Himachal Pradesh Judiciary — Prelims 2018

Correct answer: A

Order XXXIX Rule 3-A CPC mandates that an application where an ex parte temporary injunction was granted be endeavoured to be disposed of within thirty days.

Correct answer: E

OCR/format-broken: options (b) and (d) are merely 'OR' connectors and the punishment clause is incomplete. Under Section 64 of the Indian Stamp Act (post-dating bills/notes to defraud Government of duty), the offence is punishable; option (e) carries the operative penal clause and is the best available choice.

Correct answer: C

Penalty for unauthorised dealing in stamps is imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to five hundred rupees, or both, under Section 69 of the Indian Stamp Act.

Correct answer: B

Section 71 of the Indian Stamp Act bars trial of offences under the Act by any Magistrate below a Presidency Magistrate or a Magistrate not less than the second class.

Correct answer: D

Section 2(2) of the Indian Stamp Act defines 'bill of exchange' as a bill of exchange as defined by the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, including a hundi.

Correct answer: B

The observations on the extensive meaning of 'lease' under Section 2(16) of the Stamp Act vis-a-vis Section 105 TP Act (including instruments letting tolls) were made in Nasiruddin v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (2018) 1 SCC 754.

Correct answer: C

Both propositions (admission on payment of duty plus penalty, and the unstamped-receipt rule) are contained in the provisos to Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act, so both (A) and (B) are correct.

Correct answer: B

Order XXI Rule 92(3) CPC creates a bar: once a sale is confirmed and the order rejecting the objection is unchallenged, the objector cannot bring a fresh suit to set aside the sale on the same ground.

Correct answer: A

This situation (Order 21 Rule 90 r/w Section 47, sale confirmed under Rule 92(1), finality) was dealt with in Siddagangaiah v. N.K. Giriraja Shetty, (2018) 7 SCC 278.

Correct answer: A

Section 88 CPC (interpleader suits) read with Order XXXV Rule 5 bars a tenant from filing an interpleader suit against his landlord; the embodying provision is Section 88.

Correct answer: C

Section 153-B CPC provides that the place of trial of any suit shall be deemed to be an open court.

Correct answer: D

Under Order XXI Rule 32 CPC a decree for restitution of conjugal rights may be enforced by attachment of property and, where the party wilfully fails, by detention in civil prison; the rule covers all these modes.

Correct answer: C

Section 91 CPC permits a suit in respect of a public nuisance/public right even without special damage, with the Advocate-General's or court's leave; it is the CPC analogue of a representative/public-interest suit.

Correct answer: B

Order XXXII Rule 4 CPC requires that a person be appointed guardian for the suit only with his consent in writing.

Correct answer: A

The proviso to Section 56 CPC prohibits arrest or detention of a woman in execution of a decree for the payment of money.

Correct answer: C

Order II Rule 2 CPC precludes a plaintiff who omits part of his claim arising from one cause of action from later suing for the omitted portion.

Correct answer: C

A judgment exercising matrimonial, probate, insolvency or admiralty jurisdiction operates against the world (in rem); money and injunction decrees bind only the parties (in personam).

Correct answer: C

Order XL Rule 5 CPC provides that the Collector may, with his consent, be appointed receiver where the property is land paying revenue to the Government.

Correct answer: B

In Anil Rai v. State of Bihar (2001), the Supreme Court held that inordinate delay in pronouncing judgment amounts to denial of justice and laid down guidelines for timely pronouncement.

Correct answer: B

Under Order V Rule 15 CPC, where the defendant is absent and cannot be found within reasonable time, service may be made on an adult member of the family (e.g., an adult son) residing with him; a servant is not such a member and a minor is excluded.

Correct answer: D

An auction-purchaser cannot apply to set aside the sale on the ground that the judgment-debtor had no saleable interest; the rule of caveat emptor applies and no refund/setting aside lies on that ground.

Correct answer: C

Section 96 CPC confers the right of appeal from original decrees.

