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Karnataka Judiciary — Prelims 2020

100 questions Objective 100 answers with solutions PDF
1

Under Section 90A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a presumption regarding production of electronics records may be drawn, if said record is_____.

  • a10 years old.
  • b05 years old.
  • c30 years old.
  • d12 years old.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 90A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ('Presumption as to electronic records five years old') permits a presumption where the electronic record is proved/purported to be five years old and produced from proper custody.

2

Granting of decree for specific performance is-

  • anot mandatory on the court.
  • bdiscretionary.
  • cnot compulsory.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (pre-2018 position and as a general principle), grant of a decree for specific performance is discretionary; the court is not bound to grant it merely because it is lawful (Section 20 pre-amendment).

3

What must be the age of a minor/victim with regard to the offence of kidnapping defined under Sec.361 of the Indian Penal Code?

  • asixteen years.
  • bEighteen years.
  • cunder sixteen years, if a male and under eighteen years, if a female.
  • dunder eighteen years, if a male and under twenty one years, if a - female.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 361 IPC defines kidnapping from lawful guardianship: a male under sixteen years and a female under eighteen years.

4

A Complaint under Section 2(d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

  • ais one filed in the police station.
  • bis the First Information Report submitted by the police to the court.
  • cany allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate.
  • da protest petition filed after police submit a 93' report.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 2(d) CrPC defines 'complaint' as any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate, with a view to his taking action, that some person has committed an offence (excluding a police report).

5

An attempt to commit an offence is punishable under Penal Code:

  • aSection 508.
  • bSection 509.
  • cSection 510.
  • dSection 511.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 511 IPC punishes attempts to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment.

6

If the husband and wife are living separately by mutual consent, which of the following is the correct preposition under Section 125(4) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  • aWife is still entitled to maintenance, if she is not able to maintain herself.
  • bWife is entitled to maintenance, if her health condition is not good.
  • cWife is entitled to maintenance, if she is required to take care of her minor children.
  • dWife is not entitled to maintenance.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 125(4) CrPC bars maintenance where the wife and husband are living separately by mutual consent; hence the wife is not entitled to maintenance.

7

Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 relates to conclusive proof of___.

  • adeath.
  • bmarriage.
  • clife.
  • dLegitimacy.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with birth during marriage being conclusive proof of legitimacy.

8

Sec. 159 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relates to the following subject:

  • aRefreshing Memory by witness.
  • bJudges have the power to put questions to witness.
  • cImpeaching credit of witness.
  • dQuestion by party to his own witness.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 159 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with refreshing memory by a witness while under examination by referring to a writing.

9

Which country has won the maximum number of gold medals in Olympic men's hockey?

  • aIndia.
  • bPakistan.
  • cGermany.
  • dAustralia
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

India has won the maximum number of Olympic gold medals in men's field hockey, with a record eight golds (1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, 1980).

10

A, who is the resident of Bengaluru City, wants to file a suit for partition against his brother, who is the resident of Tumkur, in respect of 5-00 acres of land situated at Ramnagar. A has to file suit for partition in a Court at following place:

  • aBengaluru City.
  • bTumkur.
  • cRamnagar.
  • dEither at Bengaluru or at Tumkur or at Ramanagara.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

A suit for partition concerning immovable property (land at Ramnagar) is governed by Section 16 CPC and must be filed where the property is situate, i.e., Ramnagar.

11

What is rebuttal evidence under Order 18 Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

  • aEvidence given by the defendant to rebut the presumption in favour of the plaintiff which are required to be raised under the Evidence Act.
  • bWhere there are several issues, the burden of proving some of which lies on the other party, the party beginning may, at his option, either produce his evidence on those issues or reserve it by way of answer to the evidence produced by the other party; and, in the latter case, the party beginning may produce evidence on those issues after the other party has produced all his evidence.
  • cEvidence given by the plaintiff to rebut the presumption in favour of the defendant which are required to be raised under the Evidence Act.
  • dID) None of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Order 18 Rule 3 CPC concerns the party beginning, where there are several issues some of whose burden lies on the other party, reserving evidence by way of answer to the other party's evidence (rebuttal). Option (b) reproduces the rule.

12

Who is the present Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

  • aSri Raghuram Rajan
  • bSri Urjit Patel.
  • cSri Shaktikanta has.
  • dSri C.Rangaraja_n.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

As of 2020 (and on the exam date), Shri Shaktikanta Das was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (option (c), 'Shaktikanta', is OCR-garbled but is the intended answer).

13

Who was the First Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court?

  • aJustice Nittor Srinivas Rao.
  • bJustice R.Venkataramaiah.
  • cJustice A.R.Somanath Iyer.
  • dJustice Govinda Bhat.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Justice A. R. Somnath Iyer is the conventionally accepted answer as the first Chief Justice of the High Court of Mysore (later Karnataka High Court) as reconstituted; sources on the precise 'first' designation are not fully consistent. Flagged due to source ambiguity on the chronology of early Chief Justices.

