Live Bihar Judiciary 2026 mock series · 50 free questions Start now

Gujarat Judiciary — Prelims 2023

99 questions Objective 99 answers with solutions PDF
1

As per Section 216 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, any Court may ---

  • aalter or add to any charge at any time before judgement is pronounced
  • balter or add to any charge before recording further statement of the accused
  • calter or add to any charge before conclusion of prosecution evidence
  • dalter or add to any charge before hearing final arguments of the prosecution
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 216(1) CrPC: any Court may alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced.

2

Explanation to Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act states that a stipulation for

  • acompensation
  • bdamage
  • cliquidated damage
  • dpenalty
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Explanation to Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act states that a stipulation for increased interest from the date of default may be a stipulation by way of penalty.

3

As per Indian Penal Code, how many persons are required to form an unlawful

  • aTwo persons
  • bFive persons
  • cFour persons
  • dSeven persons
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 141 IPC: an assembly of five or more persons is required to form an unlawful assembly.

4

1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91

  • a25
  • b26
  • c27
  • d28
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

These are triangular/hexagonal-type figurate numbers with differences 5,9,13,17,21,25; 15+13 = 28.

5

As per Section 68 of the Indian Penal Code, the imprisonment which is imposed in

  • aSecurity bond is given to pay such a fine
  • bAn accused has no means to pay such an amount of fine
  • cFine is either paid or levied by process of law
  • dAppellate Court finds the amount of fine exorbitant
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 68 IPC: imprisonment in default of fine terminates whenever the fine is paid or levied; the default imprisonment is imposed where the accused has no means to pay the fine.

6

Section 32 of the Indian Partnership Act relates to

  • aIntroduction of a partner
  • bRetirement of a partner
  • cAdmission of minor to the benefit of partnership
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 32 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with retirement of a partner.

7

Section 32 of the Indian Partnership Act relates to

  • aIntroduction of a partner
  • bRetirement of a partner
  • cAdmission of minor to the benefit of partnership
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Duplicate of Q6; Section 32 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with retirement of a partner.

8

Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in -----

  • aDwarka
  • bRameswaram
  • cWandoor
  • dKanyakumari
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is near Wandoor, on South Andaman, about 29 km from Port Blair.

9

A wagering contract is void under Section of the Indian Contract Act.

  • a28
  • b29
  • c30
  • d32
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares agreements by way of wager void.

10

'Victim' is defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure under Section ------

  • a2(w)
  • b2(wa)
  • c2(v)
  • d2(x)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

'Victim' was defined by the CrPC (Amendment) Act, 2008 and inserted as Section 2(wa).

11

Choose the word most opposite in meaning to the word - Prodigal.

  • aHumble
  • bPrisoner
  • cProvident
  • dEmployer
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Prodigal means wastefully extravagant; its antonym is Provident (thrifty, prudent in providing for the future).

12

Order XVI of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that the list of witnesses, after

  • a15
  • b30
  • c45
  • d60 Q
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Order XVI Rule 1 CPC: the list of witnesses is to be presented not later than fifteen days after the date on which the issues are settled.

13

As per the Indian Evidence Act, 'Court' includes-------------

  • aall Judges and Magistrates
  • ball persons legally authorized to take evidence
  • cArbitrators
  • dBoth (A) and (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act: 'Court' includes all Judges and Magistrates, and all persons (except arbitrators) legally authorized to take evidence; hence both (A) and (B).

14

If the word EARTH be written as QPMZS in coded form, how can HEART be written

  • aSQPMZ
  • bSQPZM
  • cSQMPZ
  • dSPQZM
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Each letter is shifted +12 (E->Q, A->P, R->M, T->Z, H->S); HEART becomes S,Q,P,M,Z = SQPMZ.

15

Which is the greatest number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 47?

  • a99952
  • b99954
  • c99969
  • d99947
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

99999 / 47 = 2127 remainder 30; 99999 - 30 = 99969, the greatest 5-digit number divisible by 47.

16

Which country is to host the Summer Olympic games in 2024?

  • aU.S.A.
  • bGermany
  • cFrance
  • dJapan
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The 2024 Summer Olympics were hosted by Paris, France.

17

Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 18?

  • a34056
  • b50436
  • c54036
  • d65043
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Divisibility by 18 needs divisibility by 2 and 9. 65043 is odd (not divisible by 2), so it is not divisible by 18.

