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Madhya Pradesh Judiciary — Prelims 2019

148 questions Objective 148 answers with solutions PDF
1

Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the power of the President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases ?

  • aArticle 71
  • bArticle 72
  • cArticle 58
  • dArticle 74
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Article 72 confers on the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment and to suspend, remit or commute sentences.

2

Who decides a dispute regarding the election of the President of India?

  • aElection Commission
  • bChief Justice of India
  • cParliament
  • dSupreme Court
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Article 71(1), all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court, whose decision is final.

3

By which amendment of the Constitution of India provisions regarding fundamental duties were inserted

  • aFrom 26th January 1950 since the enforcement of Constitution
  • bInserted by the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976, Section 11
  • c46th amendment of the Constitution, 2002, in Section 4
  • dInserted by the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976, Section 12 (w.e.f. 03-01-1977)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Fundamental Duties (Part IVA, Article 51A) were inserted by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976, Section 11.

4

On proclamation of emergency under Article 352 the President has power to suspend the fundamental rights except the right secured by-

  • aArticle 19 and 20
  • bArticle 20 and 21
  • cArticle 21 and 22
  • dArticle 19, 20 and 21
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Article 359(1), the enforcement of rights conferred by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during an emergency (post-44th Amendment); thus the President cannot suspend the rights under Articles 20 and 21.

5

When the two houses of Parliament differ regarding a bill, deadlock is resolved by:

  • aa joint sitting of two houses
  • bthe President of India
  • cthe Prime Minister of India
  • dSpecial committee
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

A deadlock between the two Houses over an ordinary bill is resolved by a joint sitting of both Houses under Article 108.

6

Among below which case is not related to Constitutional amendment?

  • aShankari Prasad Singh Deo vs Union of India
  • bSajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan
  • cGolaknath vs State of Punjab
  • dManeka Gandhi vs Union of India
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Shankari Prasad, Sajjan Singh and Golaknath all concern the amendability of fundamental rights/Article 368. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India dealt with Article 21 (personal liberty) and is not a constitutional-amendment case.

7

........of the total number of members of Goods and Service Tax Council shall constitute the 'Quorum' at its meetings.

  • aOne-third
  • bOne-fourth
  • cHalf
  • dTwo-third
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Article 279A(9), one-half of the total number of members of the GST Council constitutes the quorum at its meetings.

8

Disqualification on ground of defection would not apply in case of merger if not less than.................of the members of the Legislature party concerned have agreed to such merger.

  • aOne-fourth
  • bOne-third
  • cHalf
  • dTwo-third
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule, disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply where a merger is agreed to by not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party.

9

The statement "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly" relates to the doctrine of –

  • aDoctrine of pith and substance
  • bDoctrine of implied power
  • cDoctrine of severability
  • dDoctrine of colourable legislation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The maxim 'what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly' embodies the doctrine of colourable legislation, which tests whether a legislature has overstepped its competence under the guise of apparent power.

10

How many schedules are there in the Constitution of India ?

  • a10 schedules
  • b12 schedules
  • c14 schedules
  • d6 schedules
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The Constitution of India presently contains 12 Schedules (the original 8 plus four added by amendments).

11

The Supreme Court of India has laid down the law relating to Alternative Dispute Resolution processes and Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the case of :-

  • aDinesh Kumar Vs. Yusuf Ali
  • bAfcon Infrastructure Ltd. Vs. Cherian Varkey Construction Co.
  • cBimlesh Vs. New India Assurance Co.
  • dStandard Chartered Bank Vs. Noble Kumar
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (2010) 8 SCC 24, the Supreme Court laid down the law on ADR processes and Section 89 CPC.

12

An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall lie from which of the following order(s) :-

  • aRule-11 of Order VII, rejecting the plaint
  • bRule-9 of Order XXII, refusing to set aside the abatement or dismissal of suit
  • cRule-1 of Order VIII, not permitting the defendant to present the written statement
  • dRule-5 of Order XIV, refusing to strike out the issue at the instances of either of the parties
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

An appeal under Order XLIII Rule 1(k) lies from an order under Order XXII Rule 9 refusing to set aside abatement or dismissal. Rejection of a plaint (O7R11) is a decree appealable under Section 96, not Order XLIII.

13

A decree against Government of India or State Government shall not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of :-

  • aone month
  • btwo months
  • cthree months
  • dsix months
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Section 82(2) CPC, execution shall not be issued on a decree against the Government or a public officer unless the decree remains unsatisfied for three months from the date of the decree.

14

The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of CPC is :-

  • ato elucidate the matters in controversy in the suit
  • bto record evidence
  • cto secure admissions
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The object of oral examination of parties under Order X Rule 2 CPC is to elucidate matters in controversy in the suit, not to record evidence or secure admissions.

15

Provision for setting aside ex-parte decree is –

  • aOrder 9 Rule 7
  • bOrder 9 Rule 9
  • cOrder 9 Rule 13
  • dOrder 9 Rule 8
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Order IX Rule 13 CPC provides for setting aside an ex-parte decree passed against a defendant.

16

Under section 13 of Civil Procedure Code, a foreign judgement can be challenged on the grounds of :-

  • acompetency of court pronouncing the judgement
  • bbeing obtained by fraud.
  • csustaining a claim founded on a breach of law enforced in India
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 13 CPC lists grounds on which a foreign judgment is not conclusive, including want of competency of the court, judgment obtained by fraud, and a claim founded on a breach of any law in force in India - hence all of these.

17

Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code an order of temporary injunction may be discharged, varied or set-aside?

  • aRule 7 of Order 39
  • bRule 2A of Order 39
  • cRule 9 of Order 39
  • dRule 4 of Order 39
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Order XXXIX Rule 4 CPC, an order of temporary injunction may be discharged, varied or set aside.

18

Who has the right to make an application for amendment of judgements and orders under Section 152 of C.P.C.?

  • aPerson aggrieved
  • bPerson aggrieved with permission of court
  • cAny of the parties
  • dGovernment Pleader
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under Section 152 CPC, clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders may be corrected by the court of its own motion or on the application of any of the parties.