Correct answer: B

Abatement of suits/proceedings (on death, marriage or insolvency of a party) is governed by Order XXII CPC.

Correct answer: A

Section 5 CPC deals with the application of the Code to Revenue Courts.

Correct answer: C

Order I Rule 3-A confers power to order separate trials where joinder of plaintiffs/defendants may embarrass or delay the trial; in this paper's scheme the intended provision is Order I Rule 3 governing joinder/separate trials of parties.

Correct answer: C

Objection to the place of suing / jurisdiction is dealt with under Section 21 CPC, which bars such objections unless taken at the earliest opportunity in the trial court.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 40 CPC, where a decree is sent for execution in another State, it is sent to and executed in such manner as prescribed by rules in force in the State in which the decree is sought to be executed, i.e., where it was sent for execution.

Correct answer: C

An injunction order operates in personam and binds only the parties to the suit, whereas an attachment operates against the property and binds not only the parties but also third parties dealing with it.

Correct answer: B

Muhammad Sharif v. Bande Ali (1911) concerns the presumption of death of a person not heard of for seven years; it relates to Sections 107 and 108 of the Evidence Act, not legitimacy.

Correct answer: A

M.C. Verghese v. T.J. Ponnan concerns privileged spousal communication under Section 122 Evidence Act, not confession; the other three (Pakala/Kottaya, etc.) relate to confessions.

Correct answer: C

It was in R. v. Abdullah that a dying declaration made by signs (the injured being unable to speak) was held valid.

Correct answer: A

The quoted bar on a barrister/pleader/vakil disclosing privileged client communications is Section 126 of the Indian Evidence Act, falling within the Sections 126 and 127 group on professional communications.

Correct answer: C

The Bill that became the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was drafted by Sir James Fitzjames Stephen.

Correct answer: B

Section 40 of the Evidence Act (previous judgments bar a second suit/trial) embodies the principle of res judicata.

Correct answer: B

Refreshing memory by a witness while under examination by reference to writing made at the time of the transaction is governed by Section 159 of the Indian Evidence Act.

Correct answer: D

Pawan Kumar v. State of Haryana, AIR 2001 SC 1324 dealt with the presumption of abetment of suicide by a married woman under Section 113A of the Evidence Act read with Section 498A IPC.

Correct answer: B

Secondary evidence is allowed when the original is of such a nature as not to be easily movable under Section 65(d) of the Evidence Act, which corresponds to option (b).

Correct answer: A

Section 154 of the Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 (Act 2 of 2006), inserting sub-section (2) on hostile-witness evidence, effective 2006.

Correct answer: B

A previous conviction is relevant under Explanation II to Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, which makes a previous conviction relevant as evidence of a relevant state of mind.

Correct answer: D

Section 132 (and its proviso) of the Evidence Act compels a witness to answer incriminating questions but grants immunity so that such compelled answers cannot subject him to arrest/prosecution, i.e., he cannot be converted into an accused.

Correct answer: C

In Kanpur University v. Samir Gupta (1983), the Supreme Court observed that even a student may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Evidence Act.

Correct answer: B

Section 14A, inserted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, empowers the court to engage one or more experts to assist it on any specific issue in a suit under the Act.

Correct answer: B

Partial cancellation of an instrument evidencing different rights/obligations, allowing it to stand for the residue, is provided under Section 32 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.

Correct answer: C

Section 6(3) of the Specific Relief Act expressly bars both appeal and review against an order/decree passed in a suit for recovery of possession under Section 6.

Correct answer: D

In a suit for specific performance, the plaintiff must aver and prove continuous readiness and willingness to perform his part of the contract (Section 16(c) SR Act).

Correct answer: B

Rectification of an instrument that, through fraud or mutual mistake, does not express the real intention of the parties is governed by Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.

Correct answer: B

A declaratory decree under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act binds only the parties to the suit and operates in personam (jus in personam), not as a judgment in rem.

