Live Bihar Judiciary 2026 mock series · 50 free questions Start now

Gujarat Judiciary — Prelims 2020

69 questions Objective 69 answers with solutions PDF
1

A sues B for land of which B is in possession, and which as A asserts, was left to A by the will of C. B’s father if no evidence were given on either side, B would be entitled to retain his possession. Applying section 102 of the Indian Evidence Act:

  • aThe burden of proof is on A
  • bThe burden of proof is on B
  • cThe burden of proof is on C
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

This is illustration (a) to Section 102 of the Indian Evidence Act: as B would retain possession if no evidence were given on either side, A would fail; therefore the burden of proof is on A.

2

A police officer, routers/ in order to induce/ to confess that he committed a crime.

  • aA has committed an offence under section 322 of the Indian penal code
  • bA has committed an offence under section 328 of the Indian penal code
  • cA has committed an offence under section 330 of the Indian penal code
  • dA has committed an offence under section 334 of the Indian penal code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Voluntarily causing hurt to extort a confession or to compel restoration of property is the classic illustration of Section 330 IPC (voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession or to compel restoration of property).

3

under section 63 of the Indian evidence Act, secondary evidence includes:

  • aCertified copies
  • bCopies made from the original by mechanical processes, and copies compared with such copies
  • cCopies made form or compared with the original
  • dCounterparts of documents. As against the parties who did not execute them
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 63(2) of the Indian Evidence Act expressly lists 'copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves ensure the accuracy of the copy, and copies compared with such copies' as secondary evidence.

4

Manifest (Choose the Synonym)

  • aBoasting
  • bEvident
  • cDestined
  • dGenerous
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

'Manifest' (adj.) means clear or obvious; its synonym is 'Evident'.

5

F.I.R. suggests that

  • ait is the earliest and the first information of a cognizable offence prevented by an officer in charge of a police station
  • bit is the earliest and the first information of a cognizable offence recorded by an officer in charge of a police station
  • cit is the earliest and the first information of a cognizable offence committed by an officer in charge of a police station
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

An FIR is the earliest and first information of a cognizable offence recorded by the officer in charge of a police station under Section 154 CrPC.

6

I_________the latest issue of the magazine in the shop and decided to buy it. (fill in the blank with the correct phrase/verb).

  • aFlipped through
  • bFlipped off
  • cFlipped through
  • dFlipped out
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Flipped through' (to look quickly at the pages of a magazine) is the correct phrasal verb. Options (a) and (c) are duplicates; the intended answer is 'Flipped through'.

7

Which of the following is true of the right to receive maintenance under section 125 of the criminal procedure code?

  • aIt is purely a personal right created by an order of criminal court
  • bThere is no charge created on property by the order for maintenance
  • cthe maintenance cannot be held to the alienable property
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The right to maintenance under Section 125 CrPC is a personal right created by the criminal court's order; it creates no charge on property and is not alienable—hence all of these statements are true.

8

Which of the following deals with how delivery to bailee is to be made in the Indian Contract Act. 1872?

  • aSection 149
  • bSection 135
  • cSection 145
  • dSection 140
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 149 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is titled 'Delivery to bailee how made'—delivery may be made by doing anything that puts the goods in the bailee's possession.

9

A agrees to sell to B the goods which are on their way to Chennai from Oman by a ship. But before the agreement between the parties, the ship had sunk and the goods to be sold to B. were lost. Neither party is aware of this happening, the agreement is :

  • aVoid
  • bVoidable
  • cValid
  • dEnforceable
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 6 of the Sale of Goods Act / Section 20 of the Contract Act, where goods have, without the knowledge of the seller, perished at the time the agreement was made, the agreement is void (mutual mistake as to existence of subject-matter).

10

10 Find the principal when the simple interest for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 90.

  • aRs. 300
  • bRs. 400
  • cRs. 500
  • dRs. 600
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

SI = P x R x T / 100, so 90 = P x 5 x 3 / 100 = 15P/100; P = 9000/15 = Rs. 600.