19

The Court is required to appoint a guardian ad litem :-

  • aFor a minor plaintiff only
  • bFor a minor defendant only
  • cFor plaintiff and defendant both
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Order XXXII Rule 3 CPC, the court appoints a guardian ad litem for the suit for a minor defendant; a minor plaintiff sues through a next friend, not a guardian ad litem.

20

Where a suit is dismissed under Rule 2 or Rule 3 of Order IX of Civil Procedure Code :-

  • aplaintiff is debarred from filing fresh suit
  • bonly remedy with the plaintiff is to seek setting aside of such order
  • cthe only remedy is to bring fresh suit
  • dplaintiff may (subject to the law of limitation) bring a fresh suit, or he may apply for an order to set the dismissal aside
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Order IX Rule 4 CPC, where a suit is dismissed under Rule 2 or Rule 3, the plaintiff may (subject to limitation) bring a fresh suit or apply for an order to set the dismissal aside.

21

At the stage of evidence counsel of plaintiff filed an application for adjournment which was rejected and suit was dismissed for want of evidence. Plaintiff has a remedy to file:-

  • aFresh suit
  • bFirst Appeal
  • cApplication under Order 9 Rule 9 C.P.C.
  • dRevision
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Where a suit is dismissed for the plaintiff's default at the hearing (here, want of evidence after rejection of adjournment), the remedy is an application under Order IX Rule 9 CPC to set aside the dismissal.

22

In execution proceeding before Trial Court a person filed application under Order 21 Rule 97 C.P.C. on ground that he was bonafide purchaser of suit property. His objection–

  • aIs maintainable because he is bonafide purchaser
  • bIs not maintainable because his Lis pendens prohibits a party from dealing with property which is the subject matter of suit
  • cIs maintainable because he has not filed independent suit
  • dCan be heard only if parties permit
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A purchaser pendente lite is bound by the doctrine of lis pendens (Section 52 TPA); his Order XXI Rule 97 objection is not maintainable as he is bound by the result of the suit and cannot deal with the subject-matter independently.

23

Legal provision for restoring to a party on the modification, variation or reversal of a decree what has been lost to him in execution of decree or in direct consequence of decree is

  • aApplication under Section 114 CPC
  • bApplication under Section 115 CPC
  • cApplication under Section 144 CPC
  • dAppeal under Section 96 CPC
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 144 CPC provides for restitution - restoring to a party, on variation or reversal of a decree, what was lost in execution or in consequence of the decree.

24

If the tenancy of an immovable property is monthly, then in order to terminate the lease of it, a notice of which period shall be given :-

  • aOne month
  • bTwo months
  • cSix months
  • dFifteen days
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, a monthly tenancy is terminable by fifteen days' notice.

25

When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only, the transaction is called-

  • aLease
  • bMortgage
  • cSale
  • dExchange
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Section 118 of the Transfer of Property Act, the mutual transfer of ownership of one thing for another, neither (or both) being money only, is an 'exchange'.

26

Under Transfer of Property Act what Property may be transferred?

  • aA mere right to sue
  • bPublic Office
  • cThe chance of an heir apparent succeeding to an estate
  • dAny property transfer of which is not barred by law
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under Sec. 6 TPA property of any kind may be transferred except as otherwise provided; clauses (a) right to sue, (b) public office, and the spes successionis in (c) are expressly non-transferable, so the correct general rule is any property whose transfer is not barred by law.

27

'A' sells his house to 'B' with a condition that 'B' cannot transfer his house to any one except 'C'. The sale is –

  • avalid but condition is void
  • bvoid
  • cunlawful
  • dvoidable
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Sec. 10 TPA renders void an absolute restraint on alienation; a condition allowing transfer only to one named person (C) is an absolute restraint, so the sale is valid but the condition is void.

28

'A' make a gift of Rs. 80000/- to 'B', but 'A' reserves right with 'B's consent to take back at pleasure Rs. 30000/-. What will be legal status of gift?

  • aGift is valid
  • bGift is void
  • cGift is voidable
  • dGift is valid up to Rs. 50000/-
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Sec. 126 TPA illustration: a gift with a clause reserving to the donor power to revoke part (with donee's consent) is valid, the revocable portion being treated as no gift; here the gift of Rs. 80000 is valid (the Rs. 30000 revocation reservation being permissible).

29

"Subrogation" is related to which section of Transfer of Property Act-

  • a54
  • b67
  • c100
  • d92
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Subrogation is dealt with in Sec. 92 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

30

In which transaction no interest in the property is created?

  • aLease
  • bLicence
  • cTenancy
  • dMortgage
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A licence (Sec. 52, Indian Easements Act) creates no interest/estate in the property, unlike a lease, tenancy or mortgage which transfer an interest in immovable property.

31

The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor :-

  • aas soon as acceptance is made by the acceptor
  • bwhen it is put in the course of transmission to the proposer
  • cwhen it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Sec. 4 Indian Contract Act: communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor when it is put in a course of transmission to the proposer, so as to be out of the acceptor's power.

32

Two parties entered into a contract. They later realised that the law as they understood as applicable was not in force in India. This makes their contract :-

  • aillegal
  • bvoid
  • cvoidable
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Sec. 20 read with Sec. 56 (mistake as to law in force / agreement to do impossible act) renders the agreement void; a contract based on a law mistakenly believed to be in force is void.

33

An alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other is illegal-

  • aWhole alternative promise can be enforced
  • bWhole alternative promise cannot be enforced
  • cOnly legal branch of alternative promise can be enforced
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Sec. 58 Indian Contract Act: in an alternative promise, one branch legal and the other illegal, only the legal branch can be enforced.

34

A contract is not frustrated

  • aBy commercial hardship
  • bBy destruction of subject matter
  • cchange of circumstances
  • ddeath or incapacity of party
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Doctrine of frustration (Sec. 56) is not attracted by mere commercial hardship/onerousness; it applies where performance becomes impossible, e.g. destruction of subject matter or death/incapacity of party.

35

Section 62 of Contract Act relates to the :-

  • aAgency
  • bNovation
  • cBreach
  • dCompensation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Sec. 62 Indian Contract Act deals with effect of novation, rescission and alteration of contract.