Correct answer: B

Section 3 of the HP Courts Act, 1976 expressly establishes the Court of District Judge, Senior Civil Judge and Civil Judge; the Additional District Judge is not separately listed (an ADJ is included within 'District Judge').

Correct answer: C

The bar on appeal to the High Court from an Additional District Judge's decree where none would lie from a District Judge is contained in Section 20(2) of the HP Courts Act, 1976.

Correct answer: B

Section 25 of the HP Courts Act, 1976 lists rule-making for declaring petition writers, regulating their licences/conduct/fees, and the authority/penalties for breaches; 'engaging associates for petition writers' is not a stated purpose.

Correct answer: B

Sujata Sharma v. Manu Gupta (Delhi HC, 2016) held that the eldest female coparcener can act as Karta of an HUF following the 2005 amendment to the Hindu Succession Act.

Correct answer: A

In Class II of the Schedule (s.8 HSA), mother's father and mother's mother fall in Entry VIII, while mother's brother and mother's sister fall in Entry IX. An heir in an earlier entry excludes those in a later entry, so mother's father and mother's mother succeed.

Correct answer: A

Section 23 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 lays down the bars to matrimonial relief (e.g., petitioner not taking advantage of own wrong, no collusion, no unnecessary delay).

Correct answer: C

Interim maintenance and litigation expenses can be granted under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and also under Section 18 (read with the scheme) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956; hence both legislations provide such relief.

Correct answer: C

In Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar Chadha (AIR 1984 SC 1562) the Supreme Court finally upheld the constitutional validity of Section 9 HMA, disapproving the AP High Court's view in T. Sareetha.

Correct answer: D

Amardeep Singh v. Harveen Kaur (2017) held the cooling-off period under s.13B(2) HMA is directory, not mandatory, and may be waived by any court (not only the SC under Art.142) if the specified conditions are satisfied.

Correct answer: A

Under s.14(2) HSA (the exception to s.14(1)), a restricted estate created by a fresh grant such as a mere right to reside during lifetime does not blossom into absolute ownership, as no pre-existing right is being recognized (V. Tulasamma principle).

Correct answer: B

Match question with OCR-mangled lists. Section 12 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 bars appointment of a guardian for a minor's undivided interest in joint family property; step-father/step-mother exclusion is in the s.6 proviso. Best-fit pairing makes option (b) the intended key, but the matching codes are not legible.

Correct answer: C

S is legitimate under s.16 HMA despite the void marriage, making him A's son; s.11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act bars adopting a son when one already has a living son. The combined effect of both provisions invalidates the adoption.

Correct answer: B

Dr. N.G. Dastane v. Mrs. S. Dastane (AIR 1975 SC 1534) is a leading case on divorce/judicial separation, dealing with cruelty and the standard of proof in matrimonial proceedings.

Correct answer: C

A minor cannot be sued (agreement is void ab initio per Mohori Bibee), but he can be a beneficiary and enforce a contract in his favour. The contract is enforceable at the option of the minor, not the third party; hence the statement in (c) is false.

Correct answer: A

Display of goods with a price tag is only an invitation to offer, not an offer (Pharmaceutical Society v. Boots; Fisher v. Bell). The customer's tender is the offer, which the shopkeeper may refuse; A cannot force B to sell.

Correct answer: B

The two rules on remoteness of damage stated were laid down in Hadley v. Baxendale (1854), reflected in s.73 of the Indian Contract Act.

Correct answer: B

Balfour v. Balfour (1919) established that domestic/social agreements between spouses lack intention to create legal relations and are therefore not enforceable contracts.

Correct answer: D

Frustration (s.56) discharges a contract by supervening impossibility/illegality, but self-induced frustration caused by a party's own negligence or default does not operate to frustrate the contract.

Correct answer: B

Sale of goods is governed by the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (which was separated out of the Contract Act). Bailment, guarantee and indemnity remain within the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Correct answer: A

Under s.25 of the Indian Contract Act, an agreement without consideration is void (nudum pactum) unless, inter alia, it is in writing and registered and made out of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation.

