Karnataka Judiciary Mock Test 4 — Questions & Solutions
Every question from this prelims mock with the correct answer and a detailed, source-backed solution. Free to read. Want the real exam feel — a timer, instant scoring, and a subject-wise weakness report? Take it as a test.
100
Questions
12
Subjects
+ solutions
Every question
Take this as a timed mock test — instant score + subject-wise analytics. First mock free, then ₹999/year for unlimited.
A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure lies only when the case involves
aa question of fact wrongly decided by the first appellate court
ba substantial question of law
cfresh evidence not produced earlier
da concurrent finding of two courts below
Answer: B
Section 100 CPC permits a second appeal to the High Court only where the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated by the court.
A caveat lodged under Section 148A of the Code of Civil Procedure remains in force for
a30 days from the date of lodging it
buntil the suit is finally disposed of
c90 days from the date of lodging it
d60 days from the date of lodging it
Answer: C
Under Section 148A(5) CPC a caveat remains in force for 90 days from the date on which it was lodged, unless the application apprehended is made earlier.
A summary suit under Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure can be instituted in
aonly the Court which would try the suit as a regular suit
bevery civil court irrespective of pecuniary jurisdiction
cthe Court of the District Judge alone
dHigh Courts, City Civil Courts, Courts of Small Causes and any other court notified by the High Court
Answer: D
Order XXXVII Rule 1 CPC makes the summary procedure applicable to High Courts, City Civil Courts, Courts of Small Causes, and other courts specially notified by the High Court.
For the purpose of Order XXXIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, where no court fee is prescribed, a person is 'indigent' if he is not entitled to property worth more than
arupees five thousand apart from exempt property and the subject-matter of suit
brupees ten thousand apart from exempt property and the subject-matter of suit
crupees five hundred apart from exempt property and the subject-matter of suit
drupees one thousand apart from exempt property and the subject-matter of suit
Answer: D
Under Explanation I to Order XXXIII Rule 1 CPC, where no fee is prescribed, a person is indigent if not entitled to property worth one thousand rupees, excluding exempt property and the subject-matter of the suit.
Where an appeal from an original or appellate decree is heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court, Section 100A of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that
aa Letters Patent Appeal lies to a Division Bench
ban appeal lies only with the leave of the Single Judge
cno further appeal shall lie from the judgment of such Single Judge
da revision lies to the Supreme Court
Answer: C
Section 100A CPC, by its non-obstante clause, overrides the Letters Patent and bars any further intra-court appeal from a judgment of a Single Judge deciding an appeal.
An appeal against orders specified in the Code of Civil Procedure (such as an order under Order XXXIX granting or refusing temporary injunction) lies under
aSection 100 of the Code
bOrder XLI Rule 1
cSection 96(4) of the Code
dOrder XLIII Rule 1
Answer: D
Section 104 read with Order XLIII Rule 1 CPC enumerates the orders from which an appeal lies, including orders under Order XXXIX granting or refusing a temporary injunction.
The power of the court to enlarge the time fixed for doing any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, even after the period originally fixed has expired, is contained in
aSection 149 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 152 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: C
Section 148 CPC empowers the court to enlarge the time appointed by the Code for doing an act, up to a total of thirty days, even where the period originally fixed has expired.
Where a plaintiff has paid deficient court fee on the plaint, the court may allow him to make good the deficiency under
aSection 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bOrder VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 149 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: D
Section 149 CPC empowers the court, in its discretion, to allow a party to pay the whole or part of any deficit court fee at a later stage, whereupon the document is treated as if the fee had been paid initially.
The doctrine of res judicata, which bars a court from trying a suit or issue already finally decided between the same parties, is embodied in
aOrder II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: B
Section 11 CPC enacts the rule of res judicata, barring a court from trying any suit or issue that has been directly and substantially in issue and finally decided in a former suit between the same parties.
The Code of Civil Procedure bars a court from proceeding with the trial of a suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit pending between the same parties. This rule of stay of suit is found in
aSection 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 12 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: A
Section 10 CPC (res sub judice) requires a court to stay the trial of a subsequently instituted suit where the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted pending suit between the same parties.
The High Court may call for the record of a case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested. This power of revision is conferred by
aSection 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: B
Section 115 CPC confers revisional jurisdiction on the High Court over subordinate courts in cases where no appeal lies and the court has acted in excess of, or failed to exercise, its jurisdiction.
