c(4) 'C' is given the necklace by 'D' for safekeeping, but 'C' wears the necklace and drops and
- dloses it.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Finding a lost necklace on the road and keeping it is not theft (no moving out of another's possession; goods were not in anyone's possession). Theft under s.378 IPC requires dishonest taking out of another's possession; only the road-finder option lacks that element, making it the act that does NOT constitute theft - but among the listed acts, retaining a necklace found in D's bedroom is moveable property in D's possession and constitutes theft.
A private person: (1) cannot arrest an accused.
- a(2) can arrest any person who in his presence commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence in the absence of a police officer.
- b(3) can arrest a person if he sees him running away from the crime spot where an offence has
- cbeen committed.
- d(4) can arrest any person suspected of committing an offence.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under s.43 CrPC, a private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence, or any proclaimed offender, and hand him over to police.
Every police officer on making arrest has to forthwith give information regarding such arrest and the place from where the person was arrested: (1) to the Magistrate of the area.
- a(2) to the complainant/victim.
- b(3) to the friend, relative or such other person disclosed or nominated by the arrested person.
- c(4) it is not necessary to inform anyone but the person arrested must be informed about the
- dgrounds of arrest.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under s.50A CrPC (and D.K. Basu guidelines), the arresting officer must forthwith give information about the arrest and place of arrest to a friend, relative or such other person nominated by the arrested person.
The 'right of audience' under the Indian Constitution given to the Attorney General of India in the performance of his/her duties is the right relating to:
- a(1) appearance in courts.
- b(2) appearance before the House ofParliament.
- c(3) appearance before the cabinet for legal issues.
- d(4) appearance before the President of India.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under Article 76(3) read with the right of audience, the Attorney General has the right to appear/audience in all courts in the territory of India in the performance of his duties.
Etymologically the word "Ombudsman" means :
- a(1) Arbitrator.
- b(2) Regulator. .
- c(3) Representative.
- d(4) Head of the organisation.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Etymologically 'Ombudsman' derives from Old Norse/Swedish 'umbodsmadr/ombud' meaning representative, proxy or commissioner.
In International Law, the term "erga omnes" obligation refers to:
- a(1) obligations that States have towards the international community as a whole.
- b(2) obligations that International Organizations have towards each other.
- c(3) obligations that a State has with regard to its people.
- d(4) obligations that a State has towards an enemy state.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
In international law, 'erga omnes' obligations are those owed by States towards the international community as a whole (Barcelona Traction case), e.g. prohibition of genocide, slavery and aggression.
Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I | Alternative dispute resolution | A.Unni Krishnan's case II | Right to education | B.Afcons Infrastructure Ltd.’s case III | Right against self incrimination | C.Sunil Batra's case IV | Solitary confinement | D.Nandini Satpathy's case Codes:
- a(1) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
- b(2) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
- c(3) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
- d(4) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
ADR-Afcons (B); Right to education-Unni Krishnan (A); Right against self-incrimination-Nandini Satpathy (D); Solitary confinement-Sunil Batra (C). Thus I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C, which is code (4).
The maxim 'de minimis non curat lex' is the foundation of which general exception under Chapter IV of the Indian Penal Code?
- a(1) act causing slight harm.
- b(2) act of a child under seven years of age.
- c(3) act of a child above seven and under twelve of immature understanding.
- d(4) Accident in doing a lawful act.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The maxim 'de minimis non curat lex' (the law does not concern itself with trifles) underlies s.95 IPC - act causing slight harm.
The defence of intoxication is not available:
- a(1) where the person is incapable of knowing the nature of the act.
- b(2) where the intoxication is voluntary.
- c(3) where the person is incapable of knowing that what he is doing is wrong.
- d(4) where the person is incapable of knowing that what he is doing is contrary to law.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under ss.85-86 IPC, voluntary (self-induced) intoxication is no defence; the exception applies only to involuntary intoxication.
'A' who is abducted by 'B', is forced by the threat of instant death by 'B' who is heavily armed and uses his (A's) skills as a smith to force open the door of a house in order to enable 'B' to commit robbery. 'A' has committed:
- a(1) housebreaking.
- b(2) house trespass.
- c(3) robbery.
- d(4) no offence.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
A acted under threat of instant death from a heavily armed B (s.94 IPC compulsion); since the act is not murder or a capital offence against the State, A commits no offence.
'A' who is 19 years of age instigates his sister 'B' who is 6 years of age to pick the pocket of a co-passenger. As soon as 'B' slips the purse of the co-passenger in her school bag she is caught. However, when the purse is opened, it is found to be empty. In this case which one of the following statements is correct:
- a(1) 'A' and 'B' have committed no offence.
- b(2) A' has committed no offence while 'B' has committed theft.
- c(3) 'A' has committed an offence and ’B' has abetted the same.
- d(4) 'B' does not commit any offence and 'A' is guilty of abetment
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
B (age 6) is below seven (s.82 IPC) so commits no offence; A who instigated the act is guilty of abetment, and even an empty purse does not save him since theft attempt/abetment exists. A has committed an offence (abetment of theft).
Section 303 Indian Penal Code was struck down as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in the case of:
- a(1) Bachan Singh v. State ofPunjab.
- b(2) Mithu v. State ofPunjab.
- c(3) Brij Mohan v. State of Rajasthan.
- d(4) Machhi Singh v. State ofPunjab
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 303 IPC (mandatory death for life-convict who murders) was struck down as unconstitutional in Mithu v. State of Punjab (1983) 2 SCC 277.
'A', a government servant removed a file from his colleague's office to his house, made it available to an outsider and then returned it back to the office the same day in the evening. 'A' is guilty of which of the following offence:
- a(1) criminal misappropriation of property.
- b(2) theft.
- c(3) criminal breach of trust.
- d(4) none of the above.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Temporarily removing the file and returning it the same day, with dishonest intention to take it out of possession, constitutes theft (s.378 IPC) - dishonest temporary deprivation suffices (Pyare Lal Bhargava).
On death of a partner, in absence of any term to the contrary, a partnership firm is dissolved:
- a(1) where the Will of the deceased partner states that the partnership will be dissolved.
- b(2) when the last of the erstwhile partner dies.
- c(3) when there were only two partners and one died.
- d(4) when a minor admitted to the benefit of partnership dies.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under s.42 of the Indian Partnership Act 1932, a firm with only two partners dissolves automatically on the death of one, since a partnership needs at least two persons to continue.
A partnership firm not registered with the Registrar of Firms under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 can:
- a(1) file a suit to enforce contractual rights with a third person.
- b(2) file a suit based on common law rights. ) . :
- c(3) file a suit for recovery of money under an agreement under Order XXX of the Code of Civil= Procedure, 1908.
- d(4) file all types of civil suits which have merit.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under s.69 of the Partnership Act, an unregistered firm cannot sue to enforce a contractual right; but suits to enforce statutory/common law rights (not arising from contract) are not barred.
A minor acting through the guardian:
- a(1) can be inducted as a partner of a firm.
- b(2) can be admitted to the benefit of partnership with personal liability.
- c(3) can be admitted to the benefit of partnership without personal liability.
- d(4) cannot be admitted to the benefit of partnership.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under s.30 of the Partnership Act, a minor cannot be a partner but may be admitted to the benefits of partnership, without personal liability (his share alone is liable).
Decree for specific performance for movable property can be granted:
- a(1) in case the seller fails to supply the goods.
- b(2) when the goods are not available with the seller, but the equivalent are available with third persons.
- c(3) when the plaintiff sues for a 50 year old painting.
- d(4) where movable property has been destroyed.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under s.10 (and s.14) Specific Relief Act, specific performance of movable property is granted where it is not an ordinary article of commerce or has special value/interest, e.g. a 50-year-old painting (rare/unique article).
A and B orally settle a dispute with the help ofC. This oral settlement is:
- a(1) an award, under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
- b(2) an agreement under the Contract Act.
- c(3) not an agreement under the Contract Act, as it is not in writing
- d(4) a conciliation agreement within the meaning ofArbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
An oral settlement of a dispute with the help of a third person C, supported by consideration, is a valid agreement under the Contract Act; it is not an arbitral award or statutory conciliation settlement (which must be in writing under the 1996 Act).
Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, Arbitration Tribunal may direct payment of interest:
- a(1) for whole or part of the period from the date of cause of action till award, but not for the period post the award.
- b(2) for the whole or part of the period from the date of course of action till payment is made.
- c(3) for the period post the award only when the arbitration clause specifically states that interest\ shall be awarded.
- d(4) Arbitration Tribunal cannot award interest and only Court can direct and award interest.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under s.31(7) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, the tribunal may award interest for the whole or part of the period between the date of cause of action and the date of payment (pre-award and post-award).
Secondary evidence cannot be led: (1) when the original is in the possession of the other party.
- a(2) original is of such nature that it is not easily movable.
- b(3) when original is in possession of the person who is out of reach and not subject to processes
- cOf the court.
- d(4) when the original is in possession of the person who wants to adduce secondary evidence.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Secondary evidence cannot be led where the original is in the possession of the very party who wants to adduce secondary evidence (s.65 Evidence Act requires notice/conditions; a party in possession of the original cannot lead secondary evidence of it).
Whether the Legislature of a State can enact a law with respect to a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List repugnant to provisions of an earlier law made by the Parliament?
- a(1) No.
- b(2) Yes, with the prior permission of the Governor.
- c(3) Yes, with prior permission of the President of India.
- d(4) Yes, but the law made should receive assent of the President.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under Article 254(2), a State law on a Concurrent List matter repugnant to an earlier Parliamentary law prevails in that State if it has been reserved for and received the assent of the President.
In view ofArticle 265 of the Constitution ofIndia:
- a(1) taxes cannot be levied with retrospective effect.
- b(2) double or multiple taxation is illegal and prohibited.
- c(3) cess in addition to tax cannot be imposed.
- d(4) an executive order cannot impose a tax without express statutory authority.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Article 265 provides that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law; thus an executive order cannot impose a tax without express statutory authority.
A member of the civil service of a State:
- a(1) can be dismissed or removed from service at the will of the Minister.
- b(2) can be dismissed or removed from service at any time without inquiry after prior approval from the High Court of the State.
- c(3) can be dismissed or removed without inquiry where he is guilty of gross misconduct for demanding bribes.
- d(4) can be dismissed or removed without any inquiry where the authority having power to dismiss or remove the civil servant is satisfied for reasons to be recorded in writing that it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under Article 311(2) proviso (c), a civil servant may be dismissed/removed without inquiry where the authority empowered is satisfied, for reasons recorded in writing, that it is not reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry.
Finance Bills are introduced:
- a(1) first in Rajya Sabha.
- b(2) first in Lok Sabha.
- c(3) Simultaneously in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
- d(4) can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
A Finance Bill, being a Money Bill (Article 110/117), can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
In the absence of any Act or Rules under Article 309 of the Constitution of India governing the recruitment and conditions of service:
- a(1) recruitment of civil servants cannot be made.
- b(2) only contractual employment and not regular appointment/recruitment can be made.
- c(3) recruitment can be made on the basis of executive orders made under Article 73 of the Constitution.
- d(4) recruitment can be made only if there is an extreme emergency like war.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under the proviso to Article 309, in the absence of an Act/Rules, recruitment and conditions of service may be regulated by executive orders made by the President/Governor (B.N. Nagarajan v. State of Mysore).