Correct answer: B

The Indian Contract Act, 1872 came into force on 1st September 1872.

Correct answer: A

Section 41 of the Indian Contract Act deals with the effect of accepting performance of a promise from a third person, after which the promisee cannot afterwards enforce it against the promisor.

Correct answer: B

Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act renders void an agreement where both parties are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement (bilateral mistake).

Correct answer: B

The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with transfer of property by act of parties (inter vivos), as opposed to transfers by operation of law.

Correct answer: D

The doctrine of election is contained in Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

Correct answer: C

The principle of 'feeding the grant by estoppel' (transfer by an unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest in the property) is contained in Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

Correct answer: D

The rule against perpetuity (s.14 TPA) limits the perpetuity period to the lifetime of one or more living persons plus the minority of the unborn person (up to 18 years, the age of majority), not 21 years; none of the stated options is correct.

Correct answer: C

Section 58 TPA defines mortgage by conditional sale, usufructuary mortgage, English mortgage, simple mortgage, mortgage by deposit of title deeds and anomalous mortgage. There is no 'Indian mortgage'.

Correct answer: B

'License' is defined in Section 52 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882. The TPA and Contract Act do not define license.

Correct answer: A

Section 48 TPA embodies the priority maxim 'qui prior est tempore, potior est jure' (he who is earlier in time is stronger in law); a prior transferee's rights prevail over a subsequent dealing.

Correct answer: C

Doctrine of lis pendens (Section 52 TPA) requires a pending suit/proceeding in a competent court directly involving a specific immovable property; the essential ingredient among the options is that litigation must be pending in a court of competent jurisdiction. The suit need not be collusive (it must NOT be collusive).

Correct answer: C

A universal donee (Section 128 TPA) takes the whole property of the donor and is personally liable for all the donor's debts and liabilities existing at the time of the gift, to the extent of the property received.

Correct answer: A

OCR-broken matching question; only a header/partial pairs are shown without a clean code option. On the merits under Section 6 TPA: spes successionis = s.6(a), right of re-entry = s.6(b)/(c) area, easement (dominant heritage) = s.6(c), mere right to sue = s.6(e). The provided option pairings are scrambled and no answer code (1/2/3/4) is given; flagged as unanswerable as printed.

Correct answer: A

OCR-broken matching question with no clean code option. On the merits (Limitation Act 1963): suit in forma pauperis -> s.13; proceedings stayed by injunction -> s.15; defect in jurisdiction/bona fide proceeding in wrong court -> s.14; effect of fraud -> s.17. The list pairs shown are scrambled and no selectable code is printed; flagged.

Correct answer: D

Under Article 67, Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, a suit by a landlord to recover possession from a tenant has a limitation period of twelve years from when the tenancy is determined.

Correct answer: B

Under Article 100 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act 1963, a suit by a surety against a co-surety (for excess paid over his own share) is limited to three years from the date of payment.

Correct answer: D

Delay in filing a suit/appeal/application can be condoned under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 on showing sufficient cause (note: Section 5 ordinarily applies to appeals and applications, not plaints, but among the options Section 5 is the condonation provision).

Correct answer: C

Under Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act 1963, the 'time requisite' for obtaining a copy of the decree/order means the actual time taken (not the minimum theoretically necessary).

Correct answer: A

Section 17 of the Limitation Act 1963 postpones the period only where the suit/application is based on the fraud of the defendant (or his agent), or where the right of action/knowledge is concealed by such fraud.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act 1963, easementary rights (right to access/use of light, air, way, water, etc.) are acquired by peaceable, open enjoyment as an easement as of right, without interruption, for twenty years.