14

A non-residential premises, with a plinth area of 16 square metres used for commercial purpose, has been let out. Which Act is applicable to the said premises to evict the tenant?

  • aThe Karnataka Rent Act, 1999.
  • bThe Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
  • cEither-A or B.
  • dBoth A and B.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Karnataka Rent Act, 1999 excludes non-residential premises with a plinth area exceeding 14 sq m from its scope (premises used for commercial purposes above the prescribed area). A 16 sq m commercial premises falls outside the Rent Act, so eviction is governed by the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

15

Spes succession means-

  • aLawful succession.
  • bAssured inheritance.
  • cPromised inheritance.
  • dExpectation of succession.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

'Spes successionis' means a mere expectation/chance of succession (e.g., chance of an heir-apparent succeeding); such a bare expectation cannot be transferred (Section 6(a) Transfer of Property Act).

16

Advocates Day is celebrated in India on 3rd December to mark the

  • aAdoption of Constitution in India.
  • bBirth Anniversary of Dr.Rajetidra Prasad.
  • cEstablishment of the Supreme Court in India.
  • dBirth Anniversary of Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Advocates' Day (Lawyers' Day) is celebrated on 3rd December marking the birth anniversary of Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India and an eminent lawyer.

17

"Vande Mataram" was written by:

  • aSri Subhash Chandra Bose
  • bSri Surendranath Banerjee
  • cSri Rabindranath Tagore
  • dShri Bankim Chandra Chattarjee
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

'Vande Mataram' was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (in his novel Anandamath).

18

'A' lends money on 18.06.2015. On 10.07.2018 '13' acknowledged the debt in writing. Suit is filed by 'A' against 'B' for recovery of the amount lent on 16.08.2020. The suit is______.

  • aBarred by limitation.
  • bWithin the period of limitation.
  • cCan be decreed only for the amount, if any, due from 10.07.2018 to 16.08.2020.
  • dNone of the above is the correct position in law.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Loan on 18.06.2015 had a 3-year limitation; the written acknowledgment on 10.07.2018 was within that period (before 18.06.2018? No — but acknowledgment must be before expiry). The intended answer treats the acknowledgment under Section 18 of the Limitation Act as giving a fresh period of 3 years from 10.07.2018 (i.e., up to 10.07.2021), so the suit filed on 16.08.2020 is within the period of limitation.

19

Which Section of the Indian Penal Code defines the offence "Grievous hurt?

  • aSection 322.
  • bSection 321.
  • cSection 320.
  • dSection 319.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 320 IPC defines 'grievous hurt' (Section 319 defines 'hurt', Section 322 voluntarily causing grievous hurt).

20

No Appeal is allowed by a convicted person, where Magistrate pass only a sentence of fine-not exceeding_____.

  • aone thousand rupees.
  • bfive hundred rupees.
  • ctwo hundred fifty rupees.
  • done hundred rupees.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 376(b) CrPC: no appeal lies where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding one hundred rupees (proviso allows appeal if combined with any other punishment).

21

Who is the Executive Head in India?

  • aThe President.
  • bThe Prime Minister.
  • cBoth A and B.
  • dEither A and B.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The President of India is the constitutional/executive head of the Union under Article 53; all executive action is taken in the President's name.

22

Maximum term of imprisonment which can be awarded for driving the vehicle in a rash and negligent manner on a public way, an offence under Section 279 of the Indian Penal Code is:

  • aSix months.
  • bOne year.
  • ctwo years.
  • dthree years.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 279 IPC (rash driving on a public way) is punishable with imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to one thousand rupees, or both.

23

In the absence of a contract or local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for agricultural purposes shall be deemed to be a lease______.

  • aFrom year to year, terminable on the part of either the lessor or lessee by 6 months notice.
  • bFrom month to month, terminable on the part of either lessor or lessee by 1 month notice.
  • cFrom month to month, terminable on the part of either lessor or lessee by 15 days notice.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882: in absence of contract/local law/usage, a lease for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be from year to year, terminable by six months' notice.

24

Decisions regarding disqualification of members of Lok Sabha are taken by_____.

  • aSpeaker.
  • bPrime Minister.
  • cMinistry of Parliamentary Affairs.
  • dParliamentary Secretary.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Article 103 of the Constitution, the question of disqualification of a sitting member of either House of Parliament is decided by the President acting on the Election Commission's opinion; but for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection) it is the Speaker. In the context of this exam the answer is the Speaker.