A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure lies
aon a question of fact only
bon a question of law or a mixed question of fact and law
conly if the case involves a substantial question of law
das a matter of right against every appellate decree
Answer: C
After the 1976 amendment, Section 100 permits a second appeal only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be framed under Section 100(4).
Where a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, the provision under which a party may apply to be placed in the position he would have occupied but for the decree so reversed is
aSection 151 (inherent powers)
bSection 144 (restitution)
cSection 152 (correction of clerical errors)
dSection 47 (questions in execution)
Answer: B
Section 144 provides for restitution: on reversal or variation of a decree, the court of first instance shall, on application, cause restitution to restore the parties to their former position.
Under Order XXIII Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a lawful compromise of a suit is recorded by the court only when the agreement or compromise is
aapproved by the mediator referred under Section 89
boral and admitted by both parties before the court
cin writing and signed by the parties
dattested by two witnesses and registered
Answer: C
Order XXIII Rule 3 requires that the agreement or compromise be in writing and signed by the parties before the court can record it and pass a decree in accordance therewith.
On the death of one of several defendants, where the right to sue survives, the application to bring the legal representatives of the deceased defendant on record is made under
aOrder XXII Rule 3
bOrder XXII Rule 4
cOrder XXII Rule 9
dOrder I Rule 10
Answer: B
Order XXII Rule 4 governs the procedure on the death of a defendant, requiring the legal representatives to be made parties so that the suit may proceed where the right to sue survives.
In a suit of a nature cognizable by a Court of Small Causes where the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed ten thousand rupees, an appeal from the decree under Section 96 CPC
alies only on a question of law
blies on questions of both fact and law
cdoes not lie at all in any circumstance
dlies only with the prior leave of the appellate court
Answer: A
Under Section 96(4) CPC, no appeal lies, except on a question of law, from a decree in a suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes when the value of the subject-matter does not exceed ten thousand rupees.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, all trials, inquiries and proceedings, including issue and service of summons and warrants, examination of witnesses and recording of evidence, may be held by use of electronic communication or audio-video electronic means by virtue of
aSection 173
bSection 105
cSection 356
dSection 530
Answer: D
Section 530 BNSS is the enabling provision allowing trials, inquiries and proceedings (summons, warrants, examination of witnesses, recording of evidence and appellate proceedings) to be conducted in electronic mode.
Under Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in respect of offences relating to rape of a woman or sexual offences against children (such as under Sections 64 to 71 BNS or POCSO), the investigation shall be completed within
afifteen days
bsix months
cthirty days
dtwo months from the date of recording of the information
Answer: D
Section 193(1) BNSS requires that investigation into the specified sexual offences be completed within two months from the date on which the information was recorded by the officer in charge.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the duty of the Magistrate to supply, free of cost, copies of the police report and other documents to the accused and to the victim is provided in
aSection 230
bSection 207
cSection 173
dSection 251
Answer: A
Section 230 BNSS (corresponding to Sections 207/208 of the old CrPC) requires the Magistrate to furnish copies of the police report and connected documents to the accused and, for the first time expressly, to the victim, within fourteen days.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may be given orally or by electronic communication to the officer in charge of a police station
aonly in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for life
birrespective of the area where the offence is committed
conly after obtaining permission of the jurisdictional Magistrate
donly if the offence was committed within the local jurisdiction of that police station
Answer: B
Section 173(1) BNSS gives statutory recognition to the 'Zero FIR' by permitting information of a cognizable offence to be given irrespective of the area where the offence is committed. Information given by electronic communication must be signed by the informant within three days.
Under Section 35(7) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no arrest of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, shall be made without
athe prior written sanction of the State Government
bthe prior permission of the jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate
cissuing a proclamation under Section 84
dthe prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
Answer: D
Section 35(7) BNSS is a new protective provision requiring prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police before arresting an infirm person or one above sixty years for an offence punishable with less than three years' imprisonment.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a 'warrant-case' means a case relating to an offence punishable with
aimprisonment for a term exceeding one year
bdeath or imprisonment for life only
cdeath, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
dimprisonment for a term exceeding three years
Answer: C
Section 2(1)(z) BNSS defines a 'warrant-case' as a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years; a 'summons-case' is any case which is not a warrant-case.