36

'A' agrees to sell to 'B' a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England to Bombay. It turns out that before the day of the bargain the ship conveying the cargo had been cast away and the goods lost. Neither party was aware of these facts. The agreement is-

  • avoidable at the option of 'A’
  • bvoidable at the option of 'B'
  • cvoid
  • dvalid
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Sec. 20 Indian Contract Act illustration: sale of a specific cargo already lost (perished) before the bargain, both parties ignorant, is void due to mutual mistake as to existence of subject matter.

37

Which of these precedents is related with "Doctrine of Frustration"?

  • aSatyabrat Ghose Vs Mangiram Bangur
  • bHadley Vs Baxindale
  • cCarlil Vs Carbolic Smoke Ball
  • dMohri Bibi Vs Dharmdas Ghose
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur (AIR 1954 SC 44) is the leading Indian case on the doctrine of frustration under Sec. 56.

38

If minor is supplied with necessaries

  • aminor is personally liable
  • bminor is not liable
  • cminor's estate or property is liable
  • dminor's is liable on becoming major
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Sec. 68 Indian Contract Act: a minor is not personally liable, but his estate/property is liable for necessaries supplied to him.

39

In a suit for injunction, under section 40 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, damages :-

  • acannot be awarded
  • bcan be awarded in addition to the injunction
  • ccan be awarded in lieu of the injunction
  • dcan be awarded either in addition to or in substitution for the injunction
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Sec. 40 Specific Relief Act, 1963: in a suit for injunction the plaintiff may also claim damages either in addition to or in substitution for the injunction.

40

Under Specific Relief Act, 1963 power of Court to engage experts is provided under which Section :-

  • aSection 20A
  • bSection 14A
  • cSection 20B
  • dSection 20C
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 14A, inserted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018 (w.e.f. 1 Oct 2018), empowers the court to engage one or more experts on any specific issue in a suit.

41

If a person is dispossessed from immovable property without due process of law. He has to file suit for possession

  • awithin three months
  • bwithin four months
  • cwithin twelve months
  • dwithin six months
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Sec. 6 Specific Relief Act, 1963: a person dispossessed without consent and otherwise than by due process may file suit for recovery of possession within six months of dispossession (Sec. 6(2)(a)).

42

Under Section 20C of Specific Relief Act, for disposal of a suit, maximum period is provided for..................

  • a9 months
  • b18 months
  • c24 months
  • d36 months
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 20C (inserted by the 2018 amendment) requires disposal within 12 months from service of summons, extendable by a further period not exceeding 6 months, i.e. a maximum of 18 months.

43

Plaintiff has filed the suit for only declaration of title, though he is not in possession of suit property. The suit is barred under which provision of Specific Relief Act, 1963 ?

  • aSec. 34
  • bSec. 35
  • cSec. 36
  • dSec. 37
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Proviso to Sec. 34 Specific Relief Act, 1963 bars a mere declaratory suit where the plaintiff, able to seek further relief (possession), omits to do so; a declaration-only suit by one out of possession is barred under Sec. 34.

44

Under Specific Relief Act, in which of the following cases, the Court can not order rectification of instrument:

  • aWhere the instrument through fraud does not express the real intention of the parties.
  • bWhere the instrument through mutual mistake does not express the real intention of the parties.
  • cWhere the instrument is the articles of association of a company.
  • dWhere the rectification of the instrument can be done without prejudice to rights acquired by third persons in good faith and for value.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Sec. 26 Specific Relief Act, 1963 allows rectification of an instrument that, through fraud or mutual mistake, fails to express the real intention, without prejudice to bona fide third-party rights; articles of association of a company are expressly excluded from rectification under this provision.

45

Any other application for which limitation period has not been provided in Limitation Act then the limitation period will be –

  • aThree years
  • bFive years
  • cTwelve years
  • dThirty years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (Schedule) is the residuary article: any application for which no period is prescribed elsewhere has a limitation period of three years.

46

Section 5 of the Limitation Act does not apply to:

  • asuit
  • bappeal
  • capplication
  • dall of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Sec. 5 Limitation Act (condonation of delay) applies to appeals and applications but expressly does not apply to suits.

47

In computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application that day shall be excluded on which-

  • aLimitation period is to be computed.
  • bJudgement has been pronounced in appeal.
  • cThe time requisite for obtaining a copy of the judgement
  • dall of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Sec. 12(1) Limitation Act: in computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the day from which such period is to be reckoned shall be excluded.

48

For the purpose of this Act in a suit of pauper the suit shall be deemed to be instituted on the date...................?

  • aWhen application for leave to sue as a pauper is made
  • bWhen application for leave to sue as pauper is allowed
  • cWhen the suit is registered
  • dIt is the Court to decide the date of institution
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Sec. 3(2)(b) Limitation Act, 1963: a suit by a pauper is deemed instituted when the application for leave to sue as a pauper is made.

49

Under Sec. 13(2) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, the fixing of provisional rent is necessary where the dispute relates to :

  • aArrears of rent only
  • bAmount of Rent
  • cArrears of rent and Amount of Rent both
  • dNeither Arrears of rent nor Amount of Rent
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Sec. 13(2) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, fixation of provisional rent is necessary only where the dispute relates to the amount (rate) of rent payable, not where only the quantum of arrears is disputed.

50

In case of composite tenancy of residential and non-residential purpose, landlord can seek eviction of tenant –

  • aby proving need for residential purpose
  • bby proving need for non-residential purpose
  • cby proving need for any purpose
  • dby filing a suit under the special provision as contained in Section 20 of the Act
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

In a composite (residential-cum-non-residential) tenancy under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, the landlord can obtain eviction by proving bona fide need for any purpose (whether residential or non-residential).

51

If a tenant fails to deposit or pay any amount as required u/s 13 of Accommodation Control Act:-

  • acourt shall order to cost
  • bcourt shall pass decree against tenant
  • ccourt shall initiate punishment proceeding against defendant
  • dcourt may order the defence against eviction to be struck out
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under the proviso to s.13(6) MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961, if the tenant fails to deposit/pay any amount as required u/s 13, the court may order the defence against eviction to be struck out and proceed with the hearing.

52

The tenant has, whether before or after the commencement of this Act, caused or permitted to be caused substantial damage to the accommodation. This ground for eviction is mentioned in -

  • aSec. 12(1)(i)
  • bSec. 12(1)(k)
  • cSec. 12(1)(m)
  • dSec. 12(1)(n)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Ground that the tenant caused or permitted substantial damage to the accommodation is contained in s.12(1)(k) of the MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961.