Does the Court have discretion to extend time for filing of court fees after the plaintiff is filed?
- a(1) Yes.
- b(2) No.
- c(3) Yes, but only if the period of limitation would not have expired when the deficit court fee is paid.
- d(4) Full court fee must be paid with the plaintiff filed, otherwise the plaintiff must be returned under Order VII, Rule 11 of the Code ofCivil Procedure.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under Section 149 CPC the court has discretion to allow the requisite court-fee to be paid later, even after the plaint is filed; payment then relates back. Hence the court does have discretion to extend time.
Compounding of an offence under Section 320 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 has the effect of:
- a(1) discharge.
- b(2) probation.
- c(3) acquittal.
- d(4) release on bail.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Section 320(8) CrPC provides that the composition of an offence shall have the effect of an acquittal of the accused with whom the offence has been compounded.
Whether in a summons trial case instituted otherwise than upon complaint, a Magistrate of first class can stop the proceedings and discharge (not acquit) the accused without pronouncing judgement? (1) No. Magistrate must after recording entire evidence pronounce final judgement of conviction or acquittal.
- a(2) Yes, after evidence of principal witnesses has been recorded.
- b(3) Yes, for reasons to be recorded, where evidence of principal witnesses has not been recorded.
- c(4) Yes, as Magistrate has discretion to discharge or acquit regardless of the stage of the
- dproceedings.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Section 258 CrPC, in a summons case instituted otherwise than upon complaint, a Magistrate of the first class may, for reasons to be recorded, stop the proceedings at any stage; where stopped before recording the evidence of principal witnesses, the accused is released and such release operates as a discharge (not acquittal). Option (3).
Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 statutorily mandates that a Judicial Magistrate shall record statement of the person against whom offence has been committed:
- a(1) under any Section of the Indian Penal Code
- b(2) for all offences punishable with life imprisonment.
- c(3) in all cases where the accused moves an application for the said purpose.
- d(4) for cases punishable under Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Section 164(5A) CrPC statutorily mandates a Judicial Magistrate to record the statement of the victim in cases punishable under Section 376 (and allied sexual offences) IPC, as soon as the commission is brought to the notice of the police.
Anticipatory bail can be granted by the Sessions court.
- a(1) when the offence committed is bailable.
- b(2) when the accused has committed a non-bailable offence and has been arrested.
- c(3) when the accused it is alleged has committed a non-bailable offence and is yet to be arrested.
- d(4) when the First Information Report has not been registered.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Anticipatory bail under Section 438 CrPC is granted to a person who apprehends arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence and who is yet to be arrested; once arrested, only regular bail under Section 437/439 lies.
No court shall take cognizance of a continuing offence after.
- a(1) six months.
- b(2) one year.
- c(3) three years.
- d(4) none of the above
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Section 472 CrPC: in a continuing offence a fresh period of limitation begins to run at every moment during which the offence continues, so there is no fixed outer bar of 6 months/1 year/3 years. Hence 'none of the above'.
Every person aware of the commission of an offence punishable under which of the following Sections is bound to give information thereof to the nearest Magistrate or police officer?
- a(1) 498A Indian Penal Code
- b(2) 302 Indian Penal Code
- c(3) 324 Indian Penal Code ,
- d(4) 448 Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 39 CrPC lists offences (including Section 302 IPC) of whose commission every person aware is bound to inform the nearest Magistrate or police officer. Sections 498A, 324 and 448 IPC are not within the Section 39 list.
A valid proclamation under Section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 requires:
- a(1) public reading of the proclamation in a conspicuous place of town or village where the accused ordinarily resides.
- b(2) copy of the proclamation should be affixed at some conspicuous place of the house in which the victim resides.
- c(3) if passed by the Sessions Judge, a copy of the proclamation should be affixed to some conspicuous part of the High Court of the State.
- d(4) copy of the proclamation is affixed on conspicuous part of all police stations in the town/village where the crime was committed.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Section 82(2) CrPC requires the proclamation to be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village where the accused person ordinarily resides, and a copy affixed to a conspicuous part of his house and of the court-house.
Garnishee proceedings under the Code of Civil Procedure can be instituted to enable:
- a(1) attachment of debt, shares and other property not in possession of the judgement debtor.
- b(2) attachment of property of which the owner is not known.
- c(3) only for attachment of property which cannot be estimated in terms of money.
- d(4) only for attachment of a share in joint family property.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Garnishee proceedings (Order XXI Rule 46A-I CPC) enable attachment of a debt, share or other property not in the possession of the judgment-debtor but due to him from a third party (the garnishee).
The Commissioner appointed for recording evidence in a civil suit cannot do which one of the following acts under Order XVIII Rule 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
- a(1) Record re-examination of a witness.
- b(2) Decide objections raised during recording of evidence.
- c(3) Record remarks regarding the demeanour of the witness while under examination.
- d(4) Record the evidence either in writing or mechanically
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Order XVIII Rule 4 CPC the Commissioner records the evidence, the demeanour of the witness and any objections, but the objections are decided by the Court at the stage of arguments, not by the Commissioner. Hence deciding objections is the act he cannot do.
Which one of the following propositions with regard to an interpleader suit is incorrect?
- a(1) Defendants claim adversely to one another.
- b(2) Plaintiff Claims no interest in the subject matter in dispute other than for charges or costs.
- c(3) Real dispute must be between the plaintiff and only one of the defendants.
- d(4) Plaintiff Must be ready to deliver the property to the rightful claimant.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
In an interpleader suit (Section 88 CPC, Order XXXV) the real dispute is between the defendants inter se, not between the plaintiff and one defendant. The statement that the real dispute must be between the plaintiff and only one of the defendants is therefore incorrect.
Where ‘A’ is accused of the offence of rape and murder of a girl child. Which of the tests can ‘A’ be subjected to without his consent for the purposes of investigation?
- a(1) Brain Electrical Activation Profile Test.
- b(2) Narco analysis test.
- c(3) Polygraph test.
- d(4) None of the above.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
In Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) the Supreme Court held narco-analysis, polygraph and BEAP/brain-mapping tests cannot be administered without the subject's consent (Art. 20(3)/21). Hence none of the listed tests can be done without consent.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to a Test Identification Parade?
- a(1) It constitutes substantive evidence.
- b(2) Accused should not previously be known to the witness.
- c(3) It helps the investigating agency to know that the investigation is proceeding on the right lines.
- d(4) It should be conducted as soon as after the arrest of the accused.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
A Test Identification Parade is not substantive evidence; it is only a corroborative aid to the substantive identification made in court. That proposition is therefore the incorrect one.
Usury laws are :
- a(1) statutes that prohibit wagering.
- b(2) statutes that prohibit finance charges above a certain level of debt.
- c(3) statutes that prohibit illegal use of land.
- d(4) statutes that prohibit illegal use of public money.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Usury laws are statutes that prohibit or cap the charging of interest/finance charges above a permitted level on a debt.
The maxim "Injuria non excusat injuriam" means:
- a(1) one wrong does not justify another.
- b(2) one has to pay for the injury caused.
- c(3) there is no excuse for causing injury.
- d(4) an eye for an eye.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
'Injuria non excusat injuriam' means one wrong does not justify or excuse another wrong.
Factum Probandum means:
- a(1) conclusive fact.
- b(2) the fact that is probable.
- c(3) the fact that has to be believed.
- d(4) the principal fact to be proved.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Factum probandum is the principal/ultimate fact to be proved, as distinguished from factum probans (the evidentiary fact).
'B' is found dead having suffered injuries with a sharp weapon. ‘A’ while in police custody confessed to killing ‘B’ with the motive of stealing his motorcycle after following him from his office and having concealed the weapon of offence i.e a knife on his rooftop. ‘A gets the knife recovered before the police. In this case, under Section 27 Indian Evidence Act, the following would be admissible:
- a(1) entire statement including motive of stealing the motorcycle and manner in which the murder was committed, i.e. following victim 'B' from his office,
- b(2) the place from which the knife was produced and the knowledge leading to the recovery of the knife.
- c(3) the fact that‘A’had murdered with the knife
- d(4) nothing is admissible as the statement was made to a police officer after A was arrested.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Section 27 of the Evidence Act, only so much of the information as distinctly relates to the fact thereby discovered (the place from which the knife was produced and the knowledge leading to its recovery) is admissible; the confessional motive and manner are not.
Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the Constitution ofIndia would not be enforceable by any court? (1) Article 33.
- a(2) Article 37.
- b(3) Article 44.
- c(4) Article 51.
- dprovisions of Part IV of the
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Article 37 declares that the Directive Principles in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court, though fundamental in governance. The intended answer is Article 37 (option printed as '(2) Article 37').
Which provision/provisions of the Indian Evidence Act embody the P (1) Section 6 and no other section.
- a(2) Sections 6 and 7.
- b(3) Sections 6, 7 and 8.
- c(4) Sections 6 and 8.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The principle of res gestae is embodied in Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act (relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction); the answer is 'Section 6 and no other section'.
Corrupt usage of fabricated evidence as true, with the knowledge that the evidence is fabricated, is specifically punishable under:
- a(1) Section 193 of the Indian Penal Code.
- b(2) Section 196 of the Indian Penal Code.
- c(3) Section 198 of the Indian Penal Code.
- d(4) Section 199 of the Indian Penal Code.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 196 IPC punishes whoever corruptly uses or attempts to use as true or genuine any evidence which he knows to be false or fabricated. Section 193 punishes giving/fabricating false evidence itself.
Which of the following propositions is incorrect in so far as the power to permit amendment of pleadings, under Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC is concerned?
- a(1) Amendment of the pleadings must be allowed at any stage of the proceedings, before the trial has commenced.
- b(2) Amendments which cause prejudice to the other side may not be allowed by the court.
- c(3) The basic or cardinal test for deciding whether an amendment should or should not be allowed is the "real controversy test".
- d(4) The court is normally prescribed, from deciding the correctness or falsity of the case in the amendment when deciding an application for amendment.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 CPC, after the trial has commenced no amendment shall be allowed unless the court concludes that despite due diligence the party could not have raised the matter earlier. Hence the proposition that amendment 'must be allowed at any stage' is incorrect.
Which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 postulates that criminal courts would be open, to which the public would generally have access, save in exceptional cases
- a(1) Section 324.
- b(2) Section 327.
- c(3) Section 330
- d(4) Section 333.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 327 CrPC provides that the place where any criminal court is held shall be deemed an open court to which the public generally may have access, save in exceptional cases (e.g. in-camera rape trials).
Which of the following is not prima facie evidence of age, where juvenility is pleaded?
- a(1) Birth certificate given by the Municipality.
- b(2) Birth certificate given by the School.
- c(3) Birth certificate given by the Hospital.
- d(4) Matriculation certificate.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
For determining juvenility (JJ Act / Rule 12), the recognised proof of age in order is the matriculation certificate, then the date-of-birth certificate from the school first attended, then the birth certificate from a municipality/panchayat. A hospital birth certificate is not the prescribed prima facie proof.
What is the prescribed limitation for filing a suit, by a mortgagee, for foreclosure, reckoned from the date when the money secured by the mortgage becomes due?
- a(1) 3 years
- b(2) 12 years
- c(3) 20 years
- d(4) 30 years
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under Article 62 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit by a mortgagee for foreclosure is limited to 30 years from the date when the money secured by the mortgage becomes due.