18

Water attains maximum density at -----

  • aZero Degree Celsius
  • bFour Degree Fahrenheit
  • cZero Degree Fahrenheit
  • dFour Degree Celsius
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Water attains its maximum density at 4 degrees Celsius.

19

Water attains maximum density at -----

  • aZero Degree Celsius
  • bFour Degree Fahrenheit
  • cZero Degree Fahrenheit
  • dFour Degree Celsius
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Duplicate of Q18; water attains its maximum density at 4 degrees Celsius.

20

Who currently holds the post of Chief of Defence Staff, India?

  • aMajor General K Narayanan
  • bGeneral Anil Chauhan
  • cCol. Gaurav Batra
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

General Anil Chauhan is the Chief of Defence Staff of India (since 30 September 2022).

21

If the largest three digit number is subtracted from the smallest five digit number,

  • a1
  • b9000
  • c9001
  • d90001
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Smallest five-digit number 10000 minus largest three-digit number 999 = 9001.

22

Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act relates to

  • aTransfer by person having authority to revoke former transfer
  • bTransfer by ostensible owner
  • cTransfer by unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest in property transferred
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with transfer by an ostensible owner.

23

The study of lakes is called------

  • aPotomology
  • bTopology
  • cLimnology
  • dHydrology
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Limnology is the study of inland waters such as lakes and ponds.

24

Who is the first Indian bowler to take a hat trick in men's ODI World Cup?

  • aZaheer Khan
  • bChetan Sharma
  • cMohinder Amarnath
  • dKapil Dev
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Chetan Sharma took the first hat-trick in any ODI World Cup, against New Zealand at Nagpur in the 1987 World Cup, making him the first Indian to do so.

25

Which planet has a moon called Ganymede?

  • aMercury
  • bVenus
  • cMars
  • dJupiter
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Ganymede is the largest moon of Jupiter (and the largest moon in the Solar System).

26

Which section of the Code of Civil Procedure is related to the pecuniary jurisdiction of

  • aSection 6
  • bSection 5
  • cSection 3
  • dSection 4
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 6 CPC deals with pecuniary jurisdiction, limiting courts to entertain suits within their pecuniary limits.

27

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the word - Abstruse

  • aIntelligent
  • bPure
  • cProfound
  • dExciting
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

'Abstruse' means difficult to understand/profound; 'Profound' is the closest synonym.

28

The Planning Commission of India was constituted in which year?.

  • a1952
  • b1954
  • c1950
  • d1965
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Planning Commission of India was constituted on 15 March 1950 by a Cabinet resolution under PM Nehru.

29

The maximum number of students among whom 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be

  • a91
  • b910
  • c1001
  • d1911
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Maximum number of students = HCF(1001, 910). 1001=7x11x13, 910=2x5x7x13, so HCF = 7x13 = 91.

30

The smallest unit in a digital computer system is a -----

  • aBit
  • bByte
  • cCharacter
  • dKilobyte
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

A bit (binary digit) is the smallest unit of data in a digital computer system.

31

As per Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, an injunction cannot be granted --------

  • ato restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
  • bto prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced
  • cwhen the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter
  • dall of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act lists several bars to injunction including restraining application to a legislative body and preventing breach of a non-specifically-enforceable contract; hence 'all of the above'.

32

'B' finds a valuable ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. 'B' sells it immediately

  • aNo offence
  • bAn offence of dishonest misappropriation of property
  • cAn offence of Cheating
  • dAn offence of wrongful gain
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

This is Illustration (a) to Section 403 IPC; immediately selling a found ring without making any inquiry constitutes dishonest misappropriation of property.

33

Head Quarter of International Labour Organization is located in

  • aWashington DC
  • bParis
  • cGeneva
  • dHaque
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The headquarters of the International Labour Organization (ILO) is in Geneva, Switzerland.

34

Choose the word most opposite in meaning to the word - Fallow.

  • aInactive
  • bOperational
  • cFamous
  • dBountiful
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

'Fallow' (land left uncultivated/inactive) is opposite to 'Operational' (active/in use).

35

Legal Maxim - 'Actus Curle Neminem Gravabit' means ----------

  • aCause of action does not survive on death of plaintiff
  • bEvery cause has a remedy
  • cAn act of the Court shall prejudice no man
  • dMan shall be punished proportionately to the gravity of offence
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

'Actus Curiae Neminem Gravabit' means an act of the Court shall prejudice no man.