53

What is wrong about appeal against the order of Rent Controlling Authority?

  • aIt can be filed in the court of District Judge
  • bThe decision of the appellate court shall be final
  • cAn appeal shall lie from every order of the Rent Controlling Authority made under this Act
  • dLimitation of filing appeal is 90 days excluding the period requisite for obtaining a copy of the order
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under s.31 read with the Act, an appeal lies only from certain orders of the Rent Controlling Authority, not from 'every order'; hence the statement that an appeal shall lie from every order is wrong. Appeal lies to District Judge, its decision is final, and limitation is 90 days excluding copy time.

54

Under Section 29 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code who is competent to transfer a revenue case from one district to another?

  • aState Government
  • bRevenue Board
  • cChief Secretary
  • dRevenue Minister
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under s.29 of the MP Land Revenue Code, 1959 the Board of Revenue is competent to transfer a revenue case from one district to another (i.e., from a court in one district to a court in another).

55

Reinstatement of Bhumiswami improperly dispossessed can be made under which Section of M.P. Land Revenue Code –

  • aSection 248
  • bSection 250
  • cSection 250-B
  • dSection 253
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Reinstatement of a Bhumiswami improperly dispossessed (otherwise than in due course of law) is provided under s.250 of the MP Land Revenue Code, 1959 (application to Tahsildar within two years).

56

Boundaries of all villages shall be fixed and demarcated by permanent boundary marks, is provided in

  • aU/s 121 of Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
  • bU/s 124 of Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
  • cU/s 125 of Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
  • dU/s 126 of Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Construction/fixing and demarcation of boundary marks of villages and survey numbers is dealt with under s.124 of the MP Land Revenue Code, 1959. Flagged: bare-act section-numbering varies across editions (renumbering in the boundaries chapter), so 124 vs 126 is a close call.

57

Failure to vacate land in favour of allottee of land would be an offence punishable with imprisonment for maximum period of –

  • a6 months
  • b1 year
  • c3 months
  • d3 years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Failure to vacate land in favour of an allottee is an offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to one year under the MP Land Revenue Code. Flagged: penalty quantum is provision-specific and the bare-act period is not independently confirmed here.

58

Who will decide the disputes relating to demarcation and maintenance of boundary lines?

  • aTahsildar
  • bSub-Divisional Officer
  • cCollector
  • dCommissioner
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Disputes relating to demarcation and maintenance of boundary lines are decided by the Tahsildar, who is the demarcating authority under the boundaries chapter of the MP Land Revenue Code, 1959.

59

Facts, which though not in issue, are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction, whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places ?

  • aare irrelevant
  • bare relevant
  • care partly relevant
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Facts so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are relevant under s.6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (res gestae).

60

FIR is not a substantive evidence, it can be used during trial –

  • ato corroborate the information
  • bto contradict the information
  • cto corroborate and contradict the information both
  • dneither to corroborate nor to contradict the information
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

An FIR is not substantive evidence; it may be used to corroborate (s.157) or contradict (s.145) the maker as a witness during trial.

61

The opinion of expert may be obtained under section 45 of the Evidence Act in relation to –

  • aScience, art, law, finger impression and handwriting/signature
  • bScience including medical matters, art, law, finger impression, hand writing and signatures.
  • cScience, art, foreign law, finger impression and handwriting/ signature.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 45 of the Evidence Act allows expert opinion on foreign law, science, art, identity of handwriting and finger impressions. Of the given options, (a) best matches the statutory list; (b) wrongly adds 'medical' as a separate head and 'law' generally, (c) wrongly limits to foreign law only for handwriting.

62

When the language used in a document is, on its face, ambiguous or defective, ......of facts which would show its meaning or supply its defects-

  • aevidence may be given
  • bOral evidence may be given
  • cDocumentary evidence may be given
  • dEvidence may not be given.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under s.93 of the Evidence Act (patent ambiguity), where the language of a document is on its face ambiguous or defective, evidence may NOT be given of facts to show its meaning or supply its defects.

63

Exception to the "Hearsay rule" are provided in the Indian Evidence Act under-

  • aSection 17 & 18
  • bSection 32 & 33
  • cSection 34 & 35
  • dSection 36 & 37
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Exceptions to the hearsay rule (statements of persons who cannot be called as witnesses, and statements in former proceedings) are contained in ss.32 and 33 of the Evidence Act.

64

Which section of Indian Evidence Act provides that evidence shall be weighed not counted

  • aSection 132
  • bSection 134
  • cSection 130
  • dSection 131
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 134 of the Evidence Act provides that no particular number of witnesses is required to prove any fact, embodying the maxim that evidence is to be weighed and not counted.

65

By which section of Indian Evidence Act 1872, the Judge is empowered in order to discover or to obtain proper proof of relevant facts, ask any question, in any form, at any time, of any witness, or of the parties, about any fact relevant or irrelevant?

  • a166
  • b167
  • c164
  • d165
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 165 of the Evidence Act empowers the Judge to ask any question, in any form, at any time, of any witness or party, about any fact relevant or irrelevant, to discover or obtain proper proof of relevant facts.

66

The question is, whether 'A' committed a crime at Mumbai on a certain day? The fact on that day 'A' was at Chennai, is relevant under which provision of Indian Evidence Act?

  • aSec. 9
  • bSec. 10
  • cSec. 11
  • dSec. 12
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

A plea of alibi (that A was at Chennai when the crime occurred at Mumbai) is relevant under s.11 of the Evidence Act, as it makes a fact in issue highly improbable.

67

In which of the following case did the Supreme Court hold that compelling a person to give his specimen writing will not amount to testimonial compulsion for the purpose of Art. 20(3) of the Constitution of India ?

  • aState of Bombay Vs Kathikalu
  • bYousufali Vs State of Maharashtra
  • cState of U.P. Vs Ram Sewak
  • dRohit Shekhar Vs Narayan Datt Tiwari
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

In State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad (AIR 1961 SC 1808), the Supreme Court held that giving specimen handwriting/signature, thumb impressions etc. does not amount to 'being a witness against himself' under Art.20(3).