The limitation for filing a suit, by a surety, against the principal debtor, would be 3 years from the date on which:
- a(1) the amount became payable to the creditor. .
- b(2) the amount was paid by the surety to the creditor.
- c(3) the refusal by the principal debtor to pay the amount on notice being given by the surety. (4) the date of demand, by the creditor, for payment thereof, to the debtor, or the surety, whichever is earlier.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Article 145 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit by a surety against the principal debtor is limited to 3 years from the date the surety pays the creditor the amount due (the right to indemnity accrues on actual payment).
What is the prescribed limitation period, for filing a suit for compensation for libel or slander? (1) one year in both cases.
- a(2) three years in both cases.
- b(3) one year for libel, 3 years for slander, or
- c(4) 3 years for libel, 1 year for slander.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under Article 75 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation for a suit for compensation for libel is one year from publication, and under Article 76 for slander it is also one year from the words spoken (or from special damage). Hence one year in both cases.
What is the prescribed period of limitation for filing a civil suit, challenging the dispossession of the plaintiff on the ground that the land had been illegally acquired by the Government?
- a(1) One year from the date of dispossession.
- b(2) Three years from the date of dispossession.
- c(3) Twelve years from the date of dispossession.
- d(4) None, as the suit is not maintainable.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
A civil suit challenging dispossession by the Government on the ground of illegal acquisition is not maintainable in a civil court; the bar of jurisdiction and statutory remedies under the acquisition law apply, so option (4) is correct.
’B' has been robbed and murdered. Soon after, the stolen goods are found with ’A’. In these circumstances, what may/may not be presumed?
- a(1) The court may presume that ’A' committed the robbery of B', but not his murder.
- b(2) The court may presume that 'A' committed murder of B', but not robbery
- c(3) The court may presume that 'A' committed both robbery and murder of B
- d(4) Mere recovery of the stolen articles from 'A' would not justify the court in presuming that 'A* committed either the robbery or the murder of B'.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Illustration (a) to Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, where a person is found in possession of goods soon after a robbery accompanied by murder, the court may presume he committed both the robbery and the murder.
A proposes, by a letter sent by post, to sell his house to B. When is the last point of time when A can revoke the proposal?
- a(1) before the date/time when A posts the letter.
- b(2) before the date/time when B receives the letter
- c(3) before the date/time when B posts his letter accepting the proposal, or
- d(4) before the date/time when A receives the letter of acceptance, sent by B.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Section 5 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, i.e., before B posts his letter of acceptance (acceptance against the proposer is complete when the letter is posted).
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following agreements is not void?
- a(1) a contract in which consent has been obtained by fraud.
- b(2) a contract in which both parties are under a misrepresentation as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement.
- c(3) a contract in restraint of trade.
- d(4) none of the above, i.e., above contracts are void.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
A contract where consent is obtained by fraud is voidable (not void) at the option of the deceived party under Sections 19 and 17 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Bilateral mistake of fact (Section 20) and restraint of trade (Section 27) are void.
'A' and 'B' enter into a contract, whereunder 'A' agrees to pay 'B' a sum of money, against delivery of either furniture or ivory. Trade in ivory is prohibited by law.
- a(1) The agreement is void, and, therefore, unenforceable.
- b(2) The agreement is valid for delivery of furniture and void for delivery of ivory.
- c(3) The agreement is entirely valid.
- d(4) Valid at the option of A and not B'. '
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Section 24/57 of the Indian Contract Act, where a single consideration is for one object lawful and another unlawful, the agreement is valid for the lawful part (furniture) and void for the unlawful part (ivory). This is an alternative promise, one branch legal and one illegal, so only the legal branch is enforced (Section 58).
In contract law, “continuing guarantee” is:
- a(1) a guarantee with an auto-renewal clause.
- b(2) a guarantee, the determination of which depends on mutual consent between the parties. (3) a guarantee extending to a series of transactions.
- c(4) a guarantee which can be renewed suo motu by the guarantor in specified circumstances.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a continuing guarantee is a guarantee which extends to a series of transactions.
Under the Indian Penal Code, which of the following acts will constitute “homicide”? e (1) Termination of pregnancy before the twelfth week of pregnancy.
- a(2) Termination of pregnancy before the twentieth week of pregnancy.
- b(3) Termination of pregnancy before the thirty sixth week of pregnancy.
- c(4) Causing death of the living child after a part of the child’s body has been brought forth of the mother’s body.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under the Explanation to Section 299 IPC, causing the death of a living child after any part of its body has been brought forth from the mother amounts to culpable homicide; termination of pregnancy is not homicide as the foetus must be born for it to be a 'person.'
’A' had a step-child, whom he wanted to kill. For this purpose, he gave 'B', who was taking care of the child, a piece of cake, which had poison in it, and asked 'B' to feed the child the cake. ’B', however, ate the cake himself and died as a result. Which of the following statements is accurate:
- a’A' will be liable for the offence of murder.
- b‘A’ will not liable for the offence of murder
- c‘A’ will be liable for abetment to murder
- d‘A’ will be liable for conspiracy to commit murder
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under Section 301 IPC (transferred malice / transfer of intention), A intended to cause death and, though B (not the intended victim) died, A is liable for murder. The intent to kill transfers to the actual victim.
'A' and 'B* had been married for 10 years. 'A', the husband constantly physically abused his wife. 'B'. The injuries were such that she needed medical treatment. On March 18. 2018. 'A' inflicted an injury on 'B's hand, which led to it being fractured. In this context, which of the following statements is accurate:
- a(1) Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code can be invoked against 'A'.
- b(2) Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code will not apply in this case since there was no demand for dowry.
- c(3) Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code will not apply, since this is an offence under the Protection ofWomen from Domestic Violence Act.
- d(4) This is not a crime. It is a ground for divorce under the relevant personal law.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Section 498A IPC covers cruelty by a husband, which includes wilful conduct likely to cause grave injury to the wife; dowry demand is not a precondition. The repeated physical abuse causing a fracture squarely attracts Section 498A.
Which of the following is an offence under the Indian Penal Code?
- a(1) Purchasing acid.
- b(2) Throwing acid on a person with the intention of maiming/disfiguring.
- c(3) Manufacturing acid.
- d(4) Selling acid.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Throwing acid with intent to maim or disfigure is an offence under Section 326A IPC (voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid). Purchasing, manufacturing or selling acid per se is not an IPC offence.
'A' gave 'B' a pen-drive which he knows has files that were infected with a virus. 'A' did not inform 'B' of the same. 'B' inserted the pen-drive into his computer and opened the files. His computer was infected by the virus, and most of the files on it were lost. Which of the following offences can 'A' be held guilty of?
- a(1) Criminal Breach ofTrust.
- b(2) Criminal Trespass.
- c(3) Mischief.
- d(4) Cheating.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Knowingly causing the loss/destruction of data and files by passing on a virus-infected pen-drive causes wrongful loss/damage and diminishes the utility of property, constituting mischief under Section 425 IPC.
'A' filed a FIR giving details of a crime that he had committed. There were no exculpatory statements in the FIR and gave all the details regarding the commission of the crime. Which of the following statements is accurate:
- a(1) the FIR is hit by Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act and hence is inadmissible as evidence. However, the fact that 'A' filed the FIR is admissible under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act.
- b(2) since the FIR is confessional in nature, the fact that 'A' filed the FIR is also not admissible in evidence.
- c(3) FIR including confession is admissible under the Indian Evidence Act as it was voluntary and before arrest.
- d(4) it is admissible under Section 32(3) of the Indian Evidence Act.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
A confessional FIR by the accused is hit by Section 25 of the Evidence Act (confession to police) and is inadmissible, but the fact that the accused lodged the FIR is admissible as conduct under Section 8. This follows Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar.
The previous sexual experience of a prosecutrix in a case of rape where the question of content is an issue: (1) can be used to impeach the creditworthiness of the prosecutrix, under Section 155 of the !
- aIndian Evidence Act.
- b(2) is irrelevant.
- c(3) is relevant, only if the accused is a person known to the prosecutrix.
- d(4) is relevant to prove consent.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
After the 2002/2003 amendment, the proviso to Section 146 (and deletion of Section 155(4)) makes the prosecutrix's previous sexual experience irrelevant to the question of consent in a rape trial.
Which of the following persons is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125, Cr.P.C from a man who has sufficient means and refuses to maintain them?
- a(1) The man’s wife.
- b(2) The man’s illegitimate minor child.
- c(3) Daughter-in-law.
- d(4) The man’s father.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Section 125 Cr.P.C. covers wife, legitimate or illegitimate minor child, and parents (father/mother). A daughter-in-law is not entitled to maintenance from her father-in-law under Section 125.
The theory of Separation of powers is associated with:
- a(1) Aristotle.
- b(2) Montesquieu.
- c(3) Voltaire.
- d(4) Rousseau.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
The doctrine of separation of powers in its classic, fully developed form is associated with the French jurist Montesquieu (in 'The Spirit of the Laws').
Who was the second woman judge of the Supreme Court ofIndia ?
- a(1) Sujata V. Manohar.
- b(2) M. Fathima Beevi.
- c(3) Leila Seth.
- d(4) Ruma Pal.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first woman Supreme Court judge (1989); Justice Sujata V. Manohar was the second woman judge of the Supreme Court of India.
To prevent signal loss, satellites remained in geostationary orbit above the base, i.e;
- a(1) the satellites were designed for digging soil.
- b(2) the satellites were on paper.
- c(3) the satellites watched the Earth's rotation.
- d(4) the satellites were stationary.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
A geostationary satellite remains fixed relative to a point on Earth, i.e., it appears stationary above the base; this is the meaning of 'remained in geostationary orbit.'
"She had, for years past, stifled every little rising wish for a return to India ''.In the above statement, "stifled" can be replaced by:
- a(1) neglected.
- b(2) rejected.
- c(3) crushed.
- d(4) ignored.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
To 'stifle' a wish means to suppress or crush it; among the options, 'crushed' is the closest substitute.
"Her words sank deep into my heart, stirred up sentiments within that lay slumbering, and called into existence an entirely new train of thought". In the above sentence, "slumbering" means:
- a(1) absent.
- b(2) sleeping.
- c(3) dead.
- d(4) quiet.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
'Slumbering' means sleeping/dormant; the sentiments that 'lay slumbering' were sleeping until stirred up.
The bird has flown from the cage. The above sentence can be written in the same form in future tense as:
- a(1) The bird would have flown from the cage.
- b(2) The bird had flown from the cage.
- c(3) The bird flew from the cage.
- d(4) The bird will fly from the cage.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
'Has flown' (present perfect) converted to the future-tense equivalent is the simple future 'will fly': 'The bird will fly from the cage.'
Once completely oblivious of the damages to the environment caused by pollution and waste, the world "had now began" to look seriously upon the depletion of our natural resources. The error in the above sentence can be corrected by replacing the underlined words with:
- a(1) have now begun.
- b(2) has now begun.
- c(3) will now begin.
- d(4) has now began.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
The subject 'the world' is singular, requiring 'has,' and the correct past participle of 'begin' is 'begun': 'has now begun.'
Environmental engineers may unexpectedly collaborate with experts in science, law or business to address concerns such as acid rain, hazardous wastes, or mineral depletion. To make the sentence more accurate, the underlined word should be replaced by:
- a(1) possibly.
- b(2) necessarily.
- c(3) at all times.