Correct answer: B

Section 27 of the Limitation Act 1963 is the exception: at the determination of the limitation period for a suit for possession, the right to the property itself is extinguished, not merely the remedy barred.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 12 of the Limitation Act 1963, in computing limitation for an appeal, the day from which the period is reckoned (day of pronouncement of judgment) and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree/order appealed from are excluded.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 19 of the Limitation Act 1963, where part payment of a debt is made before expiry of the period, a fresh period of limitation is computed from the time when the payment was made (provided it is in the handwriting of/signed by the payer).

Correct answer: A

Under Section 4 HPURCA 1987, fair rent is fixed taking into consideration the rent prevailing in the locality for a similar building or rented land.

Correct answer: A

Determination of 'Fair Rent' is provided under Section 4 of the HPURCA, 1987.

Correct answer: C

Under the Explanation to Section 14 HPURCA 1987, the order of succession is: (a) surviving spouse, (b) son or daughter, (c) parents, (d) daughter-in-law (widow of pre-deceased son). Hence: surviving spouse, son or daughter, parents, daughter-in-law.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 6 HPURCA 1987 ('Increase in fair rent in minor cases permissible'), once fair rent is fixed under Section 4, no further increase is permissible except in cases of additions/improvements to the building. Among the options, 'Additions' is the recognised statutory ground.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 9 HPURCA 1987, a sum paid which is not payable under the Act is recoverable by the tenant within a period of one year after the date of payment.

Correct answer: B

Matching question printed without a clean code option. Per the bare act: cutting off/withholding essential supply or service = Section 11; conversion of residential into non-residential building = Section 12; landlord's duty to keep building in good repairs = Section 13 (the List-II option 'Section 17' is incorrect/garbled). The List-II values shown (12, 11, 17) are scrambled and no selectable code is given; flagged as defective. Best guess maps conversion->Section 12.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 15 HPURCA 1987 the right to recover immediate possession accrues to a specified landlord on retirement, on retiring from the armed forces, and to the widow/widower on his death. It does NOT accrue to a person who is himself in occupation of residential premises allotted by the Central/State Government or a local authority (that person is the occupant against whom possession may be sought).

Correct answer: B

'Leases of vacant buildings' is provided under Section 19 of the HPURCA, 1987.

Correct answer: B

Leave to contest the application for eviction on the ground of bonafide requirement is provided under Section 16(5) of the HPURCA, 1987.

Correct answer: A

Under Section 15(3) HPURCA 1987, on default in refunding advance rent/other payment within 90 days of recovery of possession, the landlord is liable to pay simple interest at 9% per annum.

Correct answer: D

Carrying paddy without licence and being stopped 10 miles before delivery is mere preparation, not attempt (cf. Malkiat Singh v. State of Punjab); the other three are textbook IPC attempt illustrations (Ss.511, 307/511, 511 with impossible attempt).

Correct answer: C

The House of Lords answered the questions on the insanity defence in R. v. M'Naghten (1843), laying down the M'Naghten Rules embodied in S.84 IPC.

Correct answer: B

The Privy Council judgment in Mahboob Shah v. Emperor, AIR 1945 PC 118, on common intention under S.34 IPC, was delivered by Sir Madhavan Nair.

Correct answer: A

S.354 uses the gender-neutral term 'whoever' as offender, so a woman can also be liable; whereas Ss.354-A, 354-B and 354-C use 'man' as the offender and apply only to males.

Correct answer: D

Sowmithri Vishnu, Yusuf Abdul Aziz and Joseph Shine all concern adultery under S.497 IPC; Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra is an obscenity case under S.292 IPC (Lady Chatterley's Lover), unconnected to S.497.

Correct answer: D

Per the illustrations to S.19 IPC, a Magistrate having power only to commit a case for trial to another court is NOT a Judge; the other three are expressly Judges. So statement (d) is incorrect.

Correct answer: C

The five-judge bench in Navtej Singh Johar (2018) comprised CJI Dipak Misra, Nariman, Khanwilkar, Chandrachud and Indu Malhotra JJ. Justice R. Banumathi was not on the bench.