On receipt of information relating to an offence punishable for seven years or more, the officer in charge of the police station shall, under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, cause
athe accused to be produced before the Sessions Court within 24 hours
ba forensic expert to visit the crime scene and videograph the process of evidence collection
cthe complaint to be referred to the Director of Prosecution
dan immediate arrest of all named persons without warrant
Answer: B
Section 176(3) BNSS is a new provision making it mandatory, for offences punishable with seven years or more, that a forensic expert visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and that the process be videographed on a mobile phone or other electronic device.
Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention authorising default bail, where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term not less than ten years, is
a30 days
b180 days
c90 days
d60 days
Answer: C
Under Section 187(3) BNSS the magistrate may authorise detention up to 90 days for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of not less than ten years, and up to 60 days for other offences; on expiry, the accused is entitled to default (statutory) bail.
The recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate during investigation is governed under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 by
aSection 161
bSection 180
cSection 164
dSection 183
Answer: D
Section 183 BNSS provides for the recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate, corresponding to Section 164 of the old CrPC. The provision additionally allows such recording by audio-video electronic means.
An order for maintenance of wives, children and parents, formerly under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, is now contained in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 in
aSection 125
bSection 223
cSection 144
dSection 138
Answer: C
Section 144 BNSS provides for an order for maintenance of wives, children and parents, corresponding to Section 125 of the old CrPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, when a Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence on a complaint, the provision requiring him to examine the complainant and the witnesses present upon oath is
aSection 223
bSection 200
cSection 210
dSection 190
Answer: A
Section 223 BNSS requires the Magistrate taking cognizance of a complaint to examine the complainant and witnesses on oath. A proviso adds that the accused shall be given an opportunity of being heard before cognizance is taken.
The provisions relating to plea bargaining are contained in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 in
aSections 289 to 300
bSections 230 to 240
cSections 265A to 265L
dSections 320 to 327
Answer: A
Plea bargaining is dealt with in Chapter XXIII of the BNSS, comprising Sections 289 to 300, corresponding to the old CrPC's Chapter XXIA (Sections 265A-265L).
Anything done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge, in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution, is exempted from criminal liability under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 by
aSection 23
bSection 18
cSection 14
dSection 26
Answer: B
Section 18 BNS is the general exception of accident in doing a lawful act, corresponding to the former Section 80 IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the maximum punishment for causing death of any person by doing a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide (excluding a registered medical practitioner and a hit-and-run case) is imprisonment which may extend to
afive years
btwo years
cseven years
dten years
Answer: A
Section 106(1) BNS punishes such rash or negligent causing of death with imprisonment of either description which may extend to five years, and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if the act were done by him alone. This principle of joint liability is contained in
aSection 3(5)
bSection 190
cSection 189
dSection 61
Answer: A
Section 3(5) BNS embodies the principle of common intention (formerly Section 34 IPC), fastening joint liability on each participant in furtherance of the common intention.
Emasculation, permanent privation of the sight of either eye, and fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth are enumerated, under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, as kinds of
acriminal force
bgrievous hurt
csimple hurt
dassault
Answer: B
Section 116 BNS designates eight categories of hurt, including emasculation, permanent loss of sight of an eye and fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth, as grievous hurt.
Following the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, attempt to commit suicide is punishable only in a limited situation, namely where the attempt is made with intent to
aabet the suicide of another person
bescape lawful arrest
cdefraud an insurer
dcompel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty
Answer: D
Section 226 BNS punishes attempt to commit suicide only where it is done with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty.
Dishonest misappropriation or conversion to one's own use of movable property belonging to another is dealt with, under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, by
aSection 318 (cheating)
bSection 316 (criminal breach of trust)
cSection 314 (criminal misappropriation of property)
dSection 303 (theft)
Answer: C
Section 314 BNS punishes dishonest misappropriation or conversion to one's own use of movable property, distinct from criminal breach of trust under Section 316.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of culpable homicide is defined in
aSection 103
bSection 100
cSection 101
dSection 105
Answer: B
Section 100 BNS defines culpable homicide; Section 101 then sets out when culpable homicide amounts to murder. The substance corresponds to the old Sections 299 and 300 IPC.
Where a murder is committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, under Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 each member of the group shall be punished with
aimprisonment for life only
bimprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years and fine
cdeath only
ddeath or imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term not less than seven years, and fine
Answer: D
Section 103(2) BNS introduces a distinct punishment for mob/group killing on the listed discriminatory grounds: death, or life imprisonment, or imprisonment of not less than seven years, with fine.