36

A proposal when accepted becomes ----- of the Indian Contract Act.

  • apromise under Section 2(b)
  • bagreement under Section 2(e)
  • ccontract under Section 2(h)
  • dmere formality under the provisions
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act, a proposal when accepted becomes a promise.

37

Order XX of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for drawing decree within a

  • a30
  • b10
  • c14
  • d15
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Order XX Rule 6A CPC requires the decree to be drawn up within 15 days from the date of the judgment.

38

Section 5 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that evidence may be given of ----------

  • adisputed facts
  • bfacts in issue and relevant facts
  • cdisputed facts only
  • dBoth (A) and (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 5 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that evidence may be given of the existence/non-existence of facts in issue and of relevant facts.

39

Limitation for filing an application for an Order to set aside an abatement is ---------

  • a30 days
  • b45 days
  • c60 days
  • d15 days
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Article 121 of the Limitation Act prescribes 60 days for an application to set aside an abatement (from date of abatement).

40

As per the Transfer of Property Act, immovable property includes

  • aGrass
  • bStanding timber
  • cGrowing crops
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act expressly excludes standing timber, growing crops and grass from 'immovable property'; hence none of the listed items is included.

41

What out of the following is not included as Fundamental Duty in Article 51A of the

  • aTo cherish and follow the noble ideas which inspired our national struggle for freedom
  • bTo safeguard public property and to abjure violence
  • cTo develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
  • dTo obey the executive instructions and Ordinances issued by the Government during exigencies
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Article 51A lists fundamental duties; 'to obey executive instructions and Ordinances during exigencies' is not among them.

42

Who among the following Peshwas was popularly known as 'Nana Saheb'?

  • aBalaji Vishwanath
  • bBaji Rao
  • cBalaji Baji Rao
  • dMadhav Rao
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao was popularly known as 'Nana Saheb'.

43

When a sum of money was distributed to 12 persons instead of 16 persons, each person

  • aRs. 14,400/-
  • bRs. 19,200/-
  • cRs. 16,000/-
  • dRs. 12,000/-
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Stem is truncated (per-person increase amount not stated). Standard version: distributing among 12 instead of 16 gives each Rs.400 more; total = Rs.19,200 (Rs.1,600 vs Rs.1,200 per head). Best guess (b).

44

What is the full form of SMPS?

  • aSwitched Main Power Supply
  • bSwitched Markup Power Supply
  • cSwitched Mode Power Supply
  • dSwitched Mask Power Supply
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

SMPS stands for Switched Mode Power Supply.

45

Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution

  • aSection 18 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  • bSection 19 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  • cSection 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  • dSection 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 18 CPC governs the place of institution of a suit where local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain.

46

As per the Indian Contract Act, a gratuitous bailment is terminated by ----------

  • ainsolvency
  • ban agreement in writing
  • cthe death either of the bailor or of the bailee
  • dbailee paying the consideration amount to the bailor
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 162 of the Indian Contract Act: a gratuitous bailment is terminated by the death of either the bailor or the bailee.

47

As per Section 143A of the Negotiable Instruments Act, the interim compensation

  • a20%
  • b15%
  • c10%
  • d25%
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 143A NI Act: interim compensation shall not exceed 20% of the amount of the cheque.

48

What out of the following do not form a part of the Preamble to the Constitution of

  • aJustice, social, economic and political;
  • bLiberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
  • cEquality of status and of opportunity;
  • dRight to Property in any part of India
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Preamble speaks of Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity; 'Right to Property in any part of India' does not form part of the Preamble.

49

Section 66F of the Information Technology Act relates to

  • aPunishment for cyber terrorism
  • bPunishment for violation of privacy
  • cPunishment for identity theft
  • dPunishment for sending offensive messages through communication
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 66F of the Information Technology Act provides punishment for cyber terrorism.

50

The Court may compel the attendance of any person to whom a summons has been

  • aissue a warrant for his arrest
  • battach and sell his property
  • corder him to furnish security for his presence and in default commit him to the civil prison
  • ddo all of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Order XVI Rule 10 CPC: where a summoned person fails to attend, the Court may issue an arrest warrant, attach and sell property, or order security/commit to civil prison; hence 'all of the above'.