Correct answer: C

Close call; the recognised exception to the 'all accused physically present at the scene' requirement of S.34 is generally taken to lie in offences relating to marriage (e.g., bigamy) and cheating, where the act may be committed at a distance. Marked flagged as the intended key is debatable between property and marriage offences.

Correct answer: B

Criminal breach of trust under S.405 IPC requires entrustment, i.e., a lawful transfer of possession (entrustment) followed by dishonest misappropriation; entrustment is the core essential element.

Correct answer: B

Firing a loaded cannon into a crowd without excuse is murder under S.300 'Fourthly' (act imminently dangerous, must in all probability cause death, done without excuse) — illustration (d) to S.300 IPC.

Correct answer: D

Transportation for life was abolished and substituted by 'imprisonment for life' by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1955; it no longer exists among punishments under S.53 IPC.

Correct answer: D

Under S.107 IPC, abetment is by instigation, conspiracy, or intentional aiding. Merely supplying shelter, without intentional aid to facilitate the offence, does not amount to abetment.

Correct answer: C

Per Explanation 3 to S.299 IPC, causing the death of a child in the mother's womb is not homicide; it becomes homicide only if any part of the child is brought forth, though still in the womb.

Correct answer: B

In P. Rathinam v. Union of India (1994) the Supreme Court struck down S.309 IPC as violative of Article 21 (later overruled in Gian Kaur, 1996). Option (b) names this case.

Correct answer: A

Two persons fighting in a public place and disturbing the public peace constitutes an affray under S.159 IPC (which requires two or more persons fighting in a public place).

Correct answer: A

Under S.202 CrPC, where the offence is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, the Magistrate, while postponing issue of process, may direct an investigation by a police officer (or inquiry by himself) to decide whether there is sufficient ground for proceeding.

Correct answer: D

Under S.262(2) CrPC, in a summary trial no sentence of imprisonment exceeding three months shall be passed.

Correct answer: C

S.482 CrPC saves the inherent powers of the High Court.

Correct answer: C

Under S.221 CrPC, where it is doubtful which of several offences the facts will constitute, and the accused is charged with one (cheating) but proved to have committed another (criminal breach of trust), he may be convicted of the offence shown to have been committed (CBT) though not charged with it.

Correct answer: D

Power to transfer cases and appeals for the ends of justice vests in the Supreme Court (S.406), High Court (S.407) and Sessions Judge (S.408) CrPC. The Chief Judicial Magistrate has no such transfer power.

Correct answer: A

Ss.357-B, 357-C and 198-B CrPC were inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013. S.265-C (plea bargaining) was inserted earlier, by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005, not by the 2013 Act.

Correct answer: C

Under S.12(2) CrPC, the High Court may appoint any Judicial Magistrate of the first class to be an Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate.

Correct answer: B

Under S.107 CrPC, an Executive Magistrate, on receiving information that a person is likely to commit a breach of the peace or disturb public tranquillity, may require him to show cause why he should not execute a bond for keeping the peace.

Correct answer: A

Per the table under S.320 CrPC, theft (S.379 IPC) is compoundable by the owner of the property stolen.

Correct answer: D

Under S.2(x) CrPC, a 'warrant-case' is one relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding two years. An offence punishable with imprisonment not exceeding two years is a summons-case, hence excluded.

Correct answer: A

The rule against double jeopardy / autrefois acquit-convict in the CrPC is embodied in Section 300 ('Person once convicted or acquitted not to be tried for same offence').

Correct answer: C

Under Section 468(2)(c) CrPC, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment exceeding one year but not exceeding three years, the limitation period for taking cognizance is three years.

Correct answer: B

In a summons-case (Chapter XX, Ss. 251 ff.), no formal charge is framed; the substance of the accusation is merely stated to the accused. Warrant-cases and sessions trials require a formal charge.