Whoever commits culpable homicide not amounting to murder, where the act is done with the intention of causing death, shall under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 be punished with
aimprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term not less than five years but which may extend to ten years, and fine
bdeath or imprisonment for life and fine
cimprisonment for a term not less than seven years
dimprisonment up to three years or fine or both
Answer: A
Section 105 BNS prescribes, for the first limb, imprisonment for life or imprisonment of not less than five years extending to ten years, together with fine.
Under the Constitution of India, the power of the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment, including in cases where the sentence is a sentence of death, is conferred by
aArticle 74
bArticle 72
cArticle 53
dArticle 161
Answer: B
Article 72 vests in the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment, and this power extends to all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death. The corresponding power of a Governor under Article 161 does not extend to pardoning a death sentence.
An arrested person, who is not held under any law providing for preventive detention, must be produced before the nearest Magistrate, under Article 22(2) of the Constitution of India,
awithin 24 hours of arrest, including the time necessary for the journey
bwithin 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate
cwithin a reasonable time as the police officer may consider fit
dwithin 48 hours of arrest in all cases
Answer: B
Article 22(2) requires that an arrested person be produced before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, and this period expressly excludes the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's court.
Under the Constitution of India, no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a period longer than three months unless
athe detenu consents in writing to the continued detention
ban Advisory Board has reported, before the expiry of three months, that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention
cthe High Court grants prior sanction for the detention
dthe State Government extends the detention by a notification
Answer: B
Under Article 22(4), detention beyond three months under a preventive detention law is not permissible unless an Advisory Board has, before the expiry of that period, reported that there is sufficient cause for the detention.
The office of the Attorney-General for India, who is appointed by the President to give advice to the Government of India upon legal matters, is provided for under
aArticle 165
bArticle 76
cArticle 124
dArticle 148
Answer: B
Article 76 empowers the President to appoint a person qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court as the Attorney-General for India, whose duty is to advise the Government of India on legal matters. Article 165 deals with the Advocate-General for a State.
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, who is appointed by the President and can be removed only in the manner prescribed for a Judge of the Supreme Court, holds office under
aArticle 76
bArticle 324
cArticle 280
dArticle 148
Answer: D
Article 148 provides for the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, his appointment by the President and his removal only on the like grounds and in the like manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
The superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State, and of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President, is vested in the Election Commission by
aArticle 324
bArticle 280
cArticle 315
dArticle 338
Answer: A
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of elections to Parliament, to State Legislatures, and to the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission.
A Bill which contains only provisions dealing with the imposition or alteration of any tax, the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India, or the custody of that Fund, is a Money Bill within the meaning of
aArticle 110
bArticle 109
cArticle 112
dArticle 117
Answer: A
Article 110 defines a Money Bill as one containing only provisions dealing with matters such as the imposition or alteration of a tax, appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, and the custody of that Fund.
A Money Bill, within the meaning of the Constitution of India,
arequires the prior recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
bcan be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States
ccan be introduced only in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
dcan be introduced in either House of Parliament
Answer: B
Under Article 109 read with Article 110, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People; the Council of States can only make recommendations, which the House of the People may accept or reject.
The power of a Governor of a State to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature is provided for under
aArticle 200
bArticle 123
cArticle 213
dArticle 356
Answer: C
Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances when the Legislature of the State is not in session. Article 123 confers the analogous power on the President in respect of Parliament.
An Ordinance promulgated by the Governor under Article 213 of the Constitution of India shall cease to operate at the expiration of
asix months from the date of its promulgation
bsix weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature
ctwo months from the reassembly of the Legislature
done year from the date of its promulgation
Answer: B
Under Article 213, an Ordinance ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the State Legislature (or earlier, if a resolution disapproving it is passed).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, for the proof of any fact
ano particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required
bat least two witnesses are required
cthe number of witnesses is fixed by the trial court
dat least three witnesses are required in criminal cases
Answer: A
Section 139 of the BSA, 2023 provides that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact, embodying the principle that evidence is weighed, not counted.
Under the order of examinations prescribed by Section 143 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a witness is
afirst examined-in-chief, then cross-examined (if the adverse party so desires), then re-examined (if the party calling him so desires)
bexamined in any order the witness chooses
cexamined only in chief, cross-examination being barred
dfirst cross-examined, then examined-in-chief, then re-examined
Answer: A
Section 143 of the BSA, 2023 sets the sequence as examination-in-chief, then cross-examination if the adverse party so desires, and then re-examination if the party calling the witness so desires.