- d(4) compulsorily.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
'Unexpectedly' is best replaced by 'possibly' to make the sentence accurate, indicating that such collaboration may occur, not that it is unanticipated.
Like shrines and other sacred meeting places, bookstores are essential "artefacts" of human nature. In the above sentence, "artefacts" means:
- a(1) an object that exists in nature.
- b(2) material facts.
- c(3) evidence.
- d(4) an object of cultural or historical interest made by human beings.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
An 'artefact' is an object of cultural or historical interest made by human beings; this fits 'essential artefacts of human nature' alongside shrines and sacred places.
He said to us, "Are you going away today?" The above sentence can be written in direct speech as:
- a(1) He enquired of us whether we are going away that day.
- b(2) He enquired if we were going away today.
- c(3) He enquired if we are going away today.
- d(4) He enquired whether we will go away that day.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Converting the direct question to reported (indirect) speech: present 'are' becomes past 'were,' and the introductory verb 'enquired if' is used: 'He enquired if we were going away that day.' (The question's labels are reversed; option 2 is the correct indirect form.)
Mohan jumped ___the swimming pool. He has worked with her the last ten years. I haven't met her _______ September. The correct propositions to be filled in the above sentences in order are:
- a(1) in, since, since.
- b(2) in, for, from.
- c(3) into, for, since.
- d(4) in, from, since.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Jump 'into' the pool (movement into); worked with her 'for' the last ten years (duration); haven't met her 'since' September (point in time). Correct order: into, for, since.
The master dispensed with the services of his servant. We take a strong exception to your remarks. The police is inquiring into the case. The three sentences will stand corrected if the propositions in the underlined phrases are changed as:
- a(1) dispensed of, exception with, inquiring in.
- b(2) dispensed off, exception against, inquiring into.
- c(3) dispensed from, exception into, inquiring into.
- d(4) no change (all are correct).
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
All three idioms are already correct: 'dispense with' (do without/discontinue), 'take exception to', and 'inquire into'. No change is required.
The phrase "back to the drawing board" means: , .
- a(1) to redraw a figure.
- b(2) to be good at art.
- c(3) to start again when an earlier attempt has failed.
- d(4) to hatch a plan.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
'Back to the drawing board' means to start afresh after a plan or attempt has failed.
The phrase "let the cat out of the bag" means:
- a(1) to release a cat that has been caught.
- b(2) to communicate with others.
- c(3) to release a prisoner.
- d(4) to reveal hidden information.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
'Let the cat out of the bag' means to reveal a secret or hidden information, often inadvertently.
To put wool on other people's eyes" means:
- a(1) to deceive others to think well about you.
- b(2) to give relief to other people's eyes.
- c(3) to caution somebody;
- d(4) to appear beautiful to someone.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
'To pull/put the wool over someone's eyes' means to deceive or mislead them.
"Carte blanche" means:
- a(1) a diplomat sent to another country.
- b(2) exercise of unlimited authority.
- c(3) excessive restraint.
- d(4) compensation for.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
'Carte blanche' (French: blank card) means complete or unlimited authority/discretion to act.
"Faux Pas" means:
- a(1) as clever as a fox.
- b(2) to let something pass.
- c(3) a social blunder.
- d(4) perplexed by.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
'Faux pas' (French) means a social blunder or breach of etiquette.
"En masse” means: ,
- a(1) popular amongst the masses.
- b(2) to carry people along with you.
- c(3) to respect the opinion of the masses.
- d(4) in a large group.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
'En masse' (French) means all together, in a large group or body.
When he______from the University, he______his mentor. The blanks in the above sentence can be filled in appropriately with:
- a(1) passed out; had already met.
- b(2) graduated; was going to meet.
- c(3) passed out; had to meet.
- d(4) graduated; had already met.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
'Graduated' is the correct (non-colloquial) verb and 'had already met' is the right past-perfect form for the prior action. Order: graduated; had already met.
The strings of the bag came . I do not wish to_______my passport in a foreign country. I do not wish to _______a dear friend. The blanks in the above sentences can be filled in appropriately with:
- a(1) lose; lose; loss.
- b(2) lose; loose' lose.
- c(3) loose; lose; lose.
- d(4) loose; loose; lose.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Strings came 'loose' (adjective); do not wish to 'lose' my passport; do not wish to 'lose' a dear friend (verb). Order: loose; lose; lose.
The______to the top of the mountain was tough. He gave his_________to the marriage proposal. The_________in which he spoke was difficult to understand. The blanks in the above sentences can be filled in appropriately with.
- a(1) ascent; assent; accent.
- b(2) accent; assent; accent.
- c(3) ascend, accent; ascent.
- d(4) assent, assent, accent.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The 'ascent' (climb) to the top; gave his 'assent' (agreement) to the proposal; the 'accent' (manner of speech) was hard to understand. Order: ascent; assent; accent.
Mr. Kapoor was astonished and incensed at not receiving a direct answer; and Seema suspected herself to be the first creature who had even dared to trifle with so much dignified impertinence. The above sentence conveys that:
- a(1) Mr. Kapoor is pleasant and dignified and Seema is rude.
- b(2) Mrs. Kapoor is arrogant and Seema is an equal match for him.
- c(3) Mrs. Kapoor is astonished and Seema is dignified.
- d(4) Mr. Kapoor is dignified and Seema is daring.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Mr. Kapoor was 'dignified' (the impertinence was dignified), and Seema was the first to 'dare' to trifle with him, i.e., daring.
That a man thinks is a biological fact, what he thinks is a sociological fact. Which of the following best expresses the essence of the above sentence:
- a(1) Biology and Sociology are related.
- b(2) The brain is a physiological feature but what it thinks is determined by society.
- c(3) Biological and Sociological facts are interdependent.
- d(4) Individuals are not masters of their own thoughts.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
The sentence contrasts 'that a man thinks' (biological/physiological) with 'what he thinks' (sociological/determined by society) - best captured by option 2.
Dystopia means:
- a(1) an imaginative society in literature.
- b(2) a disputed piece of land.
- c(3) an imagined society where there is suffering and injustice.
- d(4) a society that has been misrepresented in literature.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
A dystopia is an imagined society characterised by suffering, injustice, and oppression (opposite of utopia).
Incontrovertible means:
- a(1) a person who cannot be converted.
- b(2) a person in the midst of controversy.
- c(3) a car that is not a convertible.
- d(4) that which cannot be disproved.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
'Incontrovertible' means indisputable, that which cannot be disproved or contradicted.
Reprobate means:
- a(1) a person without moral scruples.
- b(2) a person on probation.
- c(3) an animal species.
- d(4) a person who joins the probe.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
A 'reprobate' is an unprincipled, morally depraved person lacking moral scruples.
Read the following passage and answer questions from 92 to 96:- “The unpaid work that women perform includes collection of fuel, and water animal husbandry, post-harvest processing, livestock maintenance, kitchen gardening and raising poultry that augment family resources. If women did not do this work, these goods would have to be purchased from the market, services hired for a wage, else the family would have to do without. However, so naturalised are assumptions about gender roles that the Indian census did not recognize this a ‘work’ for a long time, since it is not performed for a wage, but is unpaid labour around the family.” "Augment" can be replaced by:
- a(1) decrease.
- b(2) increase.
- c(3) support.
- d(4) exponentially inflates.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
'Augment' means to increase or add to; here the unpaid work increases family resources.
By "naturalised", the author means:
- a(1) consistent with nature.
- b(2) give rights of citizenship.
- c(3) false.
- d(4) made to appear as if something was commonplace and true.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
In this context 'naturalised' means assumptions made to appear as if they are commonplace, natural, and true (so they go unquestioned).
The Indian census is mentioned:
- a(1) to point out a flaw.
- b(2) to say that the census contains incorrect data.
- c(3) to say that men work harder than women.
- d(4) to say that women should contribute to the family.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The census is cited to point out a flaw - its failure to recognise women's unpaid labour as 'work'.
The passage can be seen as:
- a(1) a socio-economic analysis.
- b(2) attempt to prove that men are wrong.
- c(3) attempt at denigrating the official census.
- d(4) attempt to list the kind of work that women perform at home.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The passage analyses the economic value of women's unpaid labour and its social non-recognition - a socio-economic analysis.
According to the author, 'work' is:
- a(1) that which is done at home.
- b(2) that for which wages are paid.
- c(3) paid and unpaid labour.
- d(4) that which is done outside home.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
The author notes the census did not count this as 'work' because it is not done for a wage - implying the prevailing definition of 'work' is that for which wages are paid.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: “Having heard learned counsel, I express my with the findings recorded by the court below.”
- a(1) assent
- b(2) approval
- c(3) consent
- d(4) concurrence
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
'Concurrence' (agreement with the findings) is the precise legal term used when a judge agrees with a lower court's findings.
Identify the appropriate word: “I have heard learned______appearing for the parties.
- a(1) counsel
- b(2) counsels
- c(3) counsel’s
- d(4) none of the above
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
'Counsel' is used without an 's' even for plural reference (collective/uncountable in legal usage): 'learned counsel appearing for the parties'.
Choose the correct word: “Section 144 of the Indian Penal Code the gathering of more than 4 people in an area.”
- a(1) curtails
- b(2) proscribes
- c(3) prevents
- d(4) punishes
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
'Proscribes' means to forbid/prohibit, which best fits a penal provision restricting an unlawful gathering.
Choose one word, which could substitute the underlined phrase in the sentence: He walked to the shop to buy paper, pens and envelopes.”.
- a(1) grocery
- b(2) stationary
- c(3) goods
- d(4) none of the above
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Paper, pens and envelopes are 'stationery'; option 2 is the intended substitute (printed as 'stationary').
Choose the correct word: “It was late evening by the time the mob « (1) disbursed
- a(2) disturbed
- b(3) dispersed
- c(4) dispensed
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
'Dispersed' means scattered/broke up, the correct word for a mob breaking up. ('Disbursed' = paid out money; 'dispensed' = distributed/administered.)
Pick out the word that conies closest in meaning to the word 'histrionic':
- a(1) relating to the stage or actors.
- b(2) historical event.
- c(3) memorable event.
- d(4) ancient literature.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
'Histrionic' relates to actors/the stage (theatrical, dramatic).
Pick out the word that comes closest in meaning to the word 'volte-face':
- a(1) embarrassed.
- b(2) poker faced.
- c(3) serious looking.
- d(4) a turning around.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
'Volte-face' is a French term meaning a complete reversal of position or opinion, i.e., a turning around.
"Nonchalant" means:
- a(1) indifferent.
- b(2) unchallengeable.
- c(3) indomitable.
- d(4) not frivolous.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
'Nonchalant' means casually unconcerned, i.e., indifferent.
Which word is spelt correctly?
- a(1) sabbaticals.
- b(2) sabbaticals.
- c(3) sabbaticals.
- d(4)-sabaticles.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Options (1)-(3) are printed identically as 'sabbaticals' (OCR error); the correct spelling is 'sabbaticals', so the first option carrying the correct spelling is the intended answer; (4) 'sabaticles' is clearly wrong.
The company was not a meritocracy but hierarchical.
- a(1) It was run by the most talented.
- b(2) It was run by the senior most being in charge.
- c(3) It was based underwater.
- d(4) It was controlled by billionaires.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
A 'meritocracy' is run by the most talented; being instead 'hierarchical' means it was run by the senior-most being in charge.