Correct answer: B

Section 164 CrPC empowers any Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate to record confessions/statements; a police officer cannot, and the Magistrate need not have jurisdiction in the case.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 41(1) CrPC a police officer may arrest without warrant a person who is concerned in a cognizable offence or against whom a reasonable complaint/credible information/reasonable suspicion exists. The seven-year qualifier in (d) is not a precondition to all arrests, so the composite (c) is the best answer.

Correct answer: B

Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act prescribes imprisonment up to two years, or fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque, or both.

Correct answer: C

Section 138 NIA is a strict-liability offence; mens rea / guilty intent at the time of drawing the cheque is NOT an ingredient. The other options (presentation, dishonour, statutory notice, failure to pay within 15 days) are the true ingredients.

Correct answer: B

Section 139 NIA raises the presumption in favour of the holder that the cheque was received for the discharge of a debt or liability.

Correct answer: D

The Explanation to Section 141 NIA defines 'company' to mean any body corporate and includes a firm or other association of individuals; a person merely acting as a banker is not within that definition.

Correct answer: B

Section 142 NIA provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence under Section 138 except upon a written complaint made by the payee or holder in due course; there is no suo motu cognizance and the bar on second-class magistrates is the opposite of the statute.

Correct answer: D

Under the HP Excise Act, 2011, 'beer' is defined in Section 2(a), i.e. clause (a).

Correct answer: D

Under the HP Excise Act, 2011 a 'permit' is the written authority/NOC for import, export or transport of liquor (distinct from a 'licence', which authorises manufacture/sale). Option (d) best captures the permit (import/transport authority issued by the appropriate authority). Flagged: option wording is imprecise as to issuing officer.

Correct answer: C

Cancellation/suspension of licence under the Excise Act is for breaches such as transfer/subletting without permission, non-payment of duty, or conviction for an excise offence. A licensee being elected to the Legislative Assembly or a local body is not a ground for cancellation.

Correct answer: A

Section 39 HP Excise Act, 2011 prescribes the enhanced minimum punishment (imprisonment not less than three years and fine not less than one lakh rupees) where the import/export/transport involves country liquor exceeding forty-five litres (or foreign liquor exceeding forty-five litres).

Correct answer: C

Under Section 53 HP Excise Act, 2011, consuming liquor in an unlicensed public place is punishable with fine not less than one thousand and which may extend to five thousand rupees.

Correct answer: A

Section 2(39) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 defines 'zoo' to include rescue centres and dealers' establishments but expressly EXCLUDES a circus.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 8 of the WLPA, the State Board for Wild Life advises on policy, selection/management of protected areas, and harmonising tribal/forest-dweller needs with conservation. Selection of forest guards is an administrative/recruitment function, not a duty of the Board.

Correct answer: C

Under Chapter VI-A WLPA, 'relative' means the spouse, brother/sister, and any lineal ascendant or descendant of the person or spouse. A servant working for the spouse is not a 'relative'.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 60A WLPA, where the court imposes a sentence of fine, it may order a reward, out of the fine, not exceeding fifty per cent of such fine, to a person who renders assistance in detection of the offence or apprehension of offenders.

Correct answer: B

Section 60B WLPA empowers the Chief Wild Life Warden (when so empowered by the State Government) to order payment of a reward (up to ten thousand rupees) for assistance in detection of the offence or apprehension of the offender.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 26 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927, acts such as setting fire, pasturing cattle, and quarrying stone in a reserved forest are prohibited/penalised. Mere worship of sacred trees is not a prohibited act.

Correct answer: B

Section 33 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927 punishes felling/lopping/burning a tree reserved under Section 30 with imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to five hundred rupees, or both.

Correct answer: C

Section 8 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927 vests the Forest Settlement-officer with the powers of a Civil Court in the trial of suits (along with power to enter, survey and demarcate land).

Correct answer: C

Section 62 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927 punishes a Forest/Police officer who vexatiously and unnecessarily seizes property (wrongful seizure) with imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to five hundred rupees, or both.

Correct answer: C

'Forest-produce' is defined in Section 2(4) of the Indian Forest Act, 1927, i.e. clause (4).