Under Section 146 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a leading question
ais a question to which the witness has no answer
bcan never be asked in cross-examination
cmust always be allowed in examination-in-chief
dis one which suggests the answer the questioner wishes to receive, and cannot, if objected to, be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination except with the Court's permission
Answer: D
Section 146 of the BSA, 2023 defines a leading question as one suggesting the answer the person putting it wishes or expects, and bars it in examination-in-chief and re-examination if objected to, save with the Court's permission.
Under the BSA, 2023, when so much of information received from an accused in police custody as distinctly relates to the fact thereby discovered is allowed to be proved, such a provision is contained in
aSection 26
bSection 22 in full
cSection 24
dthe proviso to Section 23(2)
Answer: D
The discovery-of-fact doctrine (old Section 27) is preserved in the proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023, permitting proof of so much information as distinctly relates to the fact discovered.
A statement made by a deceased person as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death (dying declaration) is rendered relevant under the BSA, 2023 by
aSection 60
bSection 26
cSection 45
dSection 32
Answer: B
Statements by persons who cannot be called as witnesses, including the dying declaration, are dealt with in Section 26 of the BSA, 2023 (formerly Section 32 of the Evidence Act).
Under the BSA, 2023, the opinion of a person specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, or in identity of handwriting or finger impressions is a relevant fact under
aSection 39
bSection 45
cSection 47
dSection 51
Answer: A
Opinions of experts, formerly Section 45 of the Evidence Act, are now contained in Section 39 of the BSA, 2023.
Under the BSA, 2023, a confession made by an accused person is irrelevant in a criminal proceeding if the making of it appears to the Court to have been caused by
athe discovery of a material fact
ba voluntary statement before a Magistrate
chis own free will after legal advice
dany inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from a person in authority
Answer: D
Section 22 of the BSA, 2023 (formerly Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act) renders a confession irrelevant if caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise having reference to the charge and proceeding from a person in authority.
Under the BSA, 2023, electronic record evidence printed on paper or stored in optical/magnetic media, produced by a computer or communication device, is admissible as a document only if accompanied by a certificate as required by
aSection 65B
bSection 57
cSection 63
dSection 45A
Answer: C
Section 63 of the BSA, 2023 governs admissibility of electronic records (formerly Section 65B of the Evidence Act), and Section 63(4) requires the accompanying certificate.
Under the BSA, 2023, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing a case within any of the General Exceptions in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita lies
aupon the accused, and the Court shall presume the absence of such circumstances
bupon neither party
cupon the Court suo motu
dupon the prosecution
Answer: A
Section 105 of the BSA, 2023 places the burden of proving a General Exception on the accused, with the Court presuming the absence of such circumstances.
Choose the word which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'FRUGAL'.
aPrudent
bThrifty
cExtravagant
dEconomical
Answer: C
'Frugal' means sparing or economical in spending; its antonym is 'extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish. The other options are synonyms of frugal.
Q67General Knowledge / Reasoning
In a row of students facing North, Ravi is 7th from the left end and 18th from the right end. How many students are there in the row?
a24
b26
c25
d23
Answer: A
The total number equals (position from left) + (position from right) - 1 = 7 + 18 - 1 = 24.
Q68General Knowledge / Reasoning
Choose the correctly spelt word.
aPriviledge
bPrivilage
cPrivilege
dPrivelege
Answer: C
The correct spelling is 'privilege', from the Latin 'privilegium'; it has no 'd' and the second vowel is 'e'.
Q69General Knowledge / Reasoning
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times of itself at the same rate?
a32 years
b16 years
c24 years
d20 years
Answer: C
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years, so the rate is 12.5% per annum. To become four times, the interest must be three times the principal, requiring 3 x 8 = 24 years.
Q70General Knowledge / Reasoning
Justice Vibhu Bakhru, who took oath in July 2025, holds which office?
aChief Justice of India
bChief Justice of the High Court of Karnataka
cGovernor of Karnataka
dAdvocate General of Karnataka
Answer: B
Justice Vibhu Bakhru was sworn in as the Chief Justice of the High Court of Karnataka on 19 July 2025, having earlier been a judge of the Delhi High Court.
Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025?
aJustice B. R. Gavai
bJustice Surya Kant
cJustice D. Y. Chandrachud
dJustice Vibhu Bakhru
Answer: B
Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding CJI B. R. Gavai, and is to hold office until 9 February 2027.