Judicial Magistrate of the First Class convicted a man under Section 420, Indian Penal Code. She now intends to impose a fine on the convict, using her powers under Section 357(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure. In the aforesaid context, which of the following statements are accurate:
- a(1) the quantum of compensation cannot exceed Rs. 10,000
- b(2) the quantum of compensation cannot exceed Rs. 5,000
- c(3) the quantum of compensation cannot exceed Rs. 1,000
- d(4) there is no limit on the quantum of compensation that the Magistrate may impose. 21
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Section 357(3) CrPC empowers the court to order compensation where the sentence does not include a fine, and it prescribes no statutory ceiling on the quantum; the amount is left to the court's discretion subject to the accused's capacity to pay.
Which of the following is a punishment that a criminal court can impose upon a convicted person?
- a(1) imprisonment
- b(2) whipping
- c(3) chemical castration
- d(4) shaming
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under Section 53 IPC the permissible punishments are death, imprisonment (incl. life), forfeiture of property and fine; imprisonment is the only listed option. Whipping was abolished (1955), and chemical castration/shaming are not punishments under the Code.
The autopsy report provided by a medical examiner is:
- a(1) eye witness Evidence
- b(2) opinion Evidence
- c(3) contradictory Evidence
- d(4) none of the above
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
An autopsy/post-mortem report of a medical examiner is the opinion of an expert under Section 45 of the Evidence Act, hence opinion evidence.
In an appeal from a decision by the trial court, the appellate court finds that certain necessary evidence was not taken by the trial court. The appellate court:
- a(1) can only remand the matter to the trial court for taking additional evidence.
- b(2) shall decide the matter only on the basis of the evidence before it.
- c(3) shall presume that the missing evidence would have adversely impacted the case of the party who should have brought that evidence.
- d(4) may take additional evidence itself.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under Order XLI Rule 27 CPC the appellate court may itself take additional evidence (or have it taken) where necessary; it is not confined to remanding.
Primary evidence means and includes:
- a(1) oral account of the contents of the document by a person who has seen the original document.
- b(2) the original document.
- c(3) true copy made from and compared with the original document by a private party.
- d(4) none of the above.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 62 of the Evidence Act: primary evidence means the document itself produced for the inspection of the court, i.e., the original document.
Under Section 33 of the Evidence Act, evidence of witness 'A' recorded in an earlier judicial proceedings can be produced in another judicial proceeding where:
- a(1) witness 'A' is alive.
- b(2) witness 'A' is alive and is incapable of giving evidence.
- c(3) criminal proceedings are pending against the witness 'A'.
- d(4) there was no right but opportunity of cross-examination of 'A' was granted in the first judicial proceedings.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Section 33 of the Evidence Act, prior testimony is relevant when the witness is dead, cannot be found, is incapable of giving evidence, or is kept out of the way; of the options, only 'alive and incapable of giving evidence' fits a condition for admissibility.
Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 can be invoked for exclusion of time:
- a1) when the first suit is withdrawn under Order XXIII, Rule 1 of the Code ofCivil Procedure on the ground of technical and formal defect.
- b(2) when there is delay in filing a written statement.
- c(3) when the first suit was dismissed on merits.
- d(4) when the first suit is dismissed by default.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Section 14 of the Limitation Act excludes time spent in prosecuting in good faith a prior proceeding that failed for a defect of jurisdiction or other cause of a like (technical/formal) nature, not where the suit was decided on merits or dismissed for default.
A suit under Section 6 of the Specific ReliefAct, 1963 can be filed:
- a(1) for recovery of possession of movable property.
- b(2) for recovery of possession of immovable property.
- c(3) for recovery of both immovable property and movable property.
- d(4) against the government.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides a summary remedy for recovery of possession of immovable property to a person dispossessed without consent otherwise than in due course of law; it does not lie for movable property nor against the Government.
Whether a judgement in a suit between A and B that holds that A had purchased the immovable property from B:
- a(1) is judgment in personam.
- b(2) is judgement in rem.
- c(3) is neither judgement in rem nor in personam.
- d(4) is binding on all third persons unconnected with the suit who could have filed an appeal after obtaining leave to appeal.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
A judgment determining that A purchased the property from B adjudicates rights between the parties only and is a judgment in personam, not in rem (which determines status/title against the whole world).
Principle against hearsay applies:
- a(1) only to oral evidence and not to documentary evidence.
- b(2) only to documentary evidence and not to oral evidence.
- c(3) both oral evidence and documentary evidence.
- d(4) neither oral evidence nor documentary evidence.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
The rule against hearsay applies to both oral and documentary evidence; a document is itself hearsay unless its maker proves it or it falls within an exception.
Bar of exclusion of oral evidence by documentary evidence under Section 91 and 92 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies: (1) when fact to be proved would invalidate the document.
- a(7) when fact to be proved shows in what manner the language of a document was related to
- bexisting facts.
- c(3) when a fact to be proved relates to want or failure of consideration.
- d(4) when fact to be proved relates to terms of contract reduced in form of a document.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Sections 91-92 exclude oral evidence of the terms of a contract/grant reduced to writing; the bar applies where the fact to be proved relates to the terms of the contract reduced to a document. Items concerning invalidity, want of consideration, or surrounding circumstances fall within the provisos and are not barred.
A tenant of an immovable property can deny title of the landlord to such immovable property:
- a(1) after the tenant vacates the property.
- b(2) if the landlord is not the actual owner.
- c(3) if the landlord had trespassed into the property and his title is defective.
- d(4) in all cases covered by clauses (1) to (3).
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
By the rule of tenant estoppel (Section 116, Evidence Act), a tenant cannot deny the landlord's title during the continuance of the tenancy; he may do so only after the tenancy ends, i.e., after vacating the property.
A person suffering from schizophrenia:
- a(1) is not competent to testify.
- b(2) can testify if he can communicate verbally.
- c(3) can testify if he can understand the questions and answer them rationally.
- d(4) can testify through his father who understands the questions and can give rational answers on his son's behalf.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Section 118 of the Evidence Act, mental illness is no bar to competency so long as the person can understand the questions put and give rational answers; a schizophrenic who can do so is competent to testify.
Handwriting of A' on document 'B' can be proved by:
- a(1) the digital signature of A'.
- b(2) a person who claims to have received document 'B' purported to have been signed and written by 'A',
- c(3) a person who in the ordinary course of business has habitually received documents purported to have been written by 'A'.
- d(4) a person who states that he is a friend of A'.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Section 47 of the Evidence Act, the opinion of a person acquainted with the handwriting of A (one who has habitually received documents purporting to be in A's hand in the ordinary course of business) is relevant to prove the handwriting.
Under Section 57 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a court cannot take judicial notice of: (1) rule of the road, on land or at sea.
- a(2) matters of public history for which resort to appropriate books is required.
- b(3) uncontroversial notorious facts.
- c(4) a newspaper report.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Section 57 lists matters of which courts must take judicial notice (laws, public history with resort to books, notorious facts, etc.); a newspaper report is hearsay and not a fact of which judicial notice can be taken.
Mortgagor in lawful possession of the mortgaged property in the absence of any term to the contrary:
- a(1) cannot make lease binding to the mortgagee.
- b(2) can make a lease of a building not exceeding three years.
- c(3) can make a lease of a building for an indefinite period.
- d(4) can make a lease of a building till the mortgage is redeemed.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Section 65A of the Transfer of Property Act, a mortgagor in lawful possession may, absent a contrary term, lease a building for a term not exceeding three years (with the other statutory conditions).
When 'A' dies as a result of act of violence by person 'B', person 'C not present at the scene of crime can be prosecuted under the Indian Penal Code:
- a(1) under Section 120A to 120B of the Indian Penal Code.
- b(2) under Section 141 to 149 of the Indian Penal Code.
- c(3) for act done in furtherance of common intention under Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code. (4) for vicarious liability as 'C' was aware that offence was likely to be committed by 'B'.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
C, absent from the scene, can be prosecuted under Sections 120A/120B (criminal conspiracy). Section 34 (common intention) requires participation/presence, and Sections 141-149 (unlawful assembly) require being a member of the assembly present at the scene.
Whether a counter claim by a defendant in a pending suit is governed by law of limitation?
- a(1) Yes, it is governed by the law of limitation.
- b(2) No, it is not governed by the law of limitation.
- c(3) Limitation does not matter, when the plaint filed was not barred by limitation.
- d(4) Limitation does not matter, when the written statement to the plaintiff was filed within the time granted by the court.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
A counter-claim is treated as a cross-suit (Order VIII Rule 6A CPC) and is governed by the law of limitation, computed with reference to the date of filing the counter-claim.
Plaint filed the next day after Period of limitation will not be barred by time:
- a(1) if the plaintiff was outside India on the last date of limitation.
- b(2) if the plaintiff was unwell and suffering from viral fever on the last date of limitation.
- c(3) if the court was closed for half an hour on the last day of limitation.
- d(4) if the advocate of the plaintiff forgot to file the plaint on the last date of limitation.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Section 4 of the Limitation Act, where the prescribed period expires on a day the court is closed, the proceeding may be instituted on the day the court reopens; a court closed (even for part) on the last day brings the plaintiff within this benefit, so filing the next day is not time-barred. The other grounds (illness, absence, counsel's forgetfulness) do not extend limitation.
Whether Joint Hindu Family/Hindu Undivided Family:
- a(1) is a legal entity like a company.
- b(2) is a juristic person.
- c(3) is not a juristic person.
- d(4) is a partnership firm.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
A Joint Hindu Family / HUF is not a juristic person; it cannot sue or be sued in its own name and has no legal personality distinct from its members (it is taxed as a unit but is not a juristic entity). The karta represents it.
Whether the next friend of a lunatic requires permission of the Court to file a suit for declaration?
- a(1) Yes, specific permission and order of the Court is required.
- b(2) No, specific permission is not required.
- c(3) specific permission is required if the defendant raises an objection.
- d(4) permission is required in case the Court finds that the suit is collusive.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under Order XXXII Rule 15 read with Rule 1 CPC, suits on behalf of a person of unsound mind are conducted by a next friend; leave/order of the court is required to institute the suit for such a person, so specific permission and order of the court is needed.
A review petition is maintainable where:
- a(1) the review applicant has already filed an appeal which is pending.
- b(2) the opposite party files an appeal, after a review petition was filed.
- c(3) appeal filed by the review applicant has been dismissed by a speaking order on merits.
- d(4) filing of appeal by any side is immaterial.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Once an appeal filed by the review applicant is dismissed by a speaking order on merits, the decree merges and a review of the original decree is not maintainable; the option as framed (appeal dismissed by speaking order on merits) is the bar, making this the case where review is NOT maintainable. Settled under Order XLVII Rule 1 CPC, Explanation.
Whether a defendant can file an application for disposal of the suit under Order XII Rule 6 Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
- a(1) Yes, the defendant can file an application.
- b(2) No, the defendant cannot file an application.
- c(3) Defendant can file an application not before but after evidence of the plaintiff has been
- d(4) Only if the plaintiff has also filed an application under Order XII Rule 6 of the Code ofCivil Procedure, 1908.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Order XII Rule 6 CPC empowers the court to pronounce judgment on admissions at any stage on the application of any party; a defendant may also apply (e.g., on admissions in the plaint), so the defendant can file such an application.