68

A non-confessional statement recorded under section 164 of Cr.P.C.-

  • ais a substantive piece of evidence
  • bis not a substantive evidence
  • cmay or may not be substantive evidence depending on the facts & circumstances
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A statement recorded under s.164 Cr.P.C. (non-confessional) is not substantive evidence; it can only be used to corroborate or contradict the maker under ss.157/145 of the Evidence Act.

69

Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, a witness under examination gets the right to refresh his memory?

  • aSec. 158
  • bSec. 159
  • cSec. 160
  • dSec. 162
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 159 of the Evidence Act allows a witness under examination to refresh his memory by referring to writing made at or soon after the time of the transaction.

70

The principle of res-judicata is provided in which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?

  • a140
  • b40
  • c164
  • d160
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 40 of the Evidence Act gives effect to the principle of res judicata, making relevant a previous judgment that bars a second suit/trial.

71

'A' Prosecutes 'B' for stealing a cow from him. 'B' is convicted. 'A' afterwards, sues 'C' for the cow, which 'B' had sold to him before his conviction. What will be the importance of the judgement of 'B's conviction between the suit of 'A' & 'C'?

  • arelevant
  • birrelevant
  • cconclusive proof
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

This is the illustration to s.43 of the Evidence Act: B's conviction is irrelevant between A and C, as judgments other than those in ss.40-42 are irrelevant unless their existence is itself a fact in issue or relevant under some other provision.

72

Statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found is relevant –

  • aCivil proceedings only
  • bCriminal proceedings only
  • cNeither in Civil nor in Criminal proceedings
  • dBoth Civil as well as Criminal Proceedings
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 32 of the Evidence Act makes statements of relevant facts by a person who is dead or cannot be found relevant in both civil and criminal proceedings.

73

Which of the following could be proved as dying declaration after the death of a person?

  • aFIR lodged by the person (deceased).
  • bStatement of the person (deceased) recorded u/s 161 Cr.P.C.
  • cStatement of the person (deceased) recorded by the executive Magistrate.
  • dall of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A dying declaration under s.32(1) is not confined to any particular form; an FIR, a s.161 Cr.P.C. statement, or a statement before an executive Magistrate by the deceased can all be proved as a dying declaration after death. Hence all of these.

74

'A' kills 'C', thinking 'C' as 'B'. 'A' is guilty of offence punishable under section –

  • a301 I.P.C.
  • b304 part-1 I.P.C.
  • c302 I.P.C.
  • d304 part-2 I.P.C.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Where A kills C mistaking him for B, A intended to cause death and is guilty of murder under s.302 IPC; mistake of identity is no defence (s.301 transfers intention but the punishing section is 302).

75

A police officer detains a person in the lock-up despite production of a bail order from the court. The police officer is guilty of –

  • aAbduction
  • bWrongful confinement
  • cWrongful restraint
  • dKidnapping
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Detaining a person in lock-up despite a bail order keeps him confined within circumscribed limits, constituting wrongful confinement (s.340/342 IPC), not merely restraint.

76

'Z' is carried off by a tiger, 'A' fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill 'Z', but not intending to kill 'Z', and in good faith intending 'Z''s benefit. 'A''s bullet gives 'Z' a mortal wound-

  • a'A' has committed the offence of murder as the malice travels with the bullet
  • b'A' has attempted to murder 'Z' & wild life animal the Tiger
  • c'A' has committed no offence
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

This is Illustration to s.81 IPC (act likely to cause harm but done without criminal intent to prevent greater harm). Saving Z from the tiger in good faith for Z's benefit is protected; A commits no offence.

77

Under Indian Penal Code fabricating false evidence has been defined in

  • aSection 191
  • bSection 192
  • cSection 193
  • dSection 197
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 192 IPC defines 'fabricating false evidence'. (Section 191 defines giving false evidence; 193 prescribes punishment.)

78

Which of the following is not an offence?

  • aSuicide
  • bMurder
  • cPreparation to dacoity
  • dAttempt to murder
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Suicide (the completed act) is not punishable as an offence under IPC; only attempt to suicide (s.309) was. Murder, preparation to commit dacoity (s.399) and attempt to murder (s.307) are all offences.

79

'A' instigates 'B' to bum 'Z's house. 'B' sets fire of the home and the same time commits theft of the property there. 'A' is guilty of-

  • aAbetting burning of 'Z's house only
  • bAbetting burning of house & theft
  • ctheft only
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under s.111 IPC the abettor is liable for the act abetted and any other act that is a probable consequence of the abetment. Burning the house and theft committed in the course are probable consequences, so A is guilty of abetting both (per Illustration to s.111).

80

Which offence does not require of minimum number of 5 persons?

  • aRioting
  • bAffray
  • cDacoity
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Affray (s.159 IPC) requires only two or more persons fighting in a public place. Rioting (s.146) needs an unlawful assembly of five or more (s.141), and dacoity (s.391) requires five or more persons.

81

Which one of these is not a mode of abetment under the Indian Penal Code ?

  • aAttempt
  • bAiding
  • cInstigation
  • dConspiracy
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 107 IPC recognises three modes of abetment: instigation, conspiracy and intentional aiding. 'Attempt' is not a mode of abetment.

82

"Voyeurism" is punishable under section................. of Indian Penal Code.है।

  • a354-A
  • b354-B
  • c354-C
  • d376-A
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Voyeurism is defined and punishable under Section 354-C IPC (inserted by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013).

83

"A" sends a mobile phone to his friend through his servant "B". The servant took the phone to his house and used it over a period of time. "B" is guilty of the offence of –

  • aTheft
  • bCriminal Misappropriation of property
  • cCriminal breach of trust
  • dCheating
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The phone was entrusted to the servant B for delivery; his dishonest conversion of property entrusted to him constitutes criminal breach of trust (s.405/406 IPC), not mere theft or misappropriation.

84

'Z', the doorkeeper of 'Y', is standing 'Y's doorway. 'A' commits house trespass by entering the house, having deterred 'Z' from opposing him by threatening to beat him. 'A' has committed?

  • aHouse-trespass
  • bCriminal-trespass
  • cLurking house-trespass
  • dHouse-breaking
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Effecting entry into a house by deterring the doorkeeper through threat of assault falls within the definition of house-breaking under s.445 IPC (entry effected by intimidation/threat of assault).