Droupadi Murmu was sworn in as the 15th President of India on 25 July 2022 and continues in office in 2026; she is the first person from a tribal community to hold the office.
Where a person erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property and professes to transfer it for consideration, and he subsequently acquires an interest in that property, the transfer
abecomes valid only on re-registration
boperates, at the option of the transferee, on the interest so acquired
cremains void notwithstanding the subsequent acquisition
dcan be enforced only with the transferor's fresh consent
Answer: B
Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act (feeding the grant by estoppel) provides that the transfer shall, at the option of the transferee, operate on the interest the transferor subsequently acquires.
A transfers his farm to B on condition that B shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The interest created in B's favour
afails because the condition is impossible
btakes effect with the impossible condition ignored
cis voidable at the option of A
dis valid and the condition must be performed
Answer: A
Under Section 25 of the Transfer of Property Act, an interest dependent upon a condition fails if fulfilment of the condition is impossible; the statutory illustration uses this very example.
The doctrine of election under the Transfer of Property Act rests on the principle that
aa person may approbate and reprobate the same instrument
belection is required only where three or more properties are offered
ca person who takes a benefit under an instrument must also bear its burden
da transferee may always retain a benefit and reject an obligation
Answer: C
Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act embodies the doctrine of election: one who takes a benefit under an instrument must also bear the burden, and cannot take under and against the same instrument.
A lease of immovable property under Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act is a transfer of
aa mere licence to use the property
ba right to enjoy the property for a certain time or in perpetuity for consideration
cownership of the property absolutely
dan interest by way of security for a debt
Answer: B
Section 105 defines a lease as a transfer of a right to enjoy immovable property for a certain time, express or implied, or in perpetuity, in consideration of a premium or rent.
A lease of immovable property from year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent, can be made only by
aa writing attested by two witnesses but unregistered
ban oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
can unregistered writing signed by the lessee
da registered instrument
Answer: D
Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act requires a lease from year to year, or for a term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent, to be made by a registered instrument.
In an English mortgage under Section 58(e) of the Transfer of Property Act, the mortgagor
abinds himself personally without transferring any interest
bdelivers possession to the mortgagee and authorises him to retain it
ctransfers the property absolutely to the mortgagee subject to a proviso for re-transfer on payment
dmerely deposits title deeds with the mortgagee
Answer: C
In an English mortgage the mortgagor transfers the property absolutely to the mortgagee with a covenant to repay on a certain date and a proviso that on repayment the property shall be re-transferred.
bthe donor and donee agreed that on the happening of a specified event not depending on the donor's will the gift shall be revoked
cthe donee fails to maintain the donor, in every case
dthe donor unilaterally changes his mind after delivery
Answer: B
Under Section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, a gift may be revoked if donor and donee agree it shall be revoked on the happening of a specified event not depending on the donor's will; a gift revocable at the mere will of the donor is void.
A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called a contract of indemnity under
aSection 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
bSection 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
cSection 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
dSection 182 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
Answer: C
Section 124 defines a contract of indemnity as one to save the other from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor himself or any other person.
Where a guaranteed debt has become due and the surety, upon payment of all that he is liable for, is invested with all the rights which the creditor had against the principal debtor. This right is provided under
aSection 135 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
bSection 140 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
cSection 133 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
dSection 141 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
Answer: B
Section 140 embodies the surety's right of subrogation; on payment the surety is invested with all the rights the creditor had against the principal debtor.
The delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them, is defined as 'bailment' under
aSection 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
bSection 182 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
cSection 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
dSection 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
Answer: A
Section 148 defines bailment as the delivery of goods for a purpose on a contract that they be returned or disposed of as directed once the purpose is accomplished.
Under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract
ais always fixed at the value of the consideration
bcan never include loss which the parties knew was likely to result
cis given for any remote and indirect loss sustained by reason of the breach
dis not to be given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach
Answer: D
The Explanation to Section 73 provides that compensation is not to be given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach.
Under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018), which of the following contracts can be specifically enforced?
aA contract for the sale of immovable property where the plaintiff is ready and willing to perform
bA contract so dependent on the personal qualifications of the parties that the court cannot enforce its material terms
cA contract whose performance involves a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
dA contract where the party has already obtained substituted performance under Section 20
Answer: A
Section 14 lists categories that cannot be specifically enforced; options (a), (b) and (d) fall within those bars. An ordinary contract for sale of immovable property, with readiness and willingness shown, remains specifically enforceable.