130 Whether a suit dismissed in default can be restored without notice to the defendant or his counsel if the defendant and his counsel was not present on the date of dismissal of the suit in default? , (1) No, a suit once dismissed cannot be restored. (2) Yes (3) Principles of natural justice require that the defendant or his counsel must be heard. (4) Only if the suit was pending in the High Court and not if the suit was pending before the district courts. Whether the judgement debtor can plead satisfaction of money decree by payment in cash outside the court?
- a(1) No.
- b(2) Yes. if money is paid in cash before a third person.
- c(3) Yes. if the payment or adjustment is incorporated into a document.
- d(4) Only if the document recording the payment was signed by the decree holder before the notary public or oath commissioner.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Order XXI Rule 2 CPC, payment or adjustment of a money decree out of court can be pleaded by the judgment-debtor only if it is certified/recorded; an uncertified private payment cannot be recognised, so satisfaction can be pleaded only if the payment or adjustment is incorporated into a document (certified to the court).
Whether a suit can be compromised without filing an application under Order XXIII Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in Court?
- a(1) No, as a written application under Order XXIII Rule 3 CPC signed by both parties is mandatory.
- b(2) Yes, but only when both parties file affidavits before the court accepting the compromise and settlement.
- c(3) Yes, if the compromise is in writing and signed by the parties.
- d(4) Yes, but only if the whole subject matter of the suit and not part thereof has been adjusted and compromised.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Order XXIII Rule 3 CPC requires a lawful agreement or compromise in writing and signed by the parties; once it is in writing and signed, the court records it. So a suit can be compromised if the compromise is in writing and signed by the parties.
A plaintiff can file a second suit on the subject matter of an earlier suit filed by him: (1) where the earlier suit was unconditionally withdrawn.
- a(2) where the first suit was dismissed in default in the presence of the defendant, subject to law of limitation.
- b(3) where the first suit was dismissed on merits but the plaintiff feels that the decision is wrong.
- c(4) none of the above.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Unconditional withdrawal (Order XXIII Rule 1) bars a fresh suit; dismissal in default in defendant's presence and dismissal on merits both operate as bars (res judicata / Order IX). Hence none of the listed situations permits a second suit on the same subject matter.
Whether Indian Penal Code, 1860 applies to an offence committed by a citizen of India outside India?
- a(1) Yes.
- b(2) No.
- c(3) If The offence is associated and has a nexus with another offence committed in India.
- d(4) Only if there is a mutual treaty between India and the county in which the offence was committed.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Section 4 IPC extends the Code to offences committed by any citizen of India in any place beyond India (extra-territorial operation). So yes, the IPC applies.
When ’A’ dies as a result of an act by ’B'; ’B’ cannot be tried and convicted:
- a(1) for murder under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code.
- b(2) for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of the Indian Penal Code.
- c(3) for attempt to murder under Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code.
- d(4) for grievous hurt under Section 325 of the Indian Penal Code.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Where A dies as a result of B's act, B cannot be tried for 'attempt to murder' under Section 307 IPC, because death has actually resulted; the completed offence (murder/culpable homicide) applies, not the attempt.
A power of attorney executed by ‘A’ in favour of ‘B’ remains valid and effective notwithstanding death of ‘A’.
- aAs the power of attorney was executed by ‘A’ during his lifetime
- bAs long as ‘B’ is not aware of the death of ‘A’
- cAs long as legal representatives of ‘A’ do not cancel the said attorney
- dIf the same has been executed for consideration
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Section 201 of the Indian Contract Act, an agency is terminated by the principal's death, but Section 208 protects acts of the agent done before he has knowledge of the principal's death; thus the power of attorney remains effective as long as B is not aware of A's death.
Mistake as to law in force in India makes the contract:
- a(1) void.
- b(2) voidable.
- c(3) nether void or voidable.
- d(4) impossible to perform.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Section 21 of the Indian Contract Act, a mistake as to a law in force in India does not render the contract voidable; such mistake makes the contract neither void nor voidable (it stands).
Principle of"accord and satisfaction":
- a(1) applies to an arbitration agreement.
- b(2) does not apply to a valid agreement.
- c(3) applies when the parties are not related.
- d(4) applies to an "agreement" signed by a minor.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The principle of accord and satisfaction (discharge of a contract by a new agreement and its performance) applies to arbitration agreements/contracts; once parties reach accord and satisfaction, the original obligation (including an arbitrable claim) is discharged.
A written agreement between fathers of 'A' and 'B' that 'A' and 'B' would get married on becoming major is:
- a(1) voidable.
- b(2) void.
- c(3) valid.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
An agreement between the fathers that A and B would marry on attaining majority is a contract in restraint of/concerning marriage of persons not parties, made by guardians, with no enforceable consideration moving from the parties; such betrothal agreement for marriage of children is void (also contra Section 26-type and uncertain/contingent on consent of majors). Best answer: void.
On death of a tenant, his legal representatives under the Transfer ofProperty Act: (1) do not inherit the tenancy.
- a— ----
- b(2) normally inherit the tenancy as joint tenants.
- c(3) normally inherit the tenancy as co-tenants.
- d(4) inherit the tenancy only if the landlord agrees and accepts them as tenants.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
On the death of a tenant, the tenancy being heritable property devolves on his legal representatives, who normally inherit and hold it as co-tenants (tenants-in-common) under the Transfer of Property Act.
Is a tenant entitled to sub-let his tenancy under the Transfer of Property Act?
- aNo, unless such right is conferred on the tenant under a registered lease deed
- bYes, if the property is located in Delhi and rent is less than Rs. 3,500/-
- cyes , if the registered written lease deed is silent and section 108 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 applies
- dNo, unless the landlord gives specific permission to the tenant by way of a written authority or letter
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under Section 108(j) of the Transfer of Property Act, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, a lessee may transfer (sub-let) his interest. So if the registered lease deed is silent, Section 108 applies and the tenant may sub-let.
Charge under Section 100 of the Transfer ofProperty Act, 1882:
- a(1) amounts to mortgage by conditional sale.
- b(2) amounts to sale.
- c(3) amounts to security for payment of money.
- d(4) amounts to creation of tenancy rights.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
A charge under Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act is not a transfer/mortgage of property; it makes immovable property security for the payment of money to another, without amounting to a mortgage.
It is mandatory to record pre summoning evidence in:
- a(1) all private complaints triable as warrant cases including complaints made by public servants acting or purporting to act in discharge of his official duties.
- b(2) all private complaints triable as summon cases including complaints made by public servants acting or purporting to act in discharge of his official duties.
- c(3) all private complaints, triable either as warrants or summons case made by a private person, or a public servant acting or purporting to act in discharge of his official duties.
- d(4) all private complaints except where a complaint is made by a public servant acting or purporting to act in discharge of his official duties.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under the proviso to Section 200 CrPC, the Magistrate need not examine the complainant and witnesses (pre-summoning evidence) where the complaint is made by a public servant acting or purporting to act in discharge of official duties. So such recording is mandatory in all private complaints EXCEPT those by such public servants.
Statement under Section 161 of the Code ofCriminal Procedure, 1973:
- a(1) is required to be signed by the person making the statement.
- b(2) is not required to be signed by the person making the statement.
- c(3) is required to be signed by the person making the statement if it is recorded at the direction of the SHO.
- d(4) is required to be signed by the person making the statement if it is so directed by the Magistrate.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 162 CrPC mandates that a statement recorded under Section 161 CrPC during investigation shall not be signed by the person making it. Hence it is not required to be signed.
All "laws in force" in the territory of India immediately before commencement of the Constitution, for the purpose ofArticle 13 of the Constitution do not include:
- a(1) laws made or passed by the elected State Legislature in the territory of India before commencement of the Constitution.
- b(2) laws made by the competent authority in the territory ofIndia before the commencement of the Constitution. •
- c(3) taxing statute enforced before the commencement of the Constitution.
- d(4) independent provision of the Constitution which stands on an equal footing with Article 13 of the Constitution.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under Article 13(3)(b), 'laws in force' includes laws passed by legislatures or competent authorities before commencement of the Constitution; it does not include an independent provision of the Constitution itself, which stands on equal footing with Article 13 and is not subordinate to it.
Operation of any law which provides that the incumbent of an office in connection with the affairs of any religion shall profess a particular religion:
- a(1) violates Article 14 of the Constitution ofIndia.
- b(2) violates Part III of the Constitution of India.
- c(3) is protected under Article 16 of the Constitution ofIndia.
- d(4) violates the principle of equality of opportunity.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Article 16(5) saves laws providing that the incumbent of an office connected with the affairs of any religious or denominational institution shall be a person professing a particular religion; such a law is protected under Article 16 and is not unconstitutional.
Right of all citizens to move freely throughout the territory of India:
- a(1) is recognised as a Fundamental Right as all citizens have right to reside and settle in any part of the territory ofIndia under Article 19( 1 )(e) of the Constitution.
- b(2) is only a statutory right.
- c(3) is recognised as a separate Fundamental Right under Article 19( 1 )(d) of the Constitution.
- d(4) is not a Fundamental right
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
The right of all citizens to move freely throughout the territory of India is a distinct fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d), separate from the right to reside and settle under Article 19(1)(e).
Clause (1) ofArticle 20 of the Constitution is not violated when:
- a(1) substantive law with greater punishment in criminal proceedings with retrospective effect is enacted by simple majority by the State Legislature.
- b(2) substantive law with greater punishment in criminal proceedings with retrospective effect is enacted with two-third majority by both houses ofParliament ofIndia.
- c(3) procedural law relating to criminal proceedings is enacted by the Parliament with a simple majority.
- d(4) higher/greater punishment imposed under the new law is made applicable to pending criminal proceedings.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Article 20(1) bars ex post facto criminal laws creating or enhancing substantive punishment retrospectively. It is not violated when only procedural (not substantive) criminal law is enacted, even with a simple majority, as Article 20(1) protects against retrospective substantive penal law only.
Right to stand for election to the Parliament:
- a(1) is a fundamental right under Article 21.
- b(2) is only a statutory right.
- c(3) is a Fundamental Right under Article 19(l)(a) (right to freedom of speech and expression).
- d(4) is a part ofFundamental Right to form associations and unions.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
The right to stand for election (to contest) is not a fundamental or common law right but a statutory right conferred and regulated by the Representation of the People Act (Jamuna Prasad / Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal).
Article 30 of the Constitution ofIndia applies to:
- a(1) both minority and non-minority.
- b(2) majority.
- c(3) all minorities whether based on religion or language.
- d(4) all minorities based on religion and not language.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Article 30 confers on all minorities, whether based on religion or language, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Term "realtor" is relevant in:
- a(1) Quasi-judicial adjudication.
- b(2) Writ in the nature ofMandamus.
- c(3) Write about the nature ofQuo Warranto. •
- d(4) Civil suit amongst family members.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
The term is 'relator' (OCR error 'realtor'); a relator action is brought by a private person on whose information the Attorney General institutes proceedings, classically the writ/quo warranto challenging usurpation of public office. Option 3 ('Writ in the nature of Quo Warranto', OCR-garbled as 'Write about the nature of') is the relevant context.
Executive power of the Union:
- a(1) requires the personal signature of the President.
- b(2) is required to be made and executed in the name of the President.
- c(3) is required to be in the name of the Prime Minister and his Council ofMinisters. (4) can be exercised by any public servant belonging to the Indian Administrative Service.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Article 77(1) of the Constitution, all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President; no personal signature is required.