51

As per Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, conduct of an accused is -------------

  • aIrrelevant
  • bTo be ignored
  • cRelevant
  • dA fact in issue
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes the conduct of any party or accused, when it influences or is influenced by any fact in issue or relevant fact, a relevant fact.

52

As per Section 75 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court may issue a Commission ---

  • ato make a local investigation
  • bto hold a scientific, technical or expert investigation
  • cto perform any ministerial act
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 75 CPC empowers the Court to issue commissions to examine witnesses, make local investigations, hold scientific/technical/expert investigations, sell property, and perform ministerial acts — hence all of the above.

53

Which one of the following set of Sections of Indian Penal Code provide for the right

  • aSection 107 to 120
  • bSection 76 to 105
  • cSection 76 to 86
  • dSection 96 to 106
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The right of private defence is dealt with in Sections 96 to 106 of the Indian Penal Code.

54

Krushika has Rs. 6 more than Madhuri and Rs. 9 more than Sara. All the three have Rs.

  • a16
  • b13
  • c7
  • d10
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Stem is truncated (total amount not fully given). Taking total = Rs. 30: 3K-15=30 gives K=15 (no option); if the asked person is Sara (K-9) with a different total the answer would differ. Best guess Madhuri = 13.

55

Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code is based on

  • aSection 83
  • bSection 84
  • cSection 85
  • dSection 86
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Stem truncated (the maxim/principle is missing). Among 83/84/85/86, voluntary intoxication (Section 86) is the most frequently keyed provision based on the presumption of knowledge; best guess Section 86.

56

The famous phrase - 'To be, or not to be' is found in which Play written by

  • aJulius Caesar
  • bComedy of Errors
  • cRomeo and Juliet
  • dHamlet
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

'To be, or not to be' is the opening of Hamlet's soliloquy in Shakespeare's play Hamlet (Act III, Scene 1).

57

What was the day of the week on 15th August, 1947?

  • aThursday
  • bSunday
  • cSaturday
  • dFriday
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

15 August 1947 fell on a Friday.

58

Who currently holds the post of Attorney General of India?

  • aR. Venkataramani
  • bK K. Venugopal
  • cMukul Rohtagi
  • dKapil Sibbal
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

R. Venkataramani has been the Attorney General of India since 1 October 2022, succeeding K.K. Venugopal.

59

As per Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, which out of the following is/are not

  • aCooking vessels
  • bTools of artisans
  • cBooks of account
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 60 CPC proviso exempts from attachment cooking vessels, tools of artisans, and books of account — all of the above are not liable to attachment/sale.

60

'Gita Govinda' the famous poem was written by-------------

  • aJayadeva
  • bAdi Sankar
  • cMirabai
  • dNaamdev
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Gita Govinda was composed by the 12th-century poet Jayadeva.

61

Who is the first posthumous recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award?

  • aLal Bahadur Shastri
  • bC V Raman
  • cJawaharlal Nehru
  • dZakir Hussain
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Lal Bahadur Shastri was the first posthumous recipient of the Bharat Ratna (1966).

62

As per the Indian Contract Act, if the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new

  • astill needs to be performed
  • bneeds to be partly performed
  • cneed not be performed
  • dgets in abeyance
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

On novation (Section 62, Indian Contract Act), when parties substitute a new contract, the original contract need not be performed.

63

Protection Order in favour of the aggrieved person can be passed in exercise of

  • a17
  • b16
  • c18
  • d20
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

A protection order in favour of the aggrieved person is passed under Section 18 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.

64

13 chairs and 5 tables were bought for Rs. 8280/-. If the average cost of a table be Rs.

  • a165
  • b175
  • c155
  • d135
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Stem truncated (average cost of a table not fully stated), so chair cost cannot be computed exactly. Best guess Rs. 135.

65

Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid is punishable under Section ---of

  • a326
  • b326A
  • c307
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid is punishable under Section 326A IPC (inserted by the 2013 Amendment).

66

A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A's son is D's brother.

  • aFather
  • bBrother
  • cGrandfather
  • dUncle
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Relationship-puzzle stem is truncated (the asked relationship is missing). Based on the typical framing (relation of A's son to C), best guess Uncle.

67

Who currently holds the post of Chancellor of Germany?

  • aHelmut Kohl
  • bAngela Merkel
  • cOlaf Scholz
  • dEmmanuel Macron
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Olaf Scholz was the Chancellor of Germany during 2022-2023, the period relevant to this paper.