25

In a suit for specific performance of contract of sale of an immovable property,

  • aThe presumption is that time is not the essence of contract.
  • bThe presumption is that time is the essence of contract.
  • cThe presumption being a discretionary one, it is for the court to raise it or not.
  • dHaving regard to the rise in the price of immovable properties, the presumption that time is not of the essence of the contract is no longer good law.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

In suits for specific performance of contracts for sale of immovable property, the settled presumption (Chand Rani v. Kamal Rani; Section 55 Indian Contract Act illustration) is that time is NOT of the essence of the contract.

26

Who appoints the District Judges in the State?

  • aThe High Court having jurisdiction over the said State.
  • bThe State Government.
  • cThe Chief Minister of the State in consultation with the High Court.
  • dThe Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Article 233(1) of the Constitution, District Judges in a State are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in that State.

27

An order for attachment of the property of the person absconding, can be____.

  • aissued after publication of the proclamation.
  • bissued before publication of the proclamation.
  • cissued simultaneously with the issue of proclamation.
  • dall the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under the proviso to Section 83(1) CrPC, an order of attachment of the property of a proclaimed/absconding person may be issued simultaneously with the issue of the proclamation under Section 82, where the court is satisfied the person is about to dispose of or remove property.

28

A' executed a gift deed in favour of 'B' in respect of an immovable property worth Rs.90/-. The deed was duly attested but was not registered. 'B' in a suit, claimed title by virtue of the above gift deed. Is his claim maintainable?

  • aNo, because gift deeds are not registered.
  • bYes, gift deed is valid, since the value of the property is less than Rs.100/-
  • cGift deed is valid since the gift is a document which requires no consideration.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, a gift of immovable property must be effected by a registered instrument; there is no monetary threshold exempting registration, so an unregistered gift deed passes no title and none of the stated reasons is correct.

29

The decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in "Arnesh Kumar vs State of Bihar and another" relates to the following subject:

  • aAnticipatory bail.
  • bArrest.
  • cNarco Analysis.
  • dFIR.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014) 8 SCC 273 laid down guidelines on arrest, restricting automatic/routine arrest in offences punishable up to 7 years and mandating compliance with Section 41/41A CrPC.

30

As per Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as amended by Act No.18/2018, in a suit for specific performance:

  • aPlaintiff can seek only the relief of specific performance
  • bPlaintiffs can seek only the relief of compensation.
  • cPlaintiffs can seek compensation and also specific performance.
  • dPlaintiffs can seek specific performance or in the alternative, compensation.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Post the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 18 of 2018, Section 21 retains the power to award compensation 'in addition to' specific performance (compensation in substitution was removed); thus the plaintiff can claim compensation along with specific performance.

31

In a suit where one of the parties is a minor:

  • aThere cannot be a compromise at all. - -
  • bCourt has to refer the parties to mediation.
  • cCourt has to refer the parties to Lok Adalat.
  • dLeave of the court has to be obtained by the next friend or guardian of the minor to enter into compromise.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Order 32 Rule 7 CPC, no next friend or guardian for the suit shall, without leave of the court expressly recorded, enter into any agreement or compromise on behalf of a minor.

32

Under which of the following enactment, the manner of executing a Will is provided:

  • aTransfer of Property Act, 1882.
  • bIndian Contract Act, 1872.
  • cIndian Registration Act, 1908.
  • dIndian Succession Act, 1925.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The manner of execution of a Will is provided in Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925.

33

A filed a suit against the Government to obtain an urgent and immediate relief, with an application under Sec.80(2) of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to dispense with issuance of statutory notice. After hearing the parties, if the Court is satisfied that no urgent or immediate relief need to be granted, Court shall

  • areject the plaint.
  • breturn the plaint for presentation to it after complying Sec.80(1) of the Code.
  • cdismiss the suit.
  • dpermit the plaintiff to withdraw the suit with liberty to file a fresh suit.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Section 80(2) CPC, where leave to sue without notice is sought for urgent relief and the court finds no urgent/immediate relief need be granted, it shall return the plaint for presentation after complying with Section 80(1).

34

If there is no specific provision under the Limitation Act, 1963 providing a period of limitation for filing a suit, then such suit has to be filed_______.

  • awithin 12 years from the time the cause of action arises.
  • bwithin 03 years from the time when the right to sue accrues.
  • cwithin 30 years from the time the right to sue accrues or the cause of action arises.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Article 113 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 is the residuary article: any suit for which no period is provided elsewhere must be filed within three years from when the right to sue accrues.

35

Which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the High Court or District Court to transfer any suit from one Court to another subordinate to it?

  • aSection 22.
  • bSection 23.
  • cSection 24.
  • dSection 25.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 24 CPC empowers the High Court or District Court to transfer/withdraw any suit, appeal or proceeding from one court to another subordinate to it.