Jurisdictional power of the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
- a(1) is like jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 142(1) of the Constitution.
- b(2) is similar to jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution.
- c(3) is pari materia with jurisdiction of the High Court under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
- d(4) all of the above.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Article 226 confers on High Courts writ jurisdiction to enforce fundamental and other legal rights, analogous to the Supreme Court's writ power under Article 32 (indeed Article 226 is wider, covering 'any other purpose').
Decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Kusum Ingots & Alloys Limited vs. Union of India, (2004) 6 SCC 254 relates to:
- a(1) principle Qi Res Judicata and constructive res judicata.
- b(2) territorial jurisdiction and forum conveniens.
- c(3) scope of judicial review.
- d(4) power of writ court in matters relating to contractual disputes.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Kusum Ingots & Alloys Ltd v. Union of India, (2004) 6 SCC 254 dealt with the territorial jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226(2) (cause of action) and the doctrine of forum conveniens permitting refusal to exercise discretion.
Appointment of persons to be District Judges in any State is made:
- a(1) by Council ofMinisters of that State in the name of the Governor.
- b(2) by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State. ,
- c(3) by the High Court.
- d(4) by the President ofIndia.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Article 233(1): appointment of District Judges in a State is made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State.
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was enacted to' give effect to which provision of the Constitution?
- a(1) Article 24.
- b(2) Article 17.
- c(3) Article 31.
- d(4) Article 25.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (originally the Untouchability (Offences) Act) gives effect to Article 17, which abolishes untouchability and makes its practice an offence.
According to Article 39A of the Constitution, what does the legal system of the country seek to promote?
- a(1) Effective resolution of disputes between parties.
- b(2) Effective maintenance of law and order in the country.
- c(3) Equal justice.
- d(4) Obedience to the law.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Article 39A directs the State to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, i.e. 'equal justice' and free legal aid.
A law placed in the IX schedule of the constitution:
- aCan only be struck down by the supreme court if the court is satisfied that suh law violates part III of the constitution.
- bCan only be struck down by the supreme court if the court is satisfied that such law violates the basic structure of the constitution
- ccannot be struck down since it is located in the IX Schedule of the Constitution.
- dcan be struck down like all other laws.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Per I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), laws placed in the IX Schedule after 24-04-1973 (Kesavananda) can be struck down if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
Which is the appropriate writ to be issued against a person believed to be holding a public office to which he is not entitled?
- a(1) Habeas Corpus.
- b(2) Mandamus.
- c(3) Prohibition.
- d(4) Quo warranto.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Quo warranto is the writ issued to question a person's authority to hold a public office to which he is not legally entitled.
To determine whether a practice is protected by Article 25 (1) of the Constitution of India, the party seeking such protection has to establish that:
- a(1) the practice is not secular in nature.
- b(2) the practice is an essential religious practice.
- c(3) the practice is allowed by the religion in question.
- d(4) the practice is not prohibited by the religion in question.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under the 'essential religious practices' doctrine (Commr., Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar; Shirur Mutt line), a practice is protected under Article 25(1) only if it is shown to be an essential religious practice of that religion.
In a review petition under Article 137 of the Constitution, oral hearing in open court:
- a(1) is mandatory in all cases.
- b(2) is mandatory in all cases where the decision being reviewed imposed the death penalty on the petitioner.
- c(3) when both counsel pray for open hearing.
- d(4) is mandatory in all cases where the decision being reviewed deals with a matter of public importance.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Per Mohd. Arif @ Ashfaq v. Registrar, Supreme Court of India, (2014) 9 SCC 737, oral hearing in open court in review petitions under Article 137 is mandatory only where the decision under review imposed the death penalty.
In Shreya Singhal v. Union ofIndia (2015) 5 SCC 1, the Supreme Court: ’ fD struck down Section 66A, Information Technology Act, 2000 rn rts entirety for violating Article 19 (1) (a) and not being saved by Article 19 (2).
- a(2) struck down Section 66A, Information Technology Act, 2000 in its entirety for violating Articles 14 and Article 21.
- b(3) upheld section 66A, Information Technology Act, 2000 but read down the scope of the provisions to bring it in conformity with Article 19 (1) (a) and Article 19 (2)
- c(4) upheld section 66A, Information Technology Act, 2000 but read down the scope of the provisions to bring it in conformity with articles 14 and 21
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
OCR mis-split: the truly correct holding (Section 66A struck down in entirety for violating Art. 19(1)(a) and not saved by Art. 19(2)) is option (1), which is fused into the stem and has no clean lettered choice; among the lettered options none is correct, so the intended key is option (1).
'A', a private organisation, hires an employee at less than the minimum wage. By this act 'A1: (1) violates the rights of the employee under Article 23 of the Constitution.
- a(2) does not violate the rights of the employee under Article 23 of the Constitution.
- b(3) does not violate the rights of the employee under Article 23 of the Constitution since Article 23 only applies against the State.
- c(4) does not violate Article 23 as it is not forced labour.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
OCR mis-split: the correct answer is option (1) — paying below the statutory minimum wage is 'forced labour' violating Article 23 (PUDR v. Union of India, 1982), and Article 23 binds private persons — but option (1) is fused into the stem with no clean letter; the lettered options (2)-(4) are all wrong.
On a subject covered by an entry in List I of the VII Schedule of the Constitution, the Union Executive:
- a(1) cannot act on that subject unless Parliament has enacted a law on that subject.
- b(2) can act on that subject even without a legislation on that subject as long as it does not violate the Constitution or any other law for the time being in force.
- c(3) can act on that subject as long as it lays its actions before the Parliament at the next sitting of either House.
- d(4) Can act on that subject only through an Ordinance.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Article 73, the Union's executive power is co-extensive with Parliament's legislative power and may be exercised even absent legislation on a List I subject, provided it does not contravene the Constitution or any existing law (Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab).
Does a foreign citizen have fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution?
- a(1) Yes, all fundamental rights apply to all natural persons.
- b(2) Yes, all fundamental rights apply to all natural and juristic persons. .
- c(3) No, fundamental rights only apply to Indian citizens.
- d(4) Some fundamental rights apply to all persons, whereas others are restricted to citizens.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Some fundamental rights (e.g. Arts. 14, 20, 21, 25) extend to 'any person' including foreigners, while others (e.g. Arts. 15, 16, 19) are confined to citizens.
Within the Indian legal system:
- a(1) there is no right to property.
- b(2) right to property is a fundamental right guaranteed by the Constitution.
- c(3) right to property is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right.
- d(4) right to property is a statutory right only and not constitutional.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
After the 44th Amendment deleted Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, the right to property survives only as a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A, not as a fundamental right.
'X' files a suit for declaration of title and permanent injunction against 'Y' and files an application for temporary injunction under Order XXXIX, Rule 1 (c), CPC. The Court dismisses the application for temporary injunction. 2 months later, during the pendency of the suit, X again files for temporary injunction under Order XXXIX, Rule 1 (c), CPC, citing new facts and changed circumstances.
- a(1) the second application is barred by res judicata.
- b(2) Resjudiciata does not apply to interlocutory orders like temporary injunctions. (3) the decision given by the court on the first application is binding throughout the pendency of the trial and can be altered only on appeal.
- c(4) the second application is barred by the principle of res subjudice.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Res judicata does not strictly apply to interlocutory orders, but a fresh temporary-injunction application citing new facts and changed circumstances is maintainable; here the answer marked is that the second application is barred by res judicata is incorrect — the correct settled position is that on changed circumstances a fresh application lies, so the option stating res judicata does NOT apply to interlocutory orders is correct.
Section 89 of the Code of civil Procedure, 1908 provides that the court shall attempt settlement of disputes:
- aIn all cases
- bIn cases where both parties specifically plead for settlement
- cIn cases where at least one of the parties pleiades for settlement
- dIn cases where the court is satisfied that there is a possibility of arriving at a settlement the may be acceptable to both parties
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Section 89 CPC empowers the court to refer a dispute to ADR where it appears to the court that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties (Afcons Infrastructure v. Cherian Varkey).
A sues B for specific performance of a contract, In the plaint, A seeks the relief of specific performance. He does not seek any relief in the alternatives. The court determines that it cannot order the specific performance of the contract. Can the court award compensation instead?
- aYes, as a specific relief act directs that compensation must be awarded.
- bCompensation can be awarded since order VII, Rule 7 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that any other relief can be awarded and the same does not have to be specifically pleaded.
- cCompensation can be awarded only after the Court allows the plaint to be amended for including a claim of compensation.
- dNo, damages cannot be awarded since the relief of specific performance and of compensation are inconsistent pleadings, and therefore no amendment can be brought to this effect.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Order VII Rule 7 CPC the court may grant relief warranted by the facts though not specifically prayed for; read with Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, compensation may be awarded even where it was not separately claimed in the alternative.
Which of the following does not have to be pleaded in an application for temporary injunction? (1) Malafide intentions of the opposite party.
- a(2) Irreparable harm to the applicant.
- b(3) Prima Facie case.
- c(4) Balance of convenience in favour of the applicant.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
OCR mis-split: the correct answer (the element NOT required to be pleaded) is 'malafide intentions of the opposite party' = option (1), which is fused into the stem with no clean letter; the three classic ingredients that MUST be pleaded — prima facie case, irreparable harm, balance of convenience — are the lettered options.
In an application for maintenance, it is not necessary to aver that:
- a(1) the husband has neglected or refused to maintain the wife.
- b(2) the husband has sufficient means to maintain the wife.
- c(3) the husband has treated the wife with cruelty.
- d(4) the wife is unable to maintain herself.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
For maintenance under Section 125 CrPC the wife must aver neglect/refusal to maintain, sufficient means of the husband, and inability of the wife to maintain herself; cruelty is not a necessary averment under Section 125.
‘A' , an Indian citizen, enters into a contract with 'B', a US citizen based in the USA. Certain disputes arise under the contract, and ‘B’ files a suit in the matter in the civil court of New York. ‘A’ files a counterclaim in the said suit. Subsequently, 'A' files a suit in the same matter in the jurisdictional civil court in New Delhi. Is the latter court barred from trying the suit?
- aYes, since this will lead to multiplicity of proceedings.
- bYes, since by filing a counterclaim A has accepted the jurisdiction of the courts of New York
- cNo, because the pendency of a suit in a foreign court does not preclude courts in India from trying a suit based on the same cause of action
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Section 10 CPC (res sub judice) applies only to suits previously instituted in a competent court 'in India'; Explanation to Section 10 makes clear that pendency of a suit in a foreign court does not preclude Indian courts from trying a suit on the same cause of action.
In a contractual dispute between two parties A and B, A files a suit in New Delhi where the cause of action arose. Two days later, B files a suit in the same matter in Mumbai, where A is resident. The pendency of the first suit is not brought to the notice of the court in Mumbai. The court pronounces judgement in the second suit before the first suit is decided. Would such a decision operate as a bar on the court in New Delhi to try the suit any further?
- a(1) Yes, the principle of res judicata will apply.
- b(2) No, the principle of res judicata only applies against ‘former suits.’ In this case, the suit in Mumbai was filed subsequent to the suit in Delhi and is therefore not a ‘former suit.
- c(3) No, because the parties did not disclose the pendency of the previous suit to the Court in Mumbai.