In a suit for specific performance of a contract, the requirement that the plaintiff has performed or has always been ready and willing to perform the essential terms of the contract is contained in
aSection 12
bSection 19
cSection 16(c)
dSection 22
Answer: C
Section 16(c) bars specific performance to a plaintiff who fails to prove that he has performed or has always been ready and willing to perform the essential terms of the contract.
The provision introduced by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, enabling a party suffering a breach to get the contract performed by a third party or his own agency and to recover the cost from the defaulting party, is
aSection 12 (specific performance of part)
bSection 15 (who may obtain specific performance)
cSection 21 (damages in addition to specific performance)
dSection 20 (substituted performance)
Answer: D
The 2018 Amendment substituted Section 20 to provide for substituted performance, exercisable after a written notice of not less than thirty days to the defaulting party.
Before availing the remedy of substituted performance under Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the party suffering the breach must give the defaulting party a written notice of not less than
aninety days
bfifteen days
cthirty days
dsixty days
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 20(1) requires a written notice of not less than thirty days calling upon the defaulting party to perform before substituted performance may be obtained.
Section 20A, inserted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, provides that no injunction shall be granted by a court in a suit
arelating to a contract for an infrastructure project where the injunction would impede or delay its progress or completion
brelating to any contract for the sale of agricultural land
cfor cancellation of a registered instrument
dfor recovery of possession of immovable property
Answer: A
Section 20A bars a court from granting an injunction in a suit relating to a contract for an infrastructure project specified in the Schedule, where the injunction would cause impediment or delay in its progress or completion.
Under Section 20B of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, Special Courts to try suits relating to contracts for infrastructure projects are designated by
athe High Court on the administrative side alone
bthe Supreme Court by order
cthe Central Government alone by notification
dthe State Government, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification
Answer: D
Section 20B empowers the State Government, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, to designate one or more Civil Courts as Special Courts by notification in the Official Gazette.
Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 raises a presumption, until the contrary is proved, that the holder of a cheque received it
afor the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability
bby way of security only
cwithout the knowledge of the drawer
das a gift without consideration
Answer: A
Section 139 directs the court to presume, unless the contrary is proved, that the holder of a cheque received it for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability.
Under Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, every offence punishable under the Act is
acompoundable
bnon-compoundable
ccognizable and non-bailable
dtriable only by a Court of Session
Answer: A
Section 147, notwithstanding anything in the Code of Criminal Procedure, declares every offence punishable under the Negotiable Instruments Act to be compoundable.
Under Section 4 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, an instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking signed by the maker to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of, a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument is
aa bill of exchange
ba hundi
ca promissory note
da cheque
Answer: C
Section 4 defines a promissory note as a written instrument containing an unconditional undertaking, signed by the maker, to pay a certain sum to or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer. The undertaking is by the maker himself, distinguishing it from a bill of exchange (an order to a third person).
Where the landlord refuses to accept rent or there is a bona fide doubt as to whom rent is payable, the tenant may, under the Karnataka Rent Act, 1999, deposit the rent and other charges with the
aDeputy Commissioner of the district
bSub-Registrar of the local area
cCivil Judge having jurisdiction
dController, under Section 17
Answer: D
Section 17 allows a tenant to deposit rent and other charges with the Controller in the prescribed manner where the landlord refuses or neglects to accept rent or there is a bona fide doubt as to the person entitled to receive it.
Under Section 18 of the Karnataka Rent Act, 1999, a deposit of rent made with the Controller under Section 17 is treated as validly made only if it is made within
atwenty-one days of the time for payment referred to in Section 16
bfifteen days of the time for payment referred to in Section 16
cthirty days of the time for payment referred to in Section 16
dseven days of the time for payment referred to in Section 16
Answer: A
Section 18(1) provides that no rent deposited under Section 17 is treated as validly deposited unless the deposit is made within twenty-one days of the time referred to in Section 16 for payment.
Under Section 2(3) of the Karnataka Rent Act, 1999, to which of the following does the Act NOT apply?
aPremises belonging to a private individual let for residence
bResidential premises let at a standard rent of two thousand five hundred rupees per month in a Part A area
cCommercial premises having a plinth area not exceeding fourteen square metres
dPremises belonging to the State Government, Central Government or a local authority
Answer: D
Section 2(3)(a) excludes premises belonging to the State or Central Government or a local authority (and certain religious/charitable institutions and wakfs) from the operation of the Act.
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.