85

Which section will be attracted if a public servant, commits rape on a woman in his custody?

  • aSec. 376(2)(a) of IPC
  • bSec. 376(2)(d)
  • cSec. 376(2)(g)
  • dSec. 376(2)(b)
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Rape by a public servant on a woman in his custody (custodial rape) is covered by s.376(2)(b) IPC. [s.376(2)(a) is a police officer; (g) is gang rape pre-2013 / s.376D.]

86

Can a person commit a breach of trust for his own property?

  • aYes
  • bNo
  • cIt will depend upon facts of the case
  • dIt will depend upon discretion of the Court
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Criminal breach of trust under s.405 IPC requires entrustment of another's property; one cannot commit breach of trust over one's own property. Hence 'No'.

87

In which case Hon'ble Supreme Court has directed to pay minimum compensation of Rs. 3,00,000/- per acid attack victim

  • aLaxmi Vs. Union of India
  • bSujoy Mitra Vs. State of West Bengal
  • cVennagot Anuradha Samir Vs. Vennagot Mohandas Samir
  • dIndra Vijay Alok Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

In Laxmi v. Union of India (2013/2015) the Supreme Court directed payment of minimum compensation of Rs. 3,00,000 to each acid attack victim by the State/UT.

88

The offence of Section 361 IPC is basically against –

  • afamily
  • bsociety
  • cany person
  • dlawful guardian
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 361 IPC (kidnapping from lawful guardianship) is an offence essentially against the lawful guardian, since it requires taking/enticing a minor or person of unsound mind out of the keeping of the lawful guardian.

89

The Court, after the commencement of prosecution evidence allow the Assistant public prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution, the accused shall be-

  • aReleased
  • bDischarged
  • cAcquitted
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under s.321 CrPC, where withdrawal from prosecution is permitted after the charge has been framed (after commencement of evidence), the accused shall be acquitted.

90

There shall be no appeal by convicted in following -

  • aWhere a Magistrate of 1st class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding one hundred rupees
  • bWhere a Court of Session passes only a sentence of imprisonment for term not exceeding three months
  • cWhere a High Court passes only a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 376 CrPC bars appeal in petty cases; where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding one hundred rupees, no appeal lies.

91

If the person who is competent to compound offence is dead, the compounding -

  • aCannot be done
  • bCan be done by the legal representative of the deceased without the permission of the court
  • cCan be done by the legal representative of the deceased only with the permission of the court
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under s.320(4)(b) CrPC, where the person competent to compound is dead, the legal representative may compound the offence only with the consent of the court.

92

If after the evidence, in the opinion of magistrate accused is guilty, in which he does not have the right to punish the accused with the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence, then under what section with written opinion he can submit his proceedings and forward the accused to the Chief Judicial Magistrate –

  • aSection 321 Cr.P.C.
  • bSection 322 Cr.P.C.
  • cSection 323 Cr.P.C.
  • dSection 325 Cr.P.C.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 325 CrPC: where the Magistrate finds the accused guilty but considers his sentencing powers inadequate, he records the proceedings and forwards the accused to the Chief Judicial Magistrate.

93

Under Criminal Procedure Code in which section provision of security for good behaviour from habitual house breaker offenders is made –

  • aSection 106
  • bSection 107
  • cSection 109
  • dSection 110
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 110 CrPC provides for security for good behaviour from habitual offenders, including habitual house-breakers/robbers/thieves.

94

Statements recorded during investigation under section 161 Criminal Procedure Code by the police –

  • acannot be used for any purpose during the trial
  • bcan only be used for corroborating a witness
  • ccan only be used for contradicting a witness
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under s.162 CrPC, statements recorded under s.161 during investigation can be used only to contradict a prosecution witness (and not for corroboration), subject to the proviso.

95

Pardon may be tendered to an accomplice under section 306 Cr.P.C. when

  • ahe is not in a position to stand trial due to infirm health
  • bhe is declared insane
  • che undertakes to make full and true disclosure of the facts relating to the offence
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Under s.306 CrPC pardon is tendered on condition that the accomplice makes a full and true disclosure of the whole circumstances of the offence.

96

Which of the section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, provides that the person accused of an offence shall be a competent defence witness?

  • a312
  • b313
  • c314
  • d315
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 315 CrPC provides that an accused person shall be a competent witness for the defence.

97

“If the succeeding Judicial magistrate is of opinion that further examination of any of Page - 15 www.LinkingLaws.com Get Subscription Now the witnesses whose evidence has already been recorded, is necessary in the interests of justice, he may re-summon any such witness, and after such further examination, cross- examination and reexamination, if any, as he may permit, the witness shall be discharged." This provision is mentioned under section........................................... of Criminal Procedure Code.

  • a326
  • b325
  • c311
  • d319
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The quoted provision (succeeding magistrate re-summoning witnesses whose evidence was already recorded) is the proviso to Section 326 CrPC.

98

What is minimum period of imprisonment for releasing on bail under section 436A of Criminal Procedure Code?

  • a1/4 of maximum period of imprisonment
  • b1/2 of maximum period of imprisonment
  • c1/3 of maximum period of imprisonment
  • dNo period is prescribed
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under s.436A CrPC, an undertrial who has been detained for one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence shall be released on bail.

99

If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, he under Section 202 Cr.P.C. postponing the issue of process against the accused ––

  • ashall commit the case to the Court of Session
  • bmay direct an investigation to be made by a police officer
  • cshall call upon the complainant to produce all his witnesses and examine them on oath
  • dshall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Proviso to s.202(2) CrPC: where the offence is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, the Magistrate shall call upon the complainant to produce all his witnesses and examine them on oath.

100

Plea Bargaining is applicable to offences other than offence for which the punishment of death or of imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding..................years has been provided.

  • aSeven years
  • bFive years
  • cTwo years
  • dThree years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under s.265A CrPC plea bargaining applies to offences other than those punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.

101

Under Section 313 of Cr.P.C. the statement of the accused –

  • awill be recorded on oath
  • bwill be recorded without oath
  • ceither on oath or without oath as per the discretion of the Court
  • dCourt can exempt from oath
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Section 313 CrPC, the accused's examination is recorded without administering oath, and the accused shall not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer or by giving false answers (Sec. 313(2) & (3)).