12

Under which of the following provisions of the Code ofCivil Procedure. the Prisoner is required to be brought to Court in custody ?

  • aOrder 16A. Rule 6
  • bOrder 14. Rule 20
  • cOrder 19. Rule 21
  • dOrder 11, Rule 7
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Order 16A, Rule 6 CPC provides that the officer in charge of the prison shall cause the prisoner to be taken to and kept in custody in or near the Court until examined.

13

Which of the following is false of Section 34 and Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code ?

  • aSection 34 docs not by itself create any specific offence whereas Section 149 docs so
  • bSome active participation in crime is required in Section 34 while it is not needed in Section 149
  • cSection 34 speaks of common intention while Section 149 contemplates common object
  • dSection 34 requires at least five persons who must share the common intention while Section 149 requires at least two persons to share the common intention
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The false statement is (d): Section 34 IPC requires at least two persons sharing common intention, whereas Section 149 (unlawful assembly) requires at least five persons—the option reverses these requirements.

14

Where a promissory note is payable by instalments, and two or more instalments have become due. and the holder of the note sues only for one of the instalments and omits to sue for the other instalments.

  • aHe can afterwards sue for these instalments
  • bHe cannot afterwards sue for these instalments
  • cEither (A) or (B)
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Order 2 Rule 2 CPC (whole claim to be included in the suit), a plaintiff who omits to sue for part of his claim relinquishes that part and cannot afterwards sue for the omitted instalments.

15

Which of the following is essential for an offence under Section 114, of Indian Penal Code ?

  • athere was abetment by accused
  • bthe act was actually committed in pursuance of abetment
  • cthe accused was present while the act was being committed
  • dall of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 114 IPC (abettor present when offence committed) requires abetment by the accused, that the act was committed in pursuance of the abetment, and that the abettor was present—hence all of these.

16

I am glad we are on the same page with our ideas for this project.

  • a(Give the appropriate meaning to the underlined portion)
  • bAgree
  • cDischarge
  • dDivided
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

'On the same page' means to be in agreement; the correct meaning is 'Agree'. (Option (a) is the misplaced instruction line.)

17

I needed to study, but I kept beating around the bush. (Give the appropriate meaning to the underlined portion)

  • aGetting confused
  • bGetting angry'
  • cNot coming to the point
  • dFeeling scared
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

'Beating around the bush' means avoiding the main point—'Not coming to the point'.

18

When a file is saved for the first time

  • aa copy is automatically printed
  • bit must be given a name to identify it
  • cit does not need a name
  • dit only needs a name if it is not going to be printed
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

When a file is saved for the first time it must be given a name to identify it.

19

Which of the following latitudes pass through India ?

  • aEquator
  • bArctic Circle
  • cTropic of Capricorn
  • dTropic of Cancer
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Tropic of Cancer (23.5 deg N) passes through India (across eight states); the Equator, Arctic Circle and Tropic of Capricorn do not.

22

false statement, rumour, etc. circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offence against the public peace is dealt under

  • aSection 505 of Indian Penal Code
  • bSection 300 of Indian Penal Code
  • cSection 299 of Indian Penal Code
  • dSection 351 of Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Statements, rumours or reports made with intent to cause mutiny or an offence against the public peace are punishable under Section 505 IPC (statements conducing to public mischief).

23

Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following types of conduct would be material ?

  • aChange of life
  • bEvasion of justice
  • cFear, Trembling
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under the head of subsequent conduct (relevant under Section 8 Evidence Act), change of life, evasion of justice, and fear/trembling are all material—hence all of these.

24

Find the odd one out

  • aJoy
  • bClever
  • cHappy
  • dAnxiety
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Joy, Happy and Anxiety are emotions/feelings (nouns/states of feeling); 'Clever' denotes an intellectual quality and is the odd one out.

26

Autrefois acquit or plea of double jeopardy arises :

  • aWhen a person is acquitted again of the same offence
  • bWhen a person is convicted again for the different offence
  • cWhen a person is tried again for the same offence
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Autrefois acquit / double jeopardy (Section 300 CrPC; Article 20(2)) bars a person from being tried again for the same offence after acquittal or conviction—'when a person is tried again for the same offence'.