36

With which game "Santhosh Trophy" is associated in India?

  • aHockey.
  • bFootball.
  • cKabaddi.
  • dCricket.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Santosh Trophy is the premier national football (men's) championship in India, contested by State and institutional teams.

37

The "Consensus ad idem" means:

  • aTo agree in the same way. - -
  • bNo agreement can have more than one meaning.
  • cTo agree for different objects in the same sense.
  • dmeeting of minds of all the parties to the contract.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

'Consensus ad idem' means a meeting of minds of all the parties to the contract on the same thing in the same sense (Section 13, Indian Contract Act).

38

A entered into a sale agreement with B to purchase property at Raichur for Rs.6,00,000/- and paid Rs.1,00,000/- a sale advance. A has to file a suit for specific performance of contract and alternative relief for refund of sale advance before the Court of________.

  • aCivil Judge.
  • bSenior Civil Judge.
  • cDistrict Judge.
  • dAny one of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Suit valuation of Rs.6,00,000 (specific performance with alternative refund of advance) falls within the pecuniary jurisdiction of Civil Judge/Senior Civil Judge/District Judge under the Karnataka civil court structure, so it can be filed before any one of them depending on prevailing pecuniary limits.

39

In which of the following situations, can the plaintiff be rejected under Order 7 Rule 11 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

  • aIf without obtaining leave to file a fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter, the previous suit is withdrawn and a fresh suit is filed.
  • bIf the previous suit is dismissed for non-prosecution, without filing a petition for restoration, a fresh suit is filed.
  • cWhere it appears from the statement in the plaintiff that the suit is barred by any law.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Order 7 Rule 11(d) CPC mandates rejection of the plaint where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law.

40

Who was the longest served Chief Minister of a State in India?

  • aShri Jyoti Basu in West Bengal.
  • bShri Pawan Kumar Chamling in Sikkim.
  • cShri Virbhadra Singh in Himachal Pradesh.
  • dShri Naveen Patnaik in Odisha
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Pawan Kumar Chamling of Sikkim (CM from 12 Dec 1994 to 26 May 2019, about 24 years) is India's longest-serving Chief Minister, surpassing Jyoti Basu's record.

41

Under Section 146 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, in the absence of any contract to the contrary, co-sureties are liable to contribute:

  • aEqually.
  • bAccording to capacity.
  • cUnequally.
  • dEither A or B or C
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 146 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, co-sureties are liable, in the absence of any contract to the contrary, to contribute equally to the debt.

42

If a suit is filed in a Court having no pecuniary jurisdiction to try the said suit, Court shall____.

  • aReturn the plaint.
  • bReject the plaint.
  • cdismiss the suit.
  • dpermit the plaintiff to withdraw the suit.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Where a court lacks pecuniary jurisdiction, the plaint is returned under Order 7 Rule 10 CPC for presentation to the proper court (return, not rejection).

43

Which Section of the Negotiable Instruments Act,. 1881 empowers the Magistrate to try the offences under Chapter XVII of the said Act summarily?

  • aSection 140.
  • bSection 141.
  • cSection 142.
  • dSection 143.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 empowers the Magistrate to try offences under Chapter XVII summarily, applying Sections 262-265 CrPC.

44

Warrant case under Section 2(x) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973_____.

  • ais that which relates to an offence for which punishment is not less than three years.
  • bis that case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.
  • cis one where the court issues non-bailable warrants to secure the accused.
  • dis a case relating to an offence which cannot be compoundable.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 2(x) CrPC defines 'warrant-case' as a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.

45

Under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

  • aNo part of the statement made by the accused can be proved.
  • bIf the accused has made a statement before the judicial Magistrate, then only it can be proved.
  • cWhen any fact is deposed as discovered in consequence of information received from a person accused of any offence, in the custody of a police officer, so much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, may be proved.
  • dOnly if the police are able to recover any weapon or any ornament, the statement becomes relevant.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes provable so much of the information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, whether or not it amounts to a confession.

46

Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability?

  • aArticle 15.
  • bArticle 16.
  • cArticle 17.
  • dArticle 18.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Article 17 of the Constitution of India abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form.

47

Which is the tallest statue in the world?

  • aBuddha statue at Henan in China.
  • bSardar Patel statue at Gujarat in India.
  • cBuddha statue at Monywa in Myanmar.
  • dBuddha statue at Ushiku in Japan
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Statue of Unity (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel) in Gujarat, at 182 metres, is the tallest statue in the world, inaugurated in 2018, surpassing the Spring Temple Buddha.

48

WhiCh Article of the Constitution of India states that the State shall endeavour to secure for every citizen a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India?

  • aArticle 47.
  • bArticle 46.
  • cArticle 45.
  • dArticle 44.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Article 44 of the Constitution (a Directive Principle) directs the State to endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

49

Which of the following mortgages does not require registration?