- d(4) No, because the plaintiff in the first suit is not the plaintiff in the second suit.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Res judicata (Section 11 CPC) operates only with respect to a 'former suit', i.e. one previously decided. The Mumbai suit, though decided first, was instituted after the Delhi suit and is therefore not a 'former suit', so it does not bar the earlier-filed Delhi suit.
A filed a suit against B seeking three reliefs. The matter was decreed in A’s favour and the first relief was partially granted to A. The decree was silent as to the other two reliefs. Can A file a second suit in the same matter seeking the further two reliefs?
- a(1) No, the bar of res judicata will apply.
- b(2) Yes, the bar of res judicata will not apply since the court did not address these reliefs.
- c(3) Yes, because it will be assumed that the plaintiff was not given a fair hearing.
- d(4) The Court has to determine, on a case by case basis, whether by not addressing the reliefs in the first case, the plaintiff was denied a fair hearing. If The Court determines that the plaintiff was denied a fair hearing, then a second suit is permitted.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Res judicata bars only matters actually heard and decided; where the court was silent on and did not adjudicate certain reliefs, a fresh suit for those reliefs is not barred (subject to Order II Rule 2 considerations).
The subject matter jurisdiction of a civil court extends to:
- a(1) all claims of civil nature.
- b(2) all claims of a civil nature unless their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred.
- c(3) all suits of a civil nature which by express provision of a statutory law or by common law, fall within the jurisdiction of civil courts.
- d(4) only those claims of a civil nature where no other forum, authority or tribunal has jurisdiction.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Section 9 CPC: civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting those of which their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred (Dhulabhai v. State of M.P.).
A confession made by an accused is relevant and admissible:
- a(1) when it is extrajudicial, voluntary and truthful and beyond reproach.
- b(2) when made to a third person after being detained by a police officer.
- c(3) when made on being threatened with severe assault and beatings by the public.
- d(4) None of the above as confession is inadmissible.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
A confession is relevant and admissible only if voluntary; an extrajudicial confession that is voluntary, truthful and beyond reproach is admissible, whereas confessions to police or obtained by threat/inducement (Ss. 24-26 Evidence Act) are inadmissible.
A person ‘Y’ is convicted for the offence of kidnapping in 1960 and sentenced to three years of imprisonment. On release from the Tihar Jail, he is apprehended and detained for commission of murder and tried and convicted and sentenced to life imprisonment in 1990. Is this a violation of Article20 of the Constitution of India?
- aYes
- bNo
- cMay be
- dIt is violation of a directive principle of state policy
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Art. 20(2) bars double jeopardy only for the SAME offence. Kidnapping (1960) and murder (1990) are distinct offences, so the subsequent trial and conviction is no violation of Article 20.
Summons of a suit cannot be served by:
- a(1) service in person on the defendant.
- b(2) sending the summons>to the residence of the defendant.
- c(3) through publication in the newspaper.
- d(4) sending the summons to a friend of the defendant.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under Order V CPC summons is served personally, by post to the defendant's residence, or by substituted service via newspaper publication. Sending summons to a friend of the defendant is not a recognised mode.
A suit under Order XXXVII of the Code ofCivil Procedure, 1908 can be based on:
- a(1) a hundi.
- b(2) an oral contract.
- c(3) a claim for general damages under Section 73 of the Contract Act.
- d(4) none of the above.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Order XXXVII (summary suits) lies on bills of exchange, hundis and promissory notes, or for liquidated debts. A hundi qualifies; oral contracts and general damages claims do not.
The following agreement is 'lawful':
- a(1) an agreement to kill 'Z' between 'A' and 'B'.
- b(2) an agreement between 'X', the husband and 'Y', the wife that 'X' shall marry five times.
- c(3) an agreement for sale of future goods.
- d(4) an agreement to divide proceeds of crime equally.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
An agreement for sale of future goods is valid (s.6 Sale of Goods Act). The other options are unlawful under s.23/s.24 Contract Act (object/consideration unlawful) or void as a bigamous arrangement.
An injunction can be granted:
- a(1) when the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter.
- b(2) to prevent continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced.
- c(3) to prevent the breach of a contract, the performance of which cannot be specifically enforced.
- d(4) when necessary to prevent multiplicity of judicial proceedings.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
Under s.41(e) read with s.42 Specific Relief Act, a perpetual injunction can be granted to prevent breach of an obligation/contract whose performance cannot be specifically enforced (negative covenants). Acquiescence (b) and lack of personal interest (a) bar an injunction.
Estate of a partner who dies is:
- a(1) not liable for acts of partners done after his demise.
- b(2) liable for acts of partners done after his demise.
- c(3) liable for acts of partners after his demise, if life partners are unable to pay the debts. (4) liable for acts of partners after his demise, if the third person is not aware of the demise.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under s.35 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the estate of a deceased partner is not liable for acts of the firm done after his death.
A party rescinding a contract:
- a(1) is not entitled to damages.
- b(2) can sue for declaration and specific performance.
- c(3) cannot sue but only defend.
- d(4) can sue for damages.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Under s.75 of the Indian Contract Act, a party who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation/damages for any loss sustained through non-fulfilment of the contract.
Liability of guarantor is:
- a(1) joint and several with the principal debtor.
- b(2) Guarantor is not liable, till the principal debtor is alive.
- c(3) Guarantor is liable only if the principal debtor has absconded and left India.
- d(4) Guarantor is liable only if the principal debtor is unable to pay.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under s.128 of the Indian Contract Act, the liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, i.e. joint and several; the creditor may proceed against the surety without first exhausting remedies against the principal debtor.
Issues in a civil suit are framed:
- a(1) when a complaint is filed.
- b(2) after a written statement is filed.
- c(3) after an affidavit by way of evidence has been filed by the plaintiff.
- d(4) before final arguments.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Under Order XIV Rule 1 CPC, issues are framed after the written statement is filed, on the material propositions of fact/law affirmed by one party and denied by the other.
When the defendant is proceeded ex parte after filing written statement:
- a(1) the defendant cannot participate in future proceedings.
- b(2) the defendant can participate in future proceedings.
- c(3) the defendant to participate in future proceedings must ask for setting aside of the ex parte order.
- d(4) the plaintiff has the option to allow the defendant to participate.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Per Sangram Singh v. Election Tribunal (1955), a defendant who filed a written statement but is later proceeded ex parte may still participate in subsequent proceedings (from the stage reached) without needing the ex parte order set aside.
When an ex parte decree is passed, the defendant would normally ask for setting aside of ex parte decree:
- a(1) by an application under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of CivilProcedure.
- b(2) by filing a revision petition under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
- c(3) by filing a petition under Article 227 of the Constitution ofIndia.
- d(4) by filing an application under Order IX, Rule 7 of the Code ofCivil Procedure.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
An ex parte decree is set aside on application under Order IX Rule 13 CPC. (Order IX Rule 7 applies before decree, where the suit is merely set down ex parte at a hearing.)
Can a Civil Court examine a party at first hearing?
- a(1) No.
- b(2) Courts cannot examine a party till evidence has been recorded.
- c(3) The Court should not examine a party as the opposite party has the right to cross-examine.
- d(4) Yes.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Yes. Under Order X Rule 1/2 CPC, at the first hearing the court may examine the parties orally to ascertain admissions/denials and clarify matters in controversy.
Term 'Bailor' is defined in:
- a(1) Contract Act.
- b(2) Specific ReliefAct.
- c(3) Transfer ofProperty Act.
- d(4) Civil Procedure Code.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The terms 'bailor' and 'bailee' are defined in s.148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Does the Civil Court (Trial Court) have the power of restitution on variation of a decree or order in appeal?
- a(1) Trial court of first instance that had passed the decree has the power of restitution.
- b(2) A separate civil suit has to be filed for restitution when Section 144(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 applies.
- c(3) Trial Court of first instance that had passed the decree has no power of restitution.
- d(4) There is no power of restitution.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
Under s.144 CPC, the court of first instance which passed the decree has the power to grant restitution where the decree is varied or reversed in appeal; no separate suit is required.
Who is the creator of the mural adorning the external facade of the High Court of Delhi? (1) M. F. Husain.
- a(2) S. H. Raza.
- b(3) Satish Gujral.
- c(4) Jogen Chowdhury.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
The large murals on the facade of the Delhi High Court were created by renowned artist-architect Satish Gujral (option 3, mislabelled as 'b' in the broken option list).
In which immortal work of Charles Dickens do we find the exclamation - used for the first time — “the law is an ass”?
- a(1) Oliver Twist.
- b(2) Pickwick Papers.
- c(3) Nicholas Nickleby.
- d(4) Bleak House.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The line 'the law is a ass' is spoken by Mr. Bumble in Charles Dickens's Oliver Twist.
India has won, till date, 9 gold medals at the Olympics. Of these, 8 were in field hockey. In which sport did India win its only other gold medal?
- a(1) athletics.
- b(2) wrestling.
- c(3) shooting.
- d(4) weight lifting.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
India's only non-hockey gold among its first 9 Olympic golds was Abhinav Bindra's 10m air rifle shooting gold at Beijing 2008.
Which massive particle accelerator, reputed to the largest single machine in the world and responsible for extensive research on the Higgs boson, located 175 metres below earth’s surface, had to shut down in 2015 because a rodent gnawed at one of its wires?
- a(1) the Tevatron in Illinois, USA. cw:t7Prland.
- b(2) the Large Hadron Collider at r»Piiine
- c(3) the Beijing Electron-Positron Collider, Beijing
- d(4) the Spallation Neutron Source, Oakridge, Tennessee
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
The Large Hadron Collider at CERN (near Geneva, on the Franco-Swiss border) was forced to halt in 2015 after a weasel/marten gnawed through a power cable.
In which of the following countries is apostasy not punishable by death?
- a(1) Pakistan.
- b(2) United Arab Emirates.
- c(3) Maldives.
- d(4) Sudan.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Among the listed states, the United Arab Emirates does not impose the death penalty for apostasy; Pakistan, Maldives and Sudan have historically prescribed capital punishment for apostasy.
What are the annual awards given, as a counterpoint to the Oscars, for the worst achievements in film during the year, called?
- a(1) the Golden Strawberry awards.
- b(2) the Black Lady awards.
- c(3) the Golden Raspberry awards.
- d(4) the Balmer-Lytton prizes.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: C
The Golden Raspberry Awards (Razzies) are the spoof awards honouring the worst in film, presented as a counterpoint to the Oscars.
Which disease is caused by the plasmodium microorganism?
- a(1) typhoid.
- b(2) gastroenteritis.
- c(3) tetanus.
- d(4) malaria.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Malaria is caused by the protozoan parasite Plasmodium, transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.
Who designed the Indian flag?
- a(1) Alluri Sitarama Raju.
- b(2) Pingali Venkayya.
- c(3) Sarojini Naidu.
- d(4) Potti Sreeramulu.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: B
Pingali (Pinjali) Venkayya designed the Indian national flag.
In which layer of the atmosphere is the ozone layer found?
- a(1) the stratosphere.
- b(2) the mesosphere.
- c(3) the troposphere.
- d(4) the thermosphere.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: A
The ozone layer lies in the stratosphere, roughly 15-35 km above the earth's surface.
Who was the first Law Minister ofIndependent India?
- aC. Rajagopalachari.
- bB.Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
- cC.D Deshmukh
- dB.R. Ambedkar.
Answer & solution
Correct answer: D
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the first Law Minister of independent India (option 4, mislabelled 'd' in the broken list).
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