68

The original name of Tansen, the famous musician at the Court of Akbar was ---------

  • aLal Kalawant
  • bBanda Bahadur
  • cRamtanu Pandey
  • dMarkandey Pandey
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Tansen's original name was Ramtanu Pandey.

69

Bile is stored in ---------

  • aGall bladder
  • bLiver
  • cSpleen
  • dLungs
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Bile produced by the liver is stored and concentrated in the gall bladder.

70

Legal Maxim - 'Cessante Ratione Legis Cessat Ipsa Lex' means ------------

  • aLaw should be based on rationale and should be acceptable in society
  • bCourt should be vigilant to see that rule of law does not cease to operate in society
  • cReasons should be avoided when the law is clear on the point
  • dReason is the soul of the law, and when the reason of any particular law ceases, so does the law itself
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

'Cessante ratione legis cessat ipsa lex' means the reason is the soul of the law, and when the reason of a particular law ceases, the law itself ceases.

71

Section ---------- of the Indian Penal Code provides for punishment for attempting to

  • a506
  • b506(2)
  • c511
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Stem truncated. Section 511 IPC provides punishment for attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment. (If the intended subject were criminal intimidation, the answer would be 506.) Best guess Section 511.

72

In a group of 70 people, 37 like coffee, 52 like tea and each person likes at least one of

  • a13
  • b17
  • c21
  • d19
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

By inclusion-exclusion, those who like both = 37 + 52 - 70 = 19.

73

V-shaped valley is formed by ----------

  • aWind
  • bVolcano
  • cGlacier
  • dRiver
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A V-shaped valley is formed by river erosion (vertical cutting) in the upper course of a river.

74

PARAM - super computer was developed by _____

  • aIIT, Kanput
  • bIIT, Delhi
  • cC-DAC
  • dBARC
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The PARAM series of supercomputers was developed by C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing).

75

The solar eclipse occurs when ------------

  • aThe earth comes between the sun and the moon
  • bThe moon moves too far away from the sun
  • cThe sun comes between the moon and the earth
  • dThe moon comes between the sun and the earth
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A solar eclipse occurs when the moon comes between the sun and the earth, blocking sunlight.

76

As per Indian Penal Code, punishment for murder is ---------

  • acompulsorily death
  • bImprisonment for 14 years and fine
  • cImprisonment for life without fine
  • ddeath or imprisonment for life and fine
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

IPC Section 302 punishes murder with death, or imprisonment for life, and also liability to fine.

77

As per section 45 of the Indian Penal Code, the word 'life' denotes the ---------

  • alife of a human being
  • blife of an animal
  • clife of a human being as well as life of an animal
  • dnone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

IPC Section 45 defines 'life' as the life of a human being, unless the contrary appears from the context.

78

Who is called the 'Father of Indian Archaeology'?.

  • aAlexander Cunninghum
  • bJames Pricep
  • cJohn Marshall
  • dMortimer Wheeler
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Sir Alexander Cunningham, founder and first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, is called the 'Father of Indian Archaeology'.

79

As per the Indian Penal Code, whoever does anything with the intention of causing

  • aFraudulently
  • bDishonestly
  • cby cheating
  • dby committing criminal breach of trust
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

IPC Section 24 defines 'dishonestly' as doing anything with intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another.

80

Who was the first recipient of DadaSaheb Phalke Award?

  • aPrithviraj Kapoor
  • bDevika Rani
  • cNaushad
  • dSatyajit Ray
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Actress Devika Rani was the first recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, conferred in 1969.

81

If NOIDA is written as 39658, how will INDIA be written?

  • a65368
  • b63569
  • c36568
  • d63568
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

From NOIDA=39658: N=3,O=9,I=6,D=5,A=8. So INDIA (I,N,D,I,A) = 6,3,5,6,8 = 63568.

82

Which of the following question/s may be determined by the Court executing the

  • aExecution of Decree
  • bDischarge of Decree
  • cSatisfaction of Decree
  • dAll of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

CPC Section 47 directs that all questions relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree be determined by the executing court.

83

Constructive res judicata is contained in -----

  • aExplanation III to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  • bExplanation VI to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  • cExplanation VII to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  • dExplanation IV to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Constructive res judicata is embodied in Explanation IV to Section 11 of the CPC (matters which might and ought to have been raised).