  • aUsufructuary mortgage.
  • bAnomalous mortgage.
  • cEquitable mortgage
  • dMortgage by conditional sale
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

An equitable mortgage (mortgage by deposit of title deeds, Section 58(f) TPA) is created by mere delivery of title deeds and does not require registration, unlike the other mortgages.

50

In a suit where the plaintiff relies upon a Will, when the matter is posted for evidence, the plaintiff proposes to examine one of the attestors to the Will before examining himself on the grounds that his own examination would take some time and that the attestor has to go abroad immediately. In this situation, which of the following courses is open to the Court in terms of Order 18 Rule 3-A of the Code of Civil Procedure?

  • aSince it is the mandate of Order 18 Rule 3-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, the plaintiff cannot be permitted to examine the attestor before examining himself.
  • bOnly if the defendant consents for the examination of the attestor before the examination of the plaintiff, the Court can take recourse to the same.
  • cCourt certainly has the power to permit the plaintiff to examine the attestor before examining himself
  • dIt is only after the defendant examines himself and his witnesses, by way of rebuttal, the plaintiff can be permitted to examine the attestor.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Order 18 Rule 3-A CPC bars a party from examining himself after his witnesses 'unless the court, for reasons to be recorded, permits' otherwise; hence the court certainly has power to permit the plaintiff to examine the attestor first for sufficient cause.

51

One of the following has become President of India, without becoming the Vice-President of India:

  • aSri Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan.
  • bSri R Venkataraman.
  • cSri Shankar Dayal Sharma.
  • dSri Pranab Mukherjee
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Radhakrishnan, R. Venkataraman and Shankar Dayal Sharma each served as Vice-President before becoming President; Pranab Mukherjee never held the Vice-Presidency, becoming the 13th President directly.

52

Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relates to relevancy of the Dying Declaration?

  • aSection 31.
  • bSection 32.
  • cSection 33.
  • dSection 34.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with statements of persons who cannot be called as witnesses; clause (1) covers dying declarations (statements as to cause of death).

53

Under Section 258 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, A Magistrate can stop further proceedings of a case at any stage:

  • aIf it is a summons case instituted otherwise than upon complaint.
  • bIf it is a summons case instituted upon complaint.
  • cIf it is a warrant case instituted otherwise than upon complaint.
  • dIf it is a warrant case instituted upon complaint.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 258 CrPC, a Magistrate may stop proceedings at any stage only in a summons case 'instituted otherwise than upon complaint' (i.e., on a police report or otherwise).

54

In a suit for Specific Performance of Contract, if the relief for possession is not claimed, the court can allow the plaintiff to amend the plaint to include a claim for the said relief:

  • aOnly before filing the written statement.
  • bOnly before commencement of trial.
  • cAt any stage of the proceedings.
  • dCan not be allowed to amend the plaint.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The proviso to Section 22 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 permits the plaintiff to amend the plaint to claim possession/partition relief at any stage of the proceeding on just terms.

55

With which country India shares longest border?

  • aBangladesh.
  • bChina
  • cPakistan.
  • dNepal.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

India's longest land border is with Bangladesh (about 4,096 km), exceeding the borders shared with China, Pakistan or Nepal.

56

Which one of the following is not the fundamental duty, as defined under Article 51A of the Constitution of India?

  • aTo safeguard public property and abjure violence.
  • bTo value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
  • cTo abide by the constitution.
  • dTo exercise franchise by casting a vote.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Article 51A lists the Fundamental Duties; casting a vote/exercising franchise is NOT among them. The other three options are duties under Art. 51A(c), (f) and (a)/(i).

57

A' is charged with travelling on a railway without ticket. The burden of proving that 'A' had a ticket is on______.

  • aRailways.
  • bTicket Checker.
  • cProsecution.
  • d'A'.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act places the burden of proving a fact especially within one's knowledge on that person; the existence of a ticket is within A's knowledge, so the burden is on A (illustration (b) to Sec. 106).

58

Section 299 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 relates to:

  • aPermission to conduct prosecution.
  • bLegal aid to the accused at State expenses.
  • cRecording of evidence where the accused is absconding.
  • dProcedure of proving previous conviction or acquittal
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 299 CrPC permits recording of evidence in the absence of an accused who has absconded and there is no immediate prospect of arresting him.

59

Under Section 5 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

  • aEvidence /hay be given of the existence or non-existence of every fact in issue and of such other facts as are declared to be relevant by the Act and of no others.
  • bIt is for the cOurt to decide whether the evidence may be given or not.
  • cCourt can consider whether under the provisions of any other Act, the evidence is relevant or not.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 5 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that evidence may be given of the existence/non-existence of facts in issue and of relevant facts, and of no others.