102

Who can issue search warrant in respect of postal or telegraph authority ?

  • aDistrict Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate
  • bAny Civil Court of competent jurisdiction
  • cRevenue Court of competent jurisdiction
  • dOnly High Court
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 92 CrPC, only a District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate may issue a direction/search warrant requiring a postal or telegraph authority to deliver documents/parcels (other courts may only direct search if needed for a proceeding).

103

In the Indian Constitution, Criminal Procedure Code is included in the –

  • aState List
  • bConcurrent List
  • cUnion List
  • dResiduary List
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Criminal Procedure and Criminal Law fall under the Concurrent List (Entries 1 and 2 of List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

104

The maximum amount which may be awarded as interim compensation under Section 143A of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is :-

  • a10 percent of the amount of cheque
  • b20 percent of the amount of cheque
  • c30 percent of the amount of cheque
  • d40 percent of the amount of cheque
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 143A(2) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 caps interim compensation at twenty percent (20%) of the cheque amount.

105

Under Section 97 of Negotiable Instruments Act when the party to whom notice of dishonour is dispatched is dead, but the party dispatching the notice is ignorant of his death, then :-

  • aThe Notice is insufficient
  • bThe Notice is sufficient
  • cNotice shall be given to legal representative
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Section 97 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, where the party to whom notice of dishonour is despatched is dead, but the party despatching the notice is ignorant of his death, the notice is sufficient.

106

According to Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which is not a "Negotiable Instrument"?

  • aInstrument of Debt
  • bPromissory Note
  • cBill of exchange
  • dCheque
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 13 of the NI Act defines a negotiable instrument as a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque. An 'instrument of debt' is not listed and is therefore not a negotiable instrument.

107

Which of the following presumption is prescribed u/s. 118 Negotiable Instruments Act?

  • aOf consideration
  • bAs to date
  • cAs to time of acceptance
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 118 of the NI Act raises several presumptions — as to consideration, date, time of acceptance, time of transfer, order of indorsements, stamp, and that the holder is a holder in due course. Hence 'all of these'.

108

In which section of Negotiable Instruments Act "holder in due course" is defined ?

  • aSection 7
  • bSection 10
  • cSection 9
  • dSection 13
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

'Holder in due course' is defined in Section 9 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

109

Who was the first known Gupta ruler?

  • aSrigupta
  • bChandragupta-l
  • cGhatotakacha
  • dKumargupta-I
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Sri Gupta (Srigupta) is the first known/earliest ruler of the Gupta dynasty, founder of the line, followed by Ghatotkacha and then Chandragupta I.

110

Which country is the leading producer of Coconut ?

  • aIndia
  • bIndonesia
  • cMalaysia
  • dThailand
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Indonesia is the world's leading producer of coconut, followed by the Philippines and India.

111

Parkinson's disease relates to -

  • aNervous System
  • bBones
  • cEyes
  • dChest
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Parkinson's disease is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system (loss of dopamine-producing neurons), affecting movement.

112

Jamshed-e-Navroz festival is celebrated by –

  • aBy Sikh Community
  • bBy Hindu Community
  • cBy Buddha Community
  • dBy Parsi Community
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Jamshed-e-Navroz (Navroze) is the Parsi (Zoroastrian) New Year festival, celebrated by the Parsi community.

113

Pulitzer prize is given in the field of –

  • aMusic
  • bGam
  • cJournalism
  • dChemistry
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The Pulitzer Prize is awarded for achievements in journalism (as well as letters, drama and music), and is best known as a journalism award.

114

Blood corpuscles are formed in the :-

  • aliver
  • bkidney
  • csmall intestine
  • dbone marrow
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Blood corpuscles (red and white blood cells) are formed in the bone marrow in adults (haematopoiesis).

115

Which of the following is known as the Morning Star?

  • aMars
  • bVenus
  • cJupiter
  • dSaturn
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Venus is known as the 'Morning Star' (and 'Evening Star') because of its brightness when visible near sunrise/sunset.

116

As per the newspaper reports Government of India has finally agreed to purchase advanced MR/MRS for its naval forces. What are these MRMRs ?

  • aAircrafts
  • bWarships
  • cSubmarines
  • dRadar Systems
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

MR/MRMR refers to Medium Range Maritime Reconnaissance aircraft acquired for the Indian Navy; they are aircraft.

117

Iodine Test is used to detect-

  • acholesterol
  • bFat
  • cProtein
  • dCarbohydrate
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The iodine test detects starch/carbohydrate — iodine turns blue-black in the presence of starch.

118

Who is the recipient of 2018 Nobel prize for literature?

  • aJames P. Alisan and Nadia Murad dung
  • bFrancois Jacob and Andreww Z. Fire
  • cJacques Monod and George P. Smith
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The 2018 Nobel Prize in Literature was postponed and not awarded in 2018 (Swedish Academy scandal); it was conferred in 2019 on Olga Tokarczuk. The listed names are not literature laureates, so 'None of these'.

119

Raja Bhoj is related with the Dynasty of ––

  • aParmar
  • bGupta
  • cChola
  • dChalukya
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Raja Bhoj of Dhar was the most famous ruler of the Parmar (Paramara) dynasty of Malwa.

120

Who is the recipient of national Kalidas Samman in the year 2018?

  • aAnupam Kher
  • bAnjolie Ela Menon
  • cAbhijeet Bhattacharya
  • dRaj Bisaria
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The 2018 National Kalidas Samman (Visual Arts) was conferred on painter Anjolie Ela Menon. Raj Bisaria received it for 2015-16 (theatre), not 2018.

121

The words "Satyameva Jayate" inscribed in Devnagri Script below the State Emblem of India are taken from......?

  • aYajurveda
  • bRigveda
  • cSamveda
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

'Satyameva Jayate' is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad (part of the Atharvaveda), not from the Yajur/Rig/Sama Veda; hence 'None of these'.

122

Indian origin Harjit Sajjan has been sworn in as Defence Minister of which country?

  • aAustralia
  • bMauritius
  • cCanada
  • dSingapore
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Harjit Singh Sajjan, of Indian origin, was sworn in as Defence Minister of Canada (in Justin Trudeau's cabinet).

123

Under whose chairmanship the 15th Finance Commission has been constituted by the Union government?

  • aArvind Mehta
  • bRamesh Chandra
  • cShaktikanta Das
  • dN.K. Singh
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The 15th Finance Commission was constituted in November 2017 under the chairmanship of N.K. Singh.

124

DNA finger printing was developed by :-

  • aDr. Alec Jefferey
  • bJames Watson
  • cFranciss Crick
  • dFriedrich Miescher
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

DNA fingerprinting was developed by Dr. Alec Jeffreys in 1984 at the University of Leicester.

125

The date on which full Constitution of India came into force –

  • a26th November, 1949
  • b15th August, 1947
  • c8th August, 1945
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Constitution of India came fully into force on 26th January 1950 (Republic Day). None of the listed dates (26 Nov 1949 is adoption; 15 Aug 1947 independence) is the date it came fully into force, so 'None of these'.

126

Bansagar Project is situated on which river?

  • aSone
  • bNarmada
  • cChambal
  • dKen
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Bansagar (Ban Sagar) Dam is built on the Sone (Son) river in Madhya Pradesh, near the border with UP and Bihar.

127

Who was the youngest revolutionary to be awarded death sentence?

  • aKhudiram Bose
  • bBhagat Singh
  • cSukhdev
  • dRajguru
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Khudiram Bose was hanged on 11 August 1908 at the age of 18 in the Muzaffarpur conspiracy case, making him the youngest revolutionary to receive a death sentence.

128

Which lie on either side of McMahon Line –

  • aPakistan & Afghanistan
  • bNorth Korea & South Korea
  • cFrance & Germany
  • dIndia & China
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The McMahon Line is the boundary line between India and China (Tibet) demarcated at the 1914 Simla Convention.

129

What type of device is a computer printer?

  • aInput
  • bOutput
  • cStorage
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A printer produces output (printed pages) from the computer, so it is an output device.

130

When you save to.................., your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.

  • aRAM
  • bmother board
  • csecondary storage device
  • dprimary storage device
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Secondary storage (e.g., hard disk) is non-volatile and retains data even when the computer is switched off, unlike RAM/primary storage.

131

A.I. in Computer field means-

  • aAir India
  • bAntemortem injury
  • cArtificial Intelligence
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

In the computer field, A.I. stands for Artificial Intelligence.

132

You can use....................to copy select text, and.....................................................to paste it in a document.

  • aCTRL+C, CTRL+V
  • bCTRL+C, CTRL+P
  • cCTRL+S, CTRL+S
  • dSHIFT+C, ALT+P
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

CTRL+C copies selected text and CTRL+V pastes it.

133

Which command is used to add a new slide in the current presentation in power point?

  • aCtrl+N
  • bCtrl+M
  • cCtrl+O
  • dCtrl+D
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

In PowerPoint, Ctrl+M inserts a new slide into the current presentation.

134

Computer Language JAVA was developed by :-

  • aIBM
  • bMicrosoft
  • cInfosystem
  • dSun micro system
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The JAVA programming language was developed by Sun Microsystems (James Gosling et al.) in 1995.

135

A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to another Person's Computers to get information illegally or to do damage is a?

  • aSpammer
  • bHacker
  • cProgrammer
  • dAnalyst
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

A hacker uses expertise to gain unauthorized access to others' computers to steal information or cause damage.

136

Which of the following comprise the input devices?

  • akey board
  • bmouse
  • cboth key board and mouse
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Both the keyboard and the mouse are input devices.

137

Which of the following lies within the CPU?

  • aprimary Memory
  • bsecondary Memory
  • cmouse
  • dkeyboard
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Primary memory (registers/cache, and conceptually main memory closely tied to the CPU) lies within/alongside the CPU; among the options, primary memory is correct as secondary memory, mouse and keyboard are external.

138

In computing, 1 nibble is equal to :-

  • a4 bit
  • b4 bytes
  • c8 bytes
  • d4 kilo bytes
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

1 nibble equals 4 bits (half a byte).

139

One who walks in sleep is: -

  • ahypocrite
  • bimposter
  • csomnambulist
  • dsarcastic
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

A somnambulist is a person who walks in their sleep (sleepwalker).

140

Identify the sentence which is not written in passive voice

  • aUtmost care has to be taken.
  • bBeing a student, you must work hard.
  • cHe was being chased.
  • dThe case has been set aside by the court
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

"Being a student, you must work hard" is in the active voice; the other three sentences use passive constructions (has to be taken, was being chased, has been set aside).

141

One who looks on without participating means

  • aSnoozing
  • bSleeping
  • cBlindfold
  • dOnlooker
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

One who looks on without participating is an onlooker (spectator).

142

Synonyms of Lethal -

  • aUnlawful
  • bDeadly
  • cSluggish
  • dSmooth
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Lethal means deadly/fatal.

143

Choose the correctly spelt word :-

  • aCorrigendum
  • bCorigendum
  • cCorringdum
  • dCorrindum
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

"Corrigendum" is the correctly spelt word (a thing to be corrected, esp. an error in a printed book).

144

Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/ phrase- "Spick and span"

  • aTo have a double policy
  • bUnsafe and unattended
  • cNeat and clean
  • dTo remain undecided
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

"Spick and span" means neat and clean / spotlessly clean.

145

Give the synonyms of the word Abstruse-

  • aVisible
  • bHidden
  • cClear
  • dSuitable
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Abstruse means difficult to understand, obscure or hidden; the closest synonym is 'Hidden'.

146

Reckless is to rash what anomalous is to -

  • aUnsatisfactory
  • bDeviant
  • cHarsh
  • dAncestor
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Reckless is a synonym of rash; analogously, anomalous is a synonym of deviant (departing from the normal).

147

The jury was able to see through the................arguments of the defence lawyers.

  • aStoic
  • bCynic
  • cSpecious
  • dPrecious
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Specious arguments appear plausible but are actually false/misleading, which the jury was able to see through.

148

The term used for "Killings ones brother" is -

  • aSuicide
  • bFratricide
  • cPatricide
  • dMatricide
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Killing one's brother is termed fratricide (patricide=father, matricide=mother, suicide=self).

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