84

As per the Transfer of Property Act, if the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is ---

  • aVoidable
  • bValid
  • cOnerous gift
  • dVoid
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under TPA Section 122, a gift requires acceptance during the donor's lifetime; if the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void.

85

An application to the Court can be made by a party for an interim measure for

  • a8
  • b7
  • c12
  • d9
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

An application for an interim measure of protection is made under Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

86

What is the full form of NABARD?

  • aNational Academy of Banking for Agricultural Research and Development
  • bNational Board for Autonomous Research and Development
  • cNational Board for Agricultural Research and Development
  • dNational Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

NABARD stands for National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

87

Which country won the ICC Women's T20 World Cup in 2023?

  • aAustralia
  • bSouth Africa
  • cIndia
  • dEngland
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Australia beat South Africa by 19 runs in the final at Cape Town to win the ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2023.

88

Section 156(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that ------ empowered under

  • aChief Judicial Magistrate
  • bMagistrate of the First Class
  • cAny Magistrate
  • dBoth (A) and (B)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

CrPC Section 156(3) refers to a Magistrate empowered under Section 190, i.e. the Chief Judicial Magistrate and the Magistrate of the First Class.

89

As per the Information Technology Act, authentication of any electronic record by a

  • aElectronic signature
  • bDigital signature
  • cAuthentic signature
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

IT Act Section 3 provides that a subscriber may authenticate an electronic record by affixing his digital signature.

90

Who won the Golden Glove Award in the FIFA World Cup 2022?

  • aJordan Pickford
  • bDominik Livakovic
  • cBono
  • dEmiliano Martinez
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Emiliano Martinez (Argentina) won the Golden Glove (best goalkeeper) award at the FIFA World Cup 2022.

91

What is the sum of the squares of the digits from 1 to 9?

  • a105
  • b285
  • c260
  • d385
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

1+4+9+16+25+36+49+64+81 = 285 (sum of squares of 1 to 9).

92

What is the maximum amount of maintenance which can be ordered by a Magistrate

  • aRs. 500/-
  • bRs. 5000/-
  • cRs. 10,000/-
  • dNo limit
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Rs.500 ceiling in CrPC Section 125 was removed by the 2001 amendment; a Magistrate may now order maintenance with no statutory upper limit.

93

Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act relates to ------

  • aRegistration of Hindu Marriages
  • bVoid Marriages
  • cVoidable Marriages
  • dRestitution of conjugal rights
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with restitution of conjugal rights.

94

Which King got constructed the world famous Jagannath Temple at Puri?.

  • aKrishna Varman
  • bAnanta Varman
  • cDeva Varman
  • dChandragupta Maurya
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

King Anantavarman Chodaganga of the Eastern Ganga dynasty began construction of the Jagannath Temple at Puri in the early 12th century.

95

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the word - Consanguinity

  • aHardship
  • bKinship
  • cCollusion
  • dWorship
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Consanguinity means blood relationship; the closest synonym is kinship.

96

Section 29(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that the Court of a Magistrate

  • anot exceeding three years or of fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees or of both
  • bnot exceeding five years or of fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees or of both
  • cnot exceeding three years or of fine not exceeding five thousand rupees or of both
  • dnot exceeding three years or fine not exceeding two thousand rupees
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under CrPC Section 29(2), a Magistrate of the First Class may pass imprisonment not exceeding three years or fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees, or both.

97

What is Numismatics?

  • aThe study of old vedic scriptures
  • bThe study of coins
  • cThe study of palm leaves
  • dThe study of ocean animals
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Numismatics is the study of coins (and currency/medals).

98

Which of the following is not defined under Section 2 of the Limitation Act.

  • aBill of exchange
  • bBond
  • cCheque
  • dPromissory Note
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 2 of the Limitation Act, 1963 defines bond, bill of exchange and promissory note; 'cheque' is not separately defined (it is included within 'bill of exchange').

99

Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act provides that any property possessed by a

  • afull owner thereof and not as a limited owner
  • ba limited owner
  • ccustodian of the property
  • dnone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Hindu Succession Act Section 14(1) makes property possessed by a female Hindu held by her as full owner thereof and not as a limited owner.

Practise Gujarat Judiciary the smart way.

Free mock tests modelled on this exact paper pattern, plus the full Gujarat Judiciary preparation guide.

Open exam guide
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.