29

Choose the word spell correctly

  • aFelicitate
  • bFacilitate
  • cFelicitats
  • dFacilitate
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Felicitate' (to congratulate) is correctly spelt; 'Felicitats' is wrong. 'Facilitate' is also correct but appears as a duplicate (b/d); the uniquely correct intended spelling among the variants is 'Felicitate'.

30

The evidence of any person whose evidence is ot a formal character which may be given by affidavit is provisioned in:

  • aSection 265 of Criminal Procedure Code
  • bSection 387 of Criminal Procedure Code
  • cSection 280 ol Criminal Procedure Code
  • dSection 296 of Criminal Procedure Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 296 CrPC provides that evidence of any person whose evidence is of a formal character may be given by affidavit and read in evidence.

31

Which of the following deals with the period of detention undergone by the accused to be set oil against the sentence of imprisonment ?

  • aSection286 of the Criminal procedure code
  • bSection-128 of the Criminal Procedure Code
  • cSection588 of the Criminal Procedure Code
  • dSection 289 of the Criminal Procedure Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The correct provision for setting off the period of detention against the sentence is Section 428 CrPC, but none of the options (286, 128, 588, 289) matches it—the options appear OCR-corrupted/from the old 1898 Code; best available guess is (d) Section 289.

32

Which of the following is the limitation period under Article 27 of the Limitation Act. 1063 ?

  • aOne year
  • bthree years
  • cFive years
  • dBoth -One year and three Years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Article 27 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 ('for compensation for breach of a promise to do anything at a specified time, or upon the happening of a specified contingency') prescribes a limitation period of three years.

34

Ctrl+Z=_______

  • aUndo last action
  • bInsert Link
  • cMinimise Current Window
  • dBold highlighted section
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Ctrl+Z is the universal keyboard shortcut to undo the last action.

36

Spurious liquor containing______or any other poisonous substance has been defined as “Laththa".

  • aMethanol
  • bHemp
  • cSpirit
  • dToddy
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 (as amended in 2011), 'Lath/Laththa' is defined as spurious liquor containing methanol or any other poisonous substance harmful to the human body.

38

Which ol the following states when an accused shall be discharged ?

  • aSection 239 of code of criminal procedure
  • bSection 264 of code of criminal procedure
  • cSection 337 of code of criminal procedure
  • dSection 258 of code of criminal procedure
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 239 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with when the accused shall be discharged (in warrant cases instituted on a police report).

39

In MS-Word, by default, a document is printed______mode.

  • aLandscape
  • bPortrait
  • cPage setup
  • dPrint view
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In MS-Word the default page orientation for printing a document is Portrait.

40

A suit for partition contains which of the following decree?

  • aPreliminary decree
  • bIntermediate decree
  • cFinal decree
  • dBoth (A) and ©
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A partition suit results in a preliminary decree (declaring shares) and a final decree (effecting actual division by metes and bounds); hence both (A) and (C). See Order 20 Rule 18 CPC.

41

Expedient (Choose the Synonym)

  • aSuitable and advantageous
  • bMoral or ethical
  • cTroublesome or costly
  • dQuick
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Expedient' means convenient, suitable and advantageous for a particular purpose.

42

Eye : Wink :: Heart :

  • aThrob
  • bMove
  • cPump
  • dRcspirate
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

An eye winks; a heart throbs. The analogy matches a characteristic rhythmic action of the organ, so Throb.

44

Article 20(2) of the Constitution ofIndia provides for protection against:

  • adouble jeopardy
  • bwrongful restraint
  • carrest and detention
  • dchild labour
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Article 20(2) of the Constitution embodies the rule against double jeopardy: no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

45

.We were great friends at school but_____when we went to different universities ? (Fill in the blank with the correct phrase/verb.)

  • adrifted along
  • bdrifted apart
  • cdrilled out
  • ddrifted from
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The idiom 'drifted apart' means gradually became less close, which fits friends separating after going to different universities.

47

X has been illegally detained by the police authorities. His father has been advised to file a writ petition before the High Court. Which Writ should be prayed for in such a petition ?

  • aHabeas Corpus
  • bCertiorari
  • cQuo Warranto
  • dMandamus
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

A writ of Habeas Corpus is the appropriate remedy to challenge illegal detention and secure production of the detained person before the court.

48

Choose the word spelt correctly

  • aDispatch
  • bDispatch
  • cDispatch
  • dDyspatch
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

OCR-broken options: (a), (b) and (c) all read 'Dispatch' (the correct spelling) and only (d) 'Dyspatch' is wrong; the correct spelling is Dispatch, so (a).

49

Who is the first Indian to receive the honour of Bharat Ratna?

  • aDr. Sarvapali RadhaKrishnan
  • bRavindra Nath Tagore
  • cIndira Gandhi
  • dMahatma Gandhi
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was among the first three recipients of the Bharat Ratna in 1954 and is regarded as the first Indian conferred the honour (along with C. Rajagopalachari and C.V. Raman).

50

Voluntarily causing grievous hurt to extort property or a valuable security or to constrain to do anything, which is. illegal or which may facilitate the commission of an offence is dealt under

  • aSection 329 of Indian Penal Code
  • bSection 330 of Indian Penal Code
  • cSection 331 of Indian Penal Code
  • dSection 332 of Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 331 IPC punishes voluntarily causing grievous hurt to extort confession/property or to compel restoration, etc. (Section 330 covers simple hurt for the same purpose.)

52

Article 94 of the Limitation Act. 1963 will apply to which of the following institutions ?

  • aI. Hindu religious endowment
  • bII. Muslim religious endowment
  • cIII. Buddhist charitable endowment
  • dIV. Christian religious endowment
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Article 94 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to setting aside a transfer of immovable property comprised in a Hindu, Muslim or Buddhist religious or charitable endowment; it does not cover Christian endowments. Hence (I) Hindu religious endowment is covered.

54

A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder. A. in the exercise to the best of his judgement exerted in good faith, of the power which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in the act seizes Z. in order to bring Z before the proper authorities.

  • aA has committed an offence, while Z was acting in self-defence
  • bBoth A and Z committed an offence
  • cA has committed no offence, though it may turn out that Z was acting in self-defence
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under the General Exceptions (good-faith apprehension of an apparent murderer in the act, akin to Section 79 IPC), A commits no offence even if it later turns out Z was acting in self-defence.

55

The use of computer workstations to send and receive messages is known as :

  • aElectronic funds transfer
  • bElectronic message switching
  • cElectronic mail
  • dElectronic publishing
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Using computer workstations to send and receive messages is Electronic mail (e-mail).

56

In a certain code language. 35796 is written as 44887. How would 46823 be written in that code language ?

  • a57914
  • b55914
  • c55934
  • d55714
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In 35796->44887 each digit is alternately +1/-1 (3+1=4,5-1=4,7+1=8,9-1=8,6+1=7). Applying to 46823: 4+1=5,6-1=5,8+1=9,2-1=1,3+1=4 = 55914.

58

25, 27,31.37, 45.55,_____(Complete the given series)

  • a61
  • b63
  • c67
  • d69
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Series 25,27,31,37,45,55 has increasing differences 2,4,6,8,10; next difference 12 gives 55+12=67.

59

Under which of the following provisions of the Code ofCiv il Procedure,

  • afundamental duties
  • bpromotion of international peace and security
  • cOrder 6, Rule 10 (I)) Order
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Stem and options are OCR-broken/incomplete (mixed CPC and constitutional fragments). The only CPC provision among the options is Order 6 Rule 10(1) regarding pleadings, so best guess (c).

61

The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them

  • a70
  • b60
  • c50
  • d73
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Stem is truncated (replacement man's weight unknown). Standard form of this classic problem yields the new man's weight = 70 kg; best guess (a).

62

The principle of—-------- is embodied in Section 6 of the Evidence Act.

  • aEstoppel
  • bRes Gestae
  • cPresumption
  • dfalsus in uno falsus in omnibus
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 embodies the principle of Res Gestae (facts forming part of the same transaction).

63

The tangible part of a computer system is called :

  • aInput data
  • bOutput data
  • cHardware
  • dSoftware
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The tangible (physical) part of a computer system is the Hardware.

64

To prove both the parts of the offence contemplated in Section 116 of

  • aI AND III
  • bI and IV
  • cII and IV
  • dI, II, HI, IV 67 A statement by the accused must amount to a confession for the application of :
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Stem is OCR-truncated and the four enumerated ingredients (I-IV) are not shown; for Section 116 IPC both parts (abetment and the offence not being committed/ingredients) must be proved, so the all-inclusive option (I, II, III, IV) is the best guess (d).

72

When the pawnor has obtained possession of the goods pledged by him

  • aa good title
  • ba defective title
  • cthe goods illegally
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 178A of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where the pawnor obtained possession under a voidable contract not yet rescinded, the pawnee acquires a good title to the goods if he acts in good faith without notice of the defect.

73

Which of the following provision of the code of civil procedure will be applicable in case of death of one of the several defendants or the role defendant in the

  • aOrder 12,role 1
  • bOrder 10, Rule 9
  • cOrder 19, Rule 6
  • dOrder 22, Rule 4
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Order 22 Rule 4 CPC governs the procedure on death of one of several defendants or of a sole defendant, providing for bringing the legal representatives on record.

74

Which of the following deals with alternative promise ,one branch being illegal m the indian contract Act 1872 “

  • aSection 56
  • bSection 50
  • cSection 55
  • dSection 58
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 58 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with an alternative promise, one branch being legal and the other illegal; only the legal branch can be enforced.

75

What is the presumption to be drawn under section 139 of the of the negotiable instruments Act .

  • aThat the holder of the cheque received the cheque for the discharge. In whole or in part of any debt or other liability
  • bThat the drawer had duly signed the cheque
  • cThat the cheque was dishonoured for want of sufficient funds
  • dThat the cheque in question had not expired on the date of its presentation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 raises the presumption that the holder of a cheque received it for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability.

76

Internet is an example of

  • aWAN
  • bLAW
  • cIntranet
  • dMAN
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Internet is the classic example of a WAN (Wide Area Network), spanning the globe; LAN/MAN cover smaller areas and 'intranet' is a private network.

77

Additional evidence means:

  • aevidence let in appeal before the trial has closed in the lower court. It is a privilege allowed only under special circumstances.
  • bevidence let in appeal after the trial has closed in the supreme court.it is a privilege allowed only under special circumstances
  • cevidence let in appeal after the has closed in the lower court. It is a privilege allowed only under special circumstances .
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Additional evidence is evidence let in at the appeal stage after the trial has closed in the lower court (Order 41 Rule 27 CPC / Section 391 CrPC), allowed only in special circumstances.

78

Which of the following deals with power to amend decree or order

  • aSection 145A
  • bSection 103A
  • cSection 148A
  • dSection 153A
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 153A CPC confers power to amend a decree or order where an appeal is summarily dismissed under Order 41 Rule 11, allowing the trial court to amend under Section 152.

79

Under section 6(2) limitation Act .1963 where several disabilities co-exist concurrently or where the plaintiff is affected by another disability before recovery from earlier disability .

  • atime will commence even if both the disabilities have not ceased (B ) time will not commence till any one of the disabilities have ceased
  • ctime will not commence till any one of the disabilities has ceased
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Section 6(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963, where disabilities co-exist or a fresh disability supervenes, time does not begin to run until all the disabilities have ceased; option (c) ('till any one of the disabilities has ceased') is the only fully-formed choice closest to the statute as printed.

80

What is usually used for displaying information at public places?

  • aMonitors
  • bOverhead projections
  • ctouch screen kiosks
  • dnone ol these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Touch-screen kiosks are typically used for displaying interactive information at public places like malls, airports and stations.

81

Which section of the Gujarat Prohibition Act provides for procedure in

  • aSection 99
  • bSection 100
  • cSection 101
  • dSection 98
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Stem is truncated ('procedure in...'), so the exact subject of the Gujarat Prohibition Act section cannot be confirmed; best guess Section 99 (search/seizure procedure).

82

Making atmosphere noxious to health is dealt under

  • aSection 278 of Indian Penal Code
  • bSection 279 of Indian Penal Code
  • cSection 280 of Indian Penal Code
  • dSection 281 of Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 278 IPC penalises voluntarily vitiating the atmosphere in any place so as to make it noxious to the health of persons dwelling, doing business or passing nearby.

83

By which Amendment Act to the Constitution of India, the provision

  • a44th Amendment
  • b42nd Amendment
  • c61st Amendment
  • d40th Amendment
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Stem is truncated, so the specific provision referenced is unclear; the 42nd Amendment (1976) is the most-asked sweeping amendment, hence best guess (b).

84

In case presentation of instrument for acceptance or payment is delayed

  • athe responsibility of all the parties thereto end
  • bit becomes ineligible for payment
  • cthe delay can be excused il it is caused by circumstances outside the control of the holder and not because ol his negligence, default or misconduct
  • dthe delay can be excused il it is caused by circumstances outside the control of the holder, or due to his negligence, but not if caused due to default or misconduct
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Section 75A of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, delay in presentment for acceptance or payment is excused if caused by circumstances beyond the holder's control and not imputable to his default, misconduct or negligence.

85

Extra-judicial confession is weak if it is made especially :

  • abefore a person with whom the accused had no previous contact
  • bbefore a person whom the accused already knows
  • cbefore a person who is a co-accused
  • dI none of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

An extra-judicial confession is especially weak when made before a co-accused, since it lacks independent corroborative value against the maker or others.

86

“Tori' in the Limitation Act. 1963 includes which of the following ?

  • aCivil wrong, which is exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of trust
  • bJudicial wrong which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of trust
  • cCivil wrong, which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of trust
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act, 1963 defines 'tort' as a civil wrong which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of a trust.

87

How does Section 157 of Criminal Procedure Code provide safeguards For rape victims ?

  • athe recording of statement of the victim shall be conducted at the residence of the victim or in the place of her choice
  • bthe recording of statement as far as practicable must he conducted by a woman police officer in the presence of her parents or guardian or near relatives or social worker of the locality
  • cBoth (A) and (B)
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The proviso to Section 157(1) CrPC requires that in rape cases the victim's statement be recorded at her residence or place of her choice, as far as practicable by a woman police officer in the presence of her parents/guardian/near relatives/social worker; hence both (A) and (B).

88

Using as true any such declaration known to be false is dealt under

  • aSection 199 of Indian Penal Code
  • bSection 200 of Indian Penal ( ode
  • cSection 201 of Indian Penal Code
  • dSection 202 of Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 200 IPC punishes using as true any declaration known to be false, which is by law receivable as evidence.

89

Where a row and a column meet, is called_________.

  • aa cell
  • ba block
  • ca box
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The intersection of a row and a column in a spreadsheet/table is called a cell.

90

Which of the following deals with subsequent pleading in the Code of

  • aOrder 8, Rule 9
  • bOrder 4, Rule 13
  • cOrder 6, Rule 10
  • dOrder 10. Rule 22
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Order 8 Rule 9 CPC governs subsequent pleadings, allowing further pleadings only with leave of the court or when the court requires a written/additional written statement.

91

What do you understand by the term "Leading Question" ?

  • aQuestion suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive
  • bA question asked to contradict the witness by his previous writing
  • cA question asked with reasonable ground
  • dA question asked with a view to check the veracity of the witness
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, a leading question is one suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive.

Practise Gujarat Judiciary the smart way.

Free mock tests modelled on this exact paper pattern, plus the full Gujarat Judiciary preparation guide.

Open exam guide
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.