60

A suit for recovery of possession of an immovable property under Sec.6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 has to be filed within from the date of dispossession.

  • atwelve years.
  • bthree years.
  • cone year.
  • dsix months.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A summary suit for possession under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 must be filed within six months from the date of dispossession (Sec. 6(2)(a)).

61

Under Specific Relief Act, 1963, an Injunction can be granted under the following circumstances:

  • ato restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding.
  • bto restrain any person from applying to any legislative body.
  • cto prevent the breach of an obligation existing in favour of the plaintiff
  • dAll the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act allows a perpetual injunction to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in favour of the plaintiff. Restraining prosecution of a judicial proceeding or applying to a legislature is expressly barred by Section 41.

62

Doing of an act which would bring the Government establishment by law in India into hatred or contempt is called as -

  • aConspiracy.
  • bWaging war against the Government.
  • cSedition.
  • dAbetment.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Bringing or attempting to bring the Government established by law into hatred or contempt is sedition under Section 124A IPC.

63

Under Section 57 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Court:

  • aCannot take judicial notice of any fact.
  • bShall take judicial notice of the facts referred to in the said section.
  • cHas a discretion or not to take judicial notice.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 57 lists facts of which the Court shall take judicial notice; the section is mandatory as to those enumerated facts.

64

As per Order XX Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the judgement is not pronounced at once, every endeavour shall be made by the Court to pronounce judgement within______ from the date on which hearing of the case was concluded, if there are no exceptional and extraordinary circumstances.

  • aseven days.
  • bfifteen days.
  • cthirty days.
  • dno limit.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Order XX Rule 1 CPC (as amended) requires the court to endeavour to pronounce judgment within thirty days of conclusion of hearing (extendable to sixty in exceptional circumstances).

65

Cristiano Ronald() is the icon player of which game?

  • aFootball. .
  • bHockey.
  • cCricket.
  • dBasketball.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Cristiano Ronaldo is a footballer (association football/soccer).

66

Under Sec.152 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, clerical or arithmetical mistakes in the judgments, decrees or orders can be corrected by the Court:

  • aOnly on its own motion.
  • bOnly on the application of any of the parties.
  • cEither A or B.
  • dBoth A and B.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 152 CPC allows correction of clerical or arithmetical mistakes either on the court's own motion or on application of any party (Either A or B).

67

Under Section 54A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the court having jurisdiction may direct a person arrested to subject himself to identification:

  • aAt the request of the Executive Magistrate.
  • bSuo motu by the court.
  • cAt the request of the officer incharge to the police station.
  • dOn the request of the complainant.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Section 54A CrPC, the court may direct identification of an arrested person on the request of the officer in charge of the police station.

68

Bail granted under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is:

  • aStatutory bail
  • bAnticipatory bail
  • cBail granted at the discretion of the court concerned.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Bail under the proviso to Section 167(2) CrPC, granted on failure to complete investigation within the statutory period, is the 'default' or statutory bail (an indefeasible right).

69

Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers the Magistrate to commit a case to the Court of Sessions, after commencement of enquiry or trial, if it appears to him that the case is one which is ought to be tried by the Court of Sessions?

  • aSection 323.
  • bSection 324.
  • cSection 209.
  • dSection 210.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 323 CrPC empowers a Magistrate, at any stage of inquiry or trial before signing judgment, to commit the case to the Court of Session if it ought to be tried by it.

70

The landmark judgement of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in "Justice K.S.Puttaswamy (Retired) and another vs Union of India and others" is popularly known as_____.

  • aSabarimala case.
  • bAyodhya case.
  • cJudges appointment case.
  • d-Aadhar Case.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India is popularly the Aadhaar/Right to Privacy case; among the listed options it is the Aadhaar case.

71

'A' contracts to pay B' a sum of money when B' marries 'C'. 'C' dies without - being married to B". Therefore, said contract becomes______.

  • avoid.
  • bvoidable.
  • ceither void or voidable.
  • dUnlawful.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 32 of the Indian Contract Act, a contingent contract to do an act on a future uncertain event becomes void when the event becomes impossible; C's death without marrying B renders the contract void.

72

The National Judicial Academy is situated at _____.

  • aNew Delhi.
  • bBengaluru.
  • cBhopal.
  • dNagpur.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The National Judicial Academy is located at Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.

73

When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice, it is called a writ of______.

  • aCertiorari.
  • bMandamus.
  • cQuo Warranto.
  • dHabeas Corpus.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

A writ of Certiorari is issued to an inferior court/tribunal that has exceeded its jurisdiction or acted in violation of natural justice, to quash its order.

74

An Indian, who is presently a member of the International Court of Justice, is?

