Uttar Pradesh Judiciary — Prelims 2023

Correct answer: C

Rajes Kanta Roy v. Santi Debi, AIR 1957 SC 255, laid down the principle of vested interest under the TPA, holding that postponement of enjoyment does not make an interest contingent and courts lean in favour of vesting.

Correct answer: B

Section 51 TPA embodies the doctrine of improvements: a transferee in good faith believing himself absolutely entitled is, on eviction, entitled to the value of the improvements he has made.

Correct answer: D

Under the second proviso to Section 35 TPA, compensation to the disappointed transferee arises only where the transfer is gratuitous and the transferor has died/become incapable before election (1), or where the transfer is for consideration whether the transferor has died (3) or is alive (4). Item 2 (gratuitous, transferor alive) is excluded, so 1, 3, 4.

Correct answer: B

Subrogation = s.92 TPA (4), Doctrine of Consideration/marshalling-related context here maps to s.61 (3), Accumulation = s.17 (1), Lis pendens = s.52 (2): giving A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

Correct answer: B

'Res nullius' is a Latin maxim meaning a thing belonging to no one, i.e. ownerless property.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 54 TPA, sale is transfer of ownership in exchange for a price (consideration). 'Without consideration' is therefore NOT an essential element of sale.

Correct answer: A

Section 12 TPA (condition making interest determinable on insolvency/attempted alienation being void) does not apply to a condition in a lease for the benefit of the lessor; the proviso expressly saves leases.

Correct answer: A

Section 137 TPA provides that the Chapter on actionable claims does not apply to stocks, shares or debentures (nor to negotiable instruments or mercantile documents of title), so all three are excluded.

Correct answer: D

Section 9 TPA provides that a transfer of property may be made orally (oral transfer) in all cases where writing is not expressly required by law.

Correct answer: A

Holding over = Lease (3), Universal donee = Gift (2), Redemption = Mortgage (1), Purchases = Sale (4): giving A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4.

Correct answer: D

Part performance = s.53A (2), Conditional transfer here maps to s.25 (4), Appointment of receiver = s.69A (3), Implied contracts by mortgagor = s.65 (1): giving A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1.

Correct answer: C

Vested interest is governed by Section 19 TPA, not Section 21 (which is contingent interest). The other pairs (s.6 what may be transferred, s.9 oral transfer, s.45 joint transfer for consideration) are correct, so (c) is the wrongly-matched pair.

Correct answer: B

Fraudulent transfer = s.53 (4), Election when necessary = s.35 (2), Rule against perpetuity = s.14 (1), Conditional transfer = s.25 (3): giving A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3.

Correct answer: A

Section 18 TPA permits transfer in perpetuity for the benefit of the public (religious, charitable, etc.); both A and R are true and R (public welfare prevails over individual) correctly explains A.

Correct answer: D

Section 85A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides the presumption as to electronic agreements concluded by affixing digital signatures of the parties.

Correct answer: D

Section 134 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that no particular number of witnesses is required for proof of any fact; the law is not specified as to number ('evidence is to be weighed, not counted').

Correct answer: C

List-II: 47A=1, 88A=2, 22A=3, 67A=4. Opinion as to digital signature = 47A (1), Proof as to digital signature = 67A (4), Presumption as to digital/electronic messages = 88A (2), Electronic Records = 22A (3): giving A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

Correct answer: A

s.45 = Expert opinion (4), s.85 = Presumption as to Power of Attorney (3), s.45A = Opinion of Examiner of Electronic Evidence (1), s.23 = Admission in Civil cases when relevant (2): giving A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

Correct answer: B

Confidential communications with legal advisers is Section 129 (not 127) of the Indian Evidence Act; Section 127 merely extends s.126 to interpreters/clerks. Hence pair (b) is wrongly matched.

Correct answer: A

The illustration about a barrister instructed that a witness is a dacoit being reasonable ground to ask the question is Illustration (b) to Section 149 of the Indian Evidence Act (reasonable grounds for questions in cross-examination).

Correct answer: C

In Pakala Narayana Swami v. King Emperor (1939), the Privy Council (Lord Atkin) held that a confession must either admit in terms the offence or substantially all the facts constituting the offence.

Correct answer: C

Presumption as to dowry death is Section 113B (not 113A, which is abetment of suicide by a married woman) of the Indian Evidence Act, so pair (c) is wrongly matched.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act, evidence given by a witness unable to speak who writes it in open court is deemed to be oral evidence.

Correct answer: C

Section 112 governs the presumption of legitimacy, and Narendra Nath Pahari v. Ram Govind Pahari is a recognised leading case on legitimacy of a child born during a valid marriage; both statements are true.

Correct answer: A

Section 90A (presumption as to electronic records five years old) uses the words 'the Court may presume', making it a rebuttable presumption of fact, not of law.

Correct answer: D

Primary evidence=S62, Public document=S74, Private document=S75, Secondary evidence=S63. Thus A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4.

Correct answer: C

Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act defines 'Admission', not 'Relevant Fact'; hence (c) is incorrectly matched.

Correct answer: A

Hostile witness=S154, Dying Declaration=S32(1), Refreshing Memory=S159, Leading Questions=S141. Thus A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4.

Correct answer: C

Facts establishing the identity of a person (identification proceedings) are relevant under Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act.

Correct answer: C

Interpretation Clause=S3, Facts not otherwise relevant becoming relevant=S11, Burden of Proof=S105, Facts forming part of same transaction=S6. Thus A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Correct answer: D

Facts showing existence of state of mind such as knowledge are relevant under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act.

Correct answer: B

Order of examination (S138): Examination-in-chief (II), then Cross-examination (I), then Re-examination (III); so II, I and III.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 5, evidence may be given of facts in issue and of relevant facts; both 1 and 2.

Correct answer: A

Admission is not conclusive proof (S31) but may operate as estoppel; both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.

Correct answer: B

S146 IPC=Rioting, S340=Wrongful confinement, S192=Fabricating false evidence, S383=Extortion. Thus A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2.

Correct answer: D

Theft committed while the offender is armed with a deadly weapon kept to cause hurt if resisted constitutes robbery, defined under Section 390 IPC.

Correct answer: C

Robbery is defined under Section 390 IPC (S389 deals with putting a person in fear of accusation to commit extortion), so the pair Robbery-S389 is wrong.

Correct answer: A

Ascending section order: Communication in good faith (S93, III), Sedition (S124A, I), Public Nuisance (S268, IV), House Trespass (S442, II) = III, I, IV, II.

Correct answer: B

Explanation 1 to Section 124A IPC: the expression 'disaffection' includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity.

Correct answer: C

Flagged: question/options imprecise. A 9-year-old may be liable under S83 only if of mature understanding, but R's claim that all children below 12 are exempt is wrong (absolute exemption is below 7 under S82); best fit is A true but R false.

Correct answer: C

A hangman executing a sentence pursuant to a court's order is protected under Section 78 IPC (act done pursuant to the judgment or order of a Court).

Correct answer: A

Causing death by negligence=S304A, Dowry death=S304B, Abetment to suicide=S306, Attempt to commit suicide=S309. Thus A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Correct answer: B

R. v. Dudley and Stephens (1884) is the leading case on the defence of necessity (cannibalism at sea).

Correct answer: A

Ascending order: Public Servant (S21, IV), Dishonestly (S24, III), Fraudulently (S25, II), Document (S29, I) = IV, III, II, I.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 73 IPC, solitary confinement shall in no case exceed fourteen days at a time.

Correct answer: A

The IPC (Ch. IV, General Exceptions) contains exemptions because criminal liability cannot be universal in all circumstances; both true and R explains A.

Correct answer: B

Section 340 IPC defines Wrongful confinement, so (b) is correctly matched (124A=sedition, 350=criminal force, 354C=voyeurism).

Correct answer: A

S463=Forgery, S445=House-breaking, S441=Criminal trespass, S503=Criminal intimidation. Thus A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.

Correct answer: D

The elements of crime are human being, mens rea, actus reus and injury; 'Object' is not an element.

Correct answer: D

120A=Criminal conspiracy, 124A=Sedition, 295A=Deliberate and malicious acts outraging religious feelings, 354C=Voyeurism. Thus A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

Correct answer: D

A had no legal duty to rescue the stranger child; mere omission to save, absent a legal duty (s.32 IPC), is not an offence. Hence no offence.

Correct answer: A

Delivery of property = Extortion (4); Taking of property = Theft (3); Entrustment of property = Criminal breach of trust (1); Convertibility of property got innocently to one's own use = Criminal misappropriation (2). A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2.

Correct answer: D

Disclosure/publication of the identity of a rape victim is punishable under Section 228A IPC, 1860.

Correct answer: C

Intention to create legal relations, knowledge of the offer and acceptance of the offer are essential; writing is generally not required. So 1, 2 & 4.

Correct answer: A

Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act: agreements the meaning of which is not certain, and is not capable of being made certain, are void.

Correct answer: B

s.16 = Undue influence (3); s.71 = Finder of goods/responsibility of finder (4); s.2(d) = Consideration (1); s.56 = Agreement to do impossible act (2). A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2.

Correct answer: D

Responsibility of finder of goods is Section 71 of the Indian Contract Act (correctly matched). Revocation is s.5/s.6, acceptance absolute is s.7, competence is s.11.

Correct answer: A

s.2(h)/2(g): agreements enforceable by law are contracts, and agreements not enforceable are void. Both true; R correctly explains A.

Correct answer: A

Tweddle v. Atkinson (1861) is the leading authority on the doctrine of privity of contract (a stranger to consideration/contract cannot sue).

Correct answer: B

Under s.2(c) of the Indian Contract Act, the person accepting the proposal is the 'promisee' (the proposer is the 'promisor').

Correct answer: D

Sequence under the Act: Offer/proposal -> Acceptance -> Promise -> Agreement -> Contract = (A),(E),(C),(D),(B).

Correct answer: A

Per s.2(h), an agreement enforceable by law is a contract; every agreement is not a contract.

Correct answer: A

An invitation to tender is merely an invitation to offer (not an offer); a tender submitted in response is the offer. Both true; R correctly explains A.

Correct answer: A

Section 24, Indian Contract Act: if any part of a single consideration/object is unlawful, the whole agreement is void.

Correct answer: A

Section 25(3): a written, signed promise to pay a time-barred debt is a valid contract (an exception to the no-consideration rule).

Correct answer: B

List-II order: 1=s.2(d), 2=s.2(g), 3=s.2(i), 4=s.2(h). Voidable contract=s.2(i)=3; Contract=s.2(h)=4; Void agreement=s.2(g)=2; Consideration=s.2(d)=1. A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1 = option b.

Correct answer: A

Taylor v. Caldwell (1863) is the leading case on the doctrine of frustration/impossibility (supervening impossibility under s.56).

Correct answer: B

Section 39 CPC deals with transfer of decree for execution to another competent court.

Correct answer: C

By section number: Res Judicata s.11 (II), Institution of Suits s.26 (I), Legal representative s.50 (III), Arrest and detention s.55+ (IV) -> II, I, III, IV.

Correct answer: B

Section 89 CPC provides for settlement of disputes outside the court (arbitration, conciliation, mediation, Lok Adalat).

Correct answer: B

Adjournment = Order 17 (2); Execution of decrees and orders = Order 21 (3); Plaint = Order 7 (4); Affidavit = Order 19 (1). A-2,B-3,C-4,D-1.

Correct answer: C

Section 2(13) CPC defines movable property to include growing crops (it excludes things attached to/forming part of land such as trees/buildings).

Correct answer: A

Section 75 CPC empowers the court to issue commissions, including to examine witnesses and obtain opinions/local investigation.

Correct answer: C

Execution of decree = s.38 (4); Letter of request = s.77 (3); Legal representative = s.50 (1); Institution of suit = s.26 (2). A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2.

Correct answer: C

OCR merged two questions; the live options concern s.96 CPC. No appeal lies from a consent decree under Section 96(3) CPC.

Correct answer: A

Interpleader Suit=Order 35, Judgment & Decree=Order 20, Withdrawal & Adjustment of Suits=Order 23 are all correct; Payment into Court is Order 24, not Order 21. So only 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Correct answer: C

Devilal Modi v. STO, AIR 1965 SC 1150 held that a second writ petition raising pleas that could have been taken earlier is barred by constructive res judicata (Explanation IV to Section 11 CPC principle).

Correct answer: B

Section 57 CPC empowers the State Government to fix scales, graduated by rank, race and nationality, of monthly allowances payable for subsistence of judgment-debtors.

Correct answer: B

Flagged: borderline. Suits for hereditary offices, recovery of dues/offerings (when a legal right is asserted), and specific relief are of civil nature; a suit merely for voluntary offerings without a legal right is not. The accepted UPPCSJ key takes 2, 3 and 4 as civil-nature suits.

Correct answer: C

Section 2(13) CPC defines 'movable property', while 'order' is defined in Section 2(14). Hence 'Section 2(13) CPC - Order' is the incorrectly matched pair.

Correct answer: A

Order VI Rule 2 requires pleadings to state material facts and not evidence (statement 1 correct). Amendment of pleadings is governed by Order VI Rule 17, not Rule 16, so statement 2 is wrong. Only 1 is correct.

Correct answer: B

Section 56 CPC prohibits the arrest or detention in civil prison of a woman in execution of a decree for the payment of money.

Correct answer: A

Settlement outside court=S.89, Suit by/against Government=S.79, Interpleader Suit=S.88, Resistance to execution=S.74; giving A-4(89), B-3(79), C-2(88), D-1(74).

Correct answer: C

Order XX-A CPC (Rules 1-2) deals with 'Costs' in respect of specified miscellaneous expenses such as notices, copying, witnesses, etc.

Correct answer: B

S.11=Res judicata, S.26=Institution of Suits, S.33=Judgment and Decree, S.35B=Costs for causing delay; giving A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Correct answer: D

Under Section 64(1) CPC a private alienation of property after attachment is void as against all claims enforceable under the attachment, subject to sub-section (2).

Correct answer: A

Section 49 CrPC provides that the person arrested shall not be subjected to more restraint than is necessary to prevent escape ('no unnecessary restraint').

Correct answer: C

Contents of charge=S.211, Judgment=S.353, Assistant Public Prosecutor=S.25, Reference to High Court=S.395; giving A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Correct answer: C

Section 305 CrPC lays down the procedure where a corporation or registered society is an accused person.

Correct answer: A

Language of Court=S.272, Compensation to victim=S.357, Classification of offences=1st Schedule, Inherent powers of High Court=S.482; giving A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1.

Correct answer: B

Section 70 CrPC provides that a warrant of arrest remains in force until cancelled or executed; it contains the provision for cancellation of warrants.

Correct answer: B

Inquiry does precede trial (A true) and trial is indeed a later stage of criminal proceedings (R true), but R does not correctly explain the assertion. Both true, R not the correct explanation.

Correct answer: B

Under Section 2(x) CrPC a warrant case is one relating to an offence punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment exceeding two years; hence such an offence is a warrant case.

Correct answer: B

Arrest by Magistrate=S.44, Arrest by private person=S.43, Arrest how made=S.46, Arrest by police officer without warrant=S.41; giving A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1.

Correct answer: D

Section 479 CrPC bars a Judge or Magistrate from trying or committing any case in which he is personally interested.

Correct answer: C

Criminal procedure falls under Entry 2 of the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.

Correct answer: B

Ascending section order: Court of Session (S.9), Special Judicial Magistrate (S.13), Special Metropolitan Magistrate (S.18), Public Prosecutor (S.24) = IV, III, II, I.

Correct answer: C

Under the proviso to Sections 328/329 CrPC (2009 amendment), an accused aggrieved by the psychologist's/psychiatrist's report on his unsoundness of mind may appeal to the Medical Board.

Correct answer: A

Section 473 CrPC deals with extension of period of limitation, not 'Trial by High Court'; hence (a) is the incorrectly matched pair. (Appeal in acquittal=378 and HC rule-making power are correctly matched.)

Correct answer: C

Section 97 CrPC (search for persons wrongfully confined) resembles the writ of habeas corpus, enabling production of a person illegally detained.

Correct answer: B

CrPC: S.41=arrest by police w/o warrant, S.42=arrest on refusal to give name/residence, S.43=arrest by private person, S.44=arrest by Magistrate. Only (b) is correctly matched.

Correct answer: B

Section 45 CrPC grants protection from arrest to members of the Armed Forces for acts done in discharge of official duty (save with Central Govt consent).

Correct answer: A

Duty to register FIR = Rajinder Singh Katoch v. Chandigarh Admn. (1); Laches in investigation = Krishnegowda v. Karnataka (2); Faulty investigation = Saidu Mohammed v. Kerala (3); Delay in examination of witnesses = Surajit Sarkar v. West Bengal (4). Hence A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4.

Correct answer: C

Under Section 9(2) CrPC the Sessions Judge is appointed by the High Court.

Correct answer: D

Anticipatory Bail=S.438(3), Cognizance on complaint=S.190(4), Language of Court=S.272(1), Security for good behaviour from habitual offender=S.110(2). Hence A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2.

Correct answer: C

Under S.155(2) CrPC, a non-cognizable offence may be investigated only with the order of a Magistrate having power to try the case or commit it for trial.

Correct answer: C

Equal Justice & Free Legal Aid=Art 39A(3), Constitution of Parliament=Art 79(4), Separation of Judiciary from Executive=Art 50(1), Fundamental Duties=Art 51A(2). Hence A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2.

Correct answer: C

Article 279A (inserted by 101st Amendment) provides for the Goods and Services Tax Council.

Correct answer: C

RTE is a Fundamental Right (Art 21A). But R is false: the Constitution always had education provisions (Arts 41, 45, 46 DPSP) before 86th Amendment. A true, R false.

Correct answer: C

The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 inserted clause (6) into Article 16 providing EWS reservation in appointments.

Correct answer: B

Right against Exploitation=Art 23-24(3), Equal justice & free legal aid=Art 39A(1), President's pardon power=Art 72(4), Seat of Supreme Court=Art 130(2). Hence A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2.

Correct answer: C

Article 137 empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments/orders.

Correct answer: B

Art 43=Living wage etc. for workers(2), Art 42=just & humane conditions of work and maternity relief(3), Art 44=Uniform Civil Code(4), Art 50=Separation of Judiciary from Executive(1). Hence A-2,B-3,C-4,D-1.

Correct answer: D

On a vacancy by death/resