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Gujarat Judiciary — Prelims 2022

71 questions Objective 71 answers with solutions PDF
1

…………was the first computer .

  • aAbacus
  • bNapier’s bones
  • cIBM6000
  • dPARAM8000
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The abacus is universally regarded as the first/earliest computing device used for calculation.

2

5TH Generation of computers is called the age of ………

  • aDesktops
  • bMicrosoft
  • cUNIVAC
  • dArtificial intelligence
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The fifth generation of computers is characterised by Artificial Intelligence and is called the age of AI.

3

CTRL+C is used for ……….

  • aCreating text
  • bCopying text
  • cEditing text
  • dPasting text
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

CTRL+C is the standard keyboard shortcut for copying selected text/content.

4

India bought its first computer in the year …….

  • a1950
  • b1966
  • c1956
  • d1959
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

India bought its first computer, the HEC-2M, installed at the Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta in 1956.

5

There are how many most common classifications of operating systems?

Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Options are missing/OCR-broken (empty options object), so no choice can be selected; commonly the answer given is four common OS classifications, but the option set is unavailable.

6

Which option enables us to see and check a page before operating system?

  • aReview
  • bField
  • cPrint preview
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Print Preview allows a user to see and check how a page will appear before printing.

7

Booting is a……sequence.

  • aSecondary
  • bStartup
  • cAuxiliary
  • dEnding
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Booting is the startup sequence that loads the operating system when a computer is powered on.

8

U/s. 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, there shall lie an appeal to the court of session within……days from the date on which the order made by the Magistrate is served on the aggrieved person or the respondent, as the case may be, whichever is later.

  • a30
  • b60
  • c90
  • d120
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides an appeal to the Court of Session within 30 days.

9

The court may at any stage of the proceedings, order the name of any party improperly joined, whether as plaintiff or defendant, be struck out. Where do you find this provision in the C.P. code, 1908?

  • aOrder I, Rule 8(2)
  • bOrder I, Rule 9
  • cOrder I, Rule 10(2)
  • dOrder I, Rule 12(2)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Order I Rule 10(2) CPC empowers the court at any stage to strike out the name of any party improperly joined as plaintiff or defendant.

10

The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is…………………

  • aAn arbitrary law
  • bA substantive law
  • cAn adjective law
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is procedural/adjective law, regulating the procedure of civil courts (as opposed to substantive law).

11

The court may at any stage of the proceedings order to struke out or amended any matter in any pleading…………………

  • aWhich may be vexatious
  • bWhich may tend to delay the fair trial the suit
  • cWhich is otherwise an abuse of the process of the court
  • dAll of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Order VI Rule 16 CPC allows striking out/amending pleadings that are unnecessary, scandalous, frivolous or vexatious, tend to prejudice/delay fair trial, or are an abuse of process — all of these.

12

An appeal against an order under rule 1, rule 2 of order XXXIX of the C.P. Code, 1908 sha lie under which of these orders of the said code?

  • aOrder XLI
  • bOrder XLII
  • cOrder XLIII
  • dOrder XLIV
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Appeals from orders, including orders under Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 (temporary injunctions), lie under Order XLIII Rule 1 CPC.

13

The provisions of ‘Precepts’ are found in which of these provisions of the Code of CIvil Procedure 1908?

  • aSection 34
  • bSection 36
  • cSection 46
  • dSection 150
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 46 of the CPC, 1908 deals with 'Precepts'. (Note: option c reads 'Section 46' and corresponds to the correct provision.)

14

The provisions regarding ‘Discovery and Inspection’ are found in which of these orders of the C.P. Code, 1908?

  • aOrder X
  • bOrder XI
  • cOrder XII
  • dOrder XIII
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Order XI CPC contains the provisions regarding 'Discovery and Inspection'.

15

where any claim is preferred to, or any objection is made to the attachment of any property attached in execution of decree on the ground that such property is not liable to such attachment, the court shall processed to adjudicate upon the claim or objection in accordance with the provisions contained in………

  • aOrder XXI Rule 54
  • bOrder XI
  • cOrder XII
  • dOrder XIII
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Adjudication of claims/objections to attachment of property in execution is governed by Order XXI Rule 58 (the attachment provision in this set being Order XXI), the correct Order being Order XXI.

16

When the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, then, if it is proved that the summons was duly served, the court ……..

  • aShall direct a second summons to be issued and served on the defendant in larger interest of justice
  • bMay make an order that the suit shall be heard ex parte
  • cShall postpone the hearing of the suit to a future day to be fixed by the court and shall direct notice of such day to given to the defendant
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Order IX Rule 6 CPC, where the defendant does not appear and summons was duly served, the court may order the suit to be heard ex parte.

17

For the purpose of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every court of small Caused is subordinate to the………

  • aDistrict Court only
  • bHigh Court only
  • cHigh Court and District Court
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Section 3 CPC, a Court of Small Causes is subordinate to both the High Court and the District Court.

18

In suits by or against a corporation, any pleading may be signed and verified on behalf of the corporation by..,.... Who is able to depose the facts of the case.

  • aThe secretary
  • bAny director of the company
  • cOther principal officer of the corporation
  • dAny one of these persons mentioned in options A to C
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Order XXIX Rule 1 CPC, pleadings of a corporation may be signed and verified by the secretary, any director, or other principal officer able to depose to the facts — any one of these.

19

Secondary evidence may be given of the existence, condition or contents of a document……

  • aThat he is an innocent person
  • bThat he must be knowing the thief
  • cThat he is either a thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Question stem is on secondary evidence (Section 65, Evidence Act) but the listed options are mismatched (they belong to Q20 on possession of stolen goods); none of the given options answers the stem, so 'none of these options' is the best fit.

20

‘ A’ man is in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft’ -choose the correct presumption from the options given which the court may presume.

  • athat he is an innocent person
  • bthat he must be knowing the thief
  • cc.that he is either a thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen
  • dd.none of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Illustration (a) to Section 114, Indian Evidence Act, 1872: a man in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft is presumed to be either the thief or to have received the goods knowing them to be stolen.

21

Under the Indian Evidence Act ,1872 ,when a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that…………..

  • aThe burden of proof lies on that
  • bHe has discharge his burden in rebuttal
  • cBoth the option A & B
  • dNone of these option
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when a person is bound to prove the existence of a fact, the burden of proof lies on that person.

22

Under sec. 143 of the Indian evidence Act , 1872, leading questions may be asked in ……….

  • aa.examination in chief
  • bb.re-examination
  • cc cross- examination
  • dd none of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, leading questions may be asked in cross-examination.

23

Law of evidence is ……….

  • aa.lex fori
  • bb. lex posterior
  • cc. lex specialis degogate legigenerali
  • dd. none of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The law of evidence is procedural and is classed as 'lex fori' — governed by the law of the forum/place where the action is tried.

24

Except as otherwise provided by chapter II of the specific relief Act, 1963, the specific performance of a contract may be obtained by…………….

  • aA.a reversioner in possession where the agreement is a covenant entered into with his predecessor in title and the reversioner is entitled to the benefit of such covenant
  • bB.any party thereto
  • cC where the contract is of a settlement
  • dD.all of these option
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lists all these categories who may obtain specific performance — any party thereto, a reversioner in possession entitled to the benefit of a covenant, and where the contract is a settlement — hence all of these options.

25

No suit u/s. 6(2)(a) of the specific relief act , 1963 shall be brought after the expiry of months from the date of dispossession.

  • aA.one
  • bB. two
  • cC.three
  • dD.six
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 6(2)(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, no suit shall be brought after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession.

26

Dispute arising out of which of these agreements given would mean commercial dispute’

  • aA.joint venture agreements
  • bB.technology development agreements
  • cC. distribution and licensing agreements
  • dD all these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 2(1)(c) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, 'commercial dispute' expressly includes disputes arising out of joint venture agreements, technology development agreements, and distribution and licensing agreements; hence all of these options.

27

Chapter IIIA - ‘Pre-institution Mediation And Settlement’ in the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 was inserted in the year………….

  • a2018
  • b2017
  • c2016
  • d2015
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Chapter IIIA (Section 12A) 'Pre-Institution Mediation and Settlement' was inserted into the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 by the 2018 Amendment Act (w.e.f. 3-5-2018).

28

An offence punishable under the Indecent Representation of women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 shall be……….

  • aNon-bailable and cognizable
  • bNon-bailable and no-cognzable
  • cBailable and cognizable
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 10(2) of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 provides that an offence punishable under the Act shall be bailable and cognizable.

29

The punishment for causing death by negligence u/s/ 304 A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is……..

  • aImprisonment of their description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both
  • bImprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both
  • cImprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both
  • dImprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 304A IPC (causing death by negligence) prescribes imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.

30

Indian Penal Code was drafted by…….

  • aLord William Bentik
  • bLord Delhousie
  • cThomas Babington
  • dDr. Ambedkar
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Indian Penal Code was drafted by the First Law Commission chaired by Thomas Babington Macaulay (Lord Macaulay).

31

Whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished with………

  • aImprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both
  • bImprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine
  • cDeath, or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine
  • dImprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 121 IPC (waging or attempting to wage war against the Government of India) is punishable with death, or imprisonment for life, and the offender shall also be liable to fine.

32

…………..is designated as ‘grievous hurt’ under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

  • aAny hurt which endangers life
  • bAny hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain
  • cPermanent disfiguration of the head or face
  • dAll of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 320 IPC enumerates grievous hurt, which includes hurt endangering life, hurt causing the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain for twenty days, and permanent disfiguration of the head or face; hence all of these options.

33

………is an offence against the Public Tranquility.

  • aBribery
  • bAffray
  • cFabricating false evidence
  • dObstruction to lawful apprehension
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Affray (Section 159 IPC) falls under Chapter VIII 'Of Offences Against the Public Tranquillity'. Bribery and obstruction relate to other chapters, and fabricating false evidence is an offence against public justice.

34

In which of these cases were the Transgender people recognized as a Third gender?

  • aNavtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
  • bGian Kaur v. State of Punjab
  • cSarla Mudgal, President, Kalyani v. Union of India
  • dNational Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

In National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court recognised transgender persons as a 'third gender'.

35

Any Person may obtain an extract from the register of births relating to any birth or death under……. Of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.

  • aSection 12
  • bSection 17
  • cSection 19
  • dSection 20
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 17 of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 permits any person to cause a search and obtain an extract/certificate from the register of births and deaths.

36

Promises which from the consideration or part of the consideration for each other, are called ………..

  • aReciprocal promises
  • bAcceptance
  • cVoidable contracts
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 2(f) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines reciprocal promises as promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other.

37

.,........ Means and includes causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.

  • aFraud
  • bUndue influence
  • cCoercion
  • dMisrepresentation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 18 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines 'misrepresentation' to include causing, however innocently, a party to make a mistake as to the substance of the subject of the agreement.

38

The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called…….

  • aHypothecation
  • bPledge
  • cGuarantee
  • dCollateral security
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines 'pledge' (pawn) as the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise.

39

25 people are in the room. 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them play both hockey and football. Then the number of people playing neither hockey nor football is……

  • a17
  • b13
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Set theory: those playing either = 15+17-10 = 22, so neither = 25-22 = 3. The correct answer (3) is not among the given options (a=17, b=13); options appear OCR-broken/incomplete. Best guess marked.

40

Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys. At the same time rate how many minutes would it take for 100 machines to make 100 toys?

  • a100
  • b700
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Rate is 1 toy per machine per 7 minutes, so 100 machines make 100 toys in 7 minutes. The correct answer (7) is not in the options (a=100, b=700); options appear incomplete. Best guess marked.

41

Ten friends planned to share equally the cost of buying a gift for their teacher. When two of them decided not to contribute, each of the other friends had to pay Rs.150 more. The cost of the gift wasRs……..

  • a666
  • b3000
  • c12000
  • d6000
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Let cost = C. C/8 − C/10 = 150 gives C(1/40) = 150, so C = Rs.6000.

42

‘A’ bought a certain quantity of bananas at a total cost of Rs. 1500. He sold ⅓ of these bananas at 25% loss. If he earns an overall profit of 10, at what percentage profit did ‘A’ sell the rest of the bananas?

Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Options object is empty (no choices given). Computed value: 1/3 cost = Rs.500 sold at Rs.375; total SP for 10% profit = Rs.1650; remaining 2/3 (cost Rs.1000) sold at Rs.1275 = 27.5% profit. Cannot map to an option letter.

43

Rahul, Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated around a square table. Rahul is sitting to the left of Murali, Srinivas is sitting to the right of Arul. Which of the following pairs are seated opposite each other?

  • aRahul and Murali
  • bSrinivas and Arul
  • cSrinivas and Murali
  • dSrinias and Rahul
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Arrangement Arul–Srinivas–Rahul–Murali around the square table places Srinivas and Murali opposite each other (classic GATE 2017 aptitude item).

44

Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punished with…….

  • aImprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for ten years
  • bImprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life
  • cImprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for seven years
  • dImprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for five years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides that whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life.

45

…… means any facility from where access to the internet is offered by any person in the ordinary course of business to the members of the public.

  • aData provider
  • bCyber cafe
  • cWifi
  • dBluetooth
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Explanation to Section 67C / Section 79 area and Section 2(na)-type definitions describe 'cyber cafe' as any facility from where access to the internet is offered by any person in the ordinary course of business to members of the public (IT Act, 2000, as amended 2008).

46

Choose the appropriate word from the options given to complete the following sentence:

  • aVice
  • bVirtues
  • cChoices
  • dStrength
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The sentence to be completed is missing from the stem (only the blank-filling options are given). Best contextual guess is 'Virtues'; cannot verify without the sentence.

47

The grammatical categories of ‘Strength, strengthen’ are………….

  • aNoun, verb
  • bVerb, Noun
  • cAdjective, verb
  • dAdjective, noun
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Strength' is a noun and 'strengthen' is a verb.

48

A sheaf is of……..

  • aTrain
  • bAeroplane
  • cBuses
  • dArrows
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A 'sheaf' is a collective noun for arrows (a sheaf of arrows).

49

The synonym of the word’ APEX’ is

  • aPeak
  • bUnderground
  • cQualified
  • dGreedy
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Apex' means the highest point or summit; its synonym is 'peak'.

50

The antonym of the word ‘Malign’ is……….

  • aPraise
  • bSupport
  • cCriticise
  • dSlender
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Malign' means to speak harmful untruths about; its antonym is 'praise'.

51

Select the most appropriate word that can replace the highlighted word without changing the meaning of the sentence” ‘Non-a-days, most children have a tendency to belittle the legitimate concerns of their parents’.

  • aDisparage
  • bBegrudge
  • cReduce
  • dApplaud
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

To 'belittle' is to disparage or speak slightingly of; 'disparage' is the closest synonym retaining the meaning. 'Applaud' is an antonym.

52

Choose the correct idiom, from the options given for. “ lose one’s temper”.

  • aFlesh and blood
  • bIn cold blood
  • cKnock out
  • dFly off the handle
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The idiom 'fly off the handle' means to suddenly lose one's temper. The other choices are unrelated idioms.

53

Choose the correct word for the expression given. “ a room for the display of works of art”.

  • aArtery
  • bArtillery
  • cGallery
  • dLibrary
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

A 'gallery' is a room for the display of works of art.

54

Which of the options given, best completes the given sentence: ‘she will feel much better if she………. .

  • aWill get some rest
  • bGets some rest
  • cWill be getting some rest
  • dIs getting some rest
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In a first conditional, the if-clause takes the simple present: 'if she gets some rest.'

55

Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Committee or the Board under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 may, within 30 days from the date of such order, prefer an appeal to the………….

  • aWakf Board
  • bChildren’s Court
  • cMetropolitan Magistrate
  • dHigh Court
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Section 101 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, an appeal against an order of the Committee or Board lies to the Children's Court (or to the relevant Court) within 30 days.

56

Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, ‘ heinous offences’ includes the offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or any other law for the time being in force is……….

  • aImprisonment for five years or more
  • bImprisonment for seven years or more
  • cCapital punishment or imprisonment for life
  • dImprisonment for ten years or more
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 2(33) JJ Act, 2015 defines 'heinous offences' as those for which the minimum punishment under the IPC or any other law is imprisonment for seven years or more.

57

The provisions regarding ‘bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to be in conflict with law’ is found in which of these sections of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) act, 2015?

  • aSection 12
  • bSection 11
  • cSection 10
  • dSection 9
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 12 of the JJ Act, 2015 deals with bail of a person who is apparently a child alleged to be in conflict with law.

58

Which of these acts define the expression penetrative sexual assault’?

  • aIndian Penal Code, 1860
  • bThe protection of children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
  • cThe Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
  • dThe indecent representation of women (Prohibition) Act, 1986
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 3 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 defines and provides for 'penetrative sexual assault.'

59

U/s. 35 of the Protection of children from sexual offences Act, 2012, the special court shall complete the trial, as far as possible, within a period of……. From the date of taking cognizance of the offence.

  • aOne year
  • bTwo year
  • cSix months
  • dThree years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 35(2) POCSO Act, 2012 requires the Special Court to complete the trial, as far as possible, within one year from the date of taking cognizance of the offence.

60

Under section 216 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, any Court may alter or add to any charge at any time………

  • aBefore the witnesses are examined
  • bBefore the arguments are concluded
  • cBefore the judgement is pronounced
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 216(1) CrPC, 1973 permits a Court to alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced.

61

Proceedings u/s. 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 may be taken against any person in any district……..

  • aWhere he or his wife resides
  • bWhere he last resided with his wife
  • cWhere he is
  • dAll of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 126(1) CrPC, 1973 allows proceedings under Section 125 to be taken in any district where he is, or where he or his wife resides, or where he last resided with his wife/mother of the child - all of these options.

62

……….is the main legislation on procedure for administration of substantive criminal law in India.

  • aIndian Evidence Act, 1872
  • bIndian Penal Code, 1860
  • cThe bombay Police Act, 1951
  • dThe Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is the main procedural legislation for administration of substantive criminal law in India.

63

In which of these cases did the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that’. ……section 198(2) Cr.P.C which contains procedure for prosecution under chapter XX of the Indian Penal Code shall be unconstitutional to the extent that it is applicable to the offence of Adultery u/s. 497 I.P.C.’?

  • aBaba Saheb Maruti Kamble v. state of Maharashtra
  • bJoseph Shine v. Union of India
  • cK.M. Nanavati c. state of Bombay
  • dSunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018) the Supreme Court struck down Section 497 IPC and held Section 198(2) CrPC unconstitutional to the extent it applied to adultery.

64

The provisions regarding ‘Recruitment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service’ is found in which of these Articles of the Constitution of India?

  • aArticle 233
  • bArticle 233 A
  • cArticle 234
  • dArticle 237
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Article 234 of the Constitution deals with recruitment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service.

65

Pat III of the Constitution of India guarantees………..

  • aCitizenship
  • bDirective Principles of State Policy
  • cFundamental Rights
  • dFundamental Duties
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12-35) guarantees Fundamental Rights.

66

The words ‘Unity and integrity of the Nation’ were substituted for the words ‘Unity of the Nation’ by the………………

  • aConstitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
  • bConstitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
  • cConstitution (Thirty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1974
  • dConstitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 substituted 'unity and integrity of the Nation' for 'unity of the Nation' in the Preamble.

67

In which of these cases has the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India held that “Timely delivery of justice is part of human rights. Denial of speedy justice is a threat to public confidence in the administration of justice’?

  • aK.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
  • bHussain v. Union of India
  • cDipak Shubashchandra Mehta v. Central
  • dRaviner Singh v. State of Himachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In Hussain v. Union of India (2017) the Supreme Court observed that timely delivery of justice is part of human rights and denial of speedy justice threatens public confidence in the administration of justice.

68

What is the proper court-fee to be paid on a Vakalatnama when presented for the conduct of any one case to a District Court or Court of Session?

  • aRs.2/-
  • bRs.3/-
  • cRs.5/-
  • dRs.10/-
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under the Gujarat Court-Fees Act, 2004, the proper court-fee on a Vakalatnama presented for conducting one case in a District Court or Court of Session is Rs.10.

69

Give the meaning of “Nemo Debet Esse Judex in Propria Sua Causa”.

  • aNo man can be judge in his own case
  • bA man shall not be vexed twice for one and the same cause
  • cNo one can be punished twice for the same crime or offence
  • dNo one is to be punished for the crime or wrong of another
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Nemo debet esse judex in propria sua causa' means no man can be a judge in his own case (the rule against bias).

70

Audi Alteram Partem mean……

  • aAlternate parties to the proceedings
  • bNo one shall be condemned unheard
  • cState of affairs in accordance with law
  • dNone of these options
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

'Audi alteram partem' means hear the other side - no one shall be condemned unheard.

71

‘Minor’ under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 means……..

  • aA person who has not completed the age of eighteen years
  • bA person who has completed the age of sixteen years but has not completed the age of eighteen years
  • cA person who has not completed the age of sixteen years
  • dA person who has completed the age of twelve years but has not completed the age of eighteen years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 2(aa) of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 defines 'minor' as a person who has completed sixteen years but not eighteen years of age.

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