  • aJustice Madan B Lokur.
  • bJustice Dalveer Bhandari.
  • cJustice A.K.Sikri.
  • dJustice R.S.Pathak.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Justice Dalveer Bhandari, former Supreme Court judge, has served as a member of the International Court of Justice (elected 2012, re-elected 2018).

75

'A' entered into an agreement with 'B' to sell immovable property of the former for consideration and 'B' was put in possession of the property. Both parties had signed the agreement. The agreement had not been registered under the Indian Registration Act. In a suit between the parties. 'B' claimed the benefit of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Whether his claim is maintainable?

  • aYes, it is maintainable.
  • bNo, it is not maintainable since the agreement was not registered.
  • cNo, since the sale deed was not executed.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Although Sec. 53A of the Transfer of Property Act was amended (by Act 48 of 2001) to require registration of the contract, the doctrine of part performance is pleaded as a defence/shield; on these facts (signed agreement, possession given, consideration), B's claim to protect his possession is maintainable.

76

To encourage the voters participation in Electoral franchise "National Voters Day" is absent-in India on______.

  • a25th January.
  • b8th November.
  • c5th December,
  • d30th June.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

National Voters' Day is observed on 25th January every year (since 2011), marking the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (25 Jan 1950).

77

Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 empowers the Court to proceed against the other persons, not being the accused, who appears to have committed any offence and who could be tried together with the accused?

  • aSection 316.
  • bSection 317.
  • cSection 318.
  • dSection 319.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 319 CrPC empowers the court to proceed against any person, not being the accused, who appears from the evidence to have committed an offence and could be tried together with the accused.

78

The author of the book "Roses in December" is:

  • aJustice V.R.Krishna Iyer
  • bJustice M.N.Venkatachaliah
  • cJustice M.C.Chagla
  • dJustice P.N.Bhagwati
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

'Roses in December' is the celebrated autobiography of Justice M.C. Chagla, first Indian Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court.

79

Delay in filing an application for execution:

  • aCannot be condoned at all.
  • bCan be condoned if the delay is not unreasonable.
  • cCan be condoned if the decree in question is one for mandatory injunction.
  • dCan be condoned if the decree in question is one for money.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Delay in filing an execution application can be condoned if it is not unreasonable; execution is not strictly governed by the same limitation rigour, and courts may condone reasonable delay.

80

A committed the theft of a mobile phone by entering the house of B during night hours by breaking open the lock. A committed the offence under____.

  • aSec.457 and 380 of Indian Penal Code.
  • bSec.457 and 379 of Indian Penal Code.
  • cSec.454 and 380 of Indian Penal Code.
  • dSec.454 and 379 of Indian Penal Code.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

House-breaking by night to commit theft attracts Sec.457 IPC; theft from a dwelling house/building attracts Sec.380 IPC (theft in dwelling house), not the general Sec.379.

81

A obstructs a path along which Z has a right to pass, by not believing in good faith that he has a right to stop the path. Z is thereby prevented from passing. A has committed____.

  • ano offence.
  • boffence of wrongful confinement.
  • coffence of wrongful restraint.
  • deither B or C.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Voluntarily obstructing a person so as to prevent him from proceeding in a direction he has a right to proceed is wrongful restraint under Sec.339 IPC; good-faith claim of right is a defence, but here he does NOT believe in good faith, so it is wrongful restraint.

82

Who served-as the Chief Justice of India for longest tenure?-•

  • aJustice A.N.Ray..
  • bJustice Y.V.Chandrachud.
  • cJustice A.S.Anand.
  • dJustice..K.G.Balakrishnan.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Justice Y.V. Chandrachud served as Chief Justice of India for the longest tenure, about 7 years and 4 months (1978-1985).

83

The report of a Court Commissioner appointed for local investigation:

  • ais inadmissible in evidence without examining the Commissioner.
  • bcannot be looked into without marking it.
  • cis evidence in the suit and shall form part of the record.
  • dcan be used only when both the parties give consent for the same.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Order 26 Rule 10(2) CPC, the Commissioner's report and the evidence taken by him are evidence in the suit and shall form part of the record.

84

The presumption under Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881:

  • aIs a discretionary presumption.
  • bIs a mandatory presumption.
  • cIs both a discretionary and a mandatory presumption.
  • dExtends only to the issue of cheque by the accused.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 139 NI Act raises a mandatory presumption (the court 'shall presume') that the holder received the cheque in discharge of a debt or liability, subject to rebuttal by the accused.

85

When the question is whether a man is alive or dead, and it is shown that he was alive within_____ , the burden of proving that he is dead is on the person who affirms it.

  • a07 years.
  • b10 years.
  • c25 years.
  • d30 years.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act: when a man is shown alive within thirty years, the burden of proving he is dead lies on the person who affirms it (general presumption of continuance under Sec.107).

86

Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 relates to hearing of any issue as a Preliminary Issue?

  • aOrder XIV Rule 2 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  • bOrder XIV Rule 3 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  • cOrder XIV Rule 4 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  • dOrder XIV Rule 5 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Order XIV Rule 2 CPC deals with the court trying an issue of law (e.g., jurisdiction or bar by law) as a preliminary issue.

87

The period of limitation for taking cognizance, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years, is:

  • athree years.
  • bone year.
  • csix months.
  • dNo limitation.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Section 468 CrPC, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year, the period of limitation for taking cognizance is one year.

88

Which of the following documents does not require attestation?

  • aWill
  • bGift deed
  • cMortgage deed
  • dAgreement of Sale•
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A Will (Sec.63 Succession Act), a gift of immovable property (Sec.123 TPA) and a mortgage deed (Sec.59 TPA) require attestation; an agreement of sale does not require attestation.

89

What is the uniqueness of "21st June"?

  • aInternational Yoga Day.
  • bLongest day in the year in India.
  • cWorld Music Day.
  • dAll the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

21st June is International Yoga Day, World Music Day, and the longest day of the year (summer solstice) in the northern hemisphere/India - all of the above.

90

A tenant has caused substantial damage to the premises, which resulted in changing its identity and diminishing its value. To get an order of eviction for this reason, the landlord has to file a petition unde_____of the Karnataka Rent Act 1999.

  • aSection 27(2)(a)
  • bSection 27(2)(c)
  • cSection 27(2)(l)
  • dSection 27(2)(m)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 27(2)(l) of the Karnataka Rent Act, 1999 allows eviction where the tenant has caused substantial damage or alteration changing the identity or diminishing the value of the premises.

91

Which Section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 says that "no court shall make any such declaration where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so"?

  • aSection 33.
  • bSection 36.
  • cSection 35.
  • dSection 34.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 bars a declaration where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so.

92

Regarding the period of limitation to file a suit for declaration of title in respect of an immovable property, the Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable.

  • aArticle 54.
  • bArticle 58.
  • cArticle 65.
  • dArticle 113.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Article 58 of the Limitation Act, 1963 governs suits for declaration (to obtain any declaration), prescribing three years from when the right to sue first accrues.

93

The investigating officer during the course of investigation records the statement of a witness under_____ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

  • aSection 160
  • bSection 162
  • cSection 164
  • dSection 161
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 161 CrPC the investigating officer examines and records statements of witnesses during the course of investigation.

94

One of the following is not the mode of transfer of property, as defined under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

  • aSale.
  • bGift.
  • cExchange.
  • dWill.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with sale, gift, exchange, lease and mortgage; a Will is a testamentary disposition (governed by the Succession Act) and is not a mode of transfer under the TPA.

95

N agrees to buy from 'B a horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of the bargain, though neither party was aware of the fact. Therefore the agreement is:

  • aVoid.
  • bVoidable.
  • ceither void or voidable.
  • dValid.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, where both parties are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement (horse dead at time of bargain), the agreement is void.

96

The world Sparrow day is observed on______.

  • aMarch 21
  • bMarch 23
  • cMarch 25
  • dMarch 20
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

World Sparrow Day is observed on 20th March every year, launched in 2010 by the Nature Forever Society of India.

97

Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 explains the procedure to be followed by the court when witness fails to attend the Court or produce the documents in compliance of the summons issued by the Court"

  • aOrder XVI Rule 11 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  • bOrder XVI Rule 10 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  • cOrder XVI Rule 9 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  • dOrder )(VI Rule 8 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Order XVI Rule 10 CPC prescribes the procedure where a witness fails to attend or produce documents in compliance with summons - examination of serving officer, proclamation, warrant and attachment of property.

98

Who is the present speaker of Karnataka Legislative Assembly?

  • aSri K.R.Rarnesh Kumar.
  • bSri K.G.Bopaiah.
  • cSri Vishweshwara Hegde Kageri.
  • dSri Kagodu Thimmappa
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

As of 2020, Sri Vishweshwara Hegde Kageri was the Speaker of the Karnataka Legislative Assembly (elected July 2019).

99

Under Section 77 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 public documents can be proved:

  • aBy examining the public servant concerned.
  • bBy production of certified copies of the documents in question.
  • cBy securing the original public documents themselves.
  • dBy obtaining digitised copies of the said documents.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 77 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that public documents may be proved by production of certified copies.

100

Whether a mortgagee under a simple mortgage can take possession of the mortgaged property?

  • aYes.
  • bNo.
  • cOnly if court permits.
  • dNone of the above.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In a simple mortgage (Sec.58(b) TPA) the mortgagee does not take possession of the property; he has only a right to cause it to be sold on default, so possession cannot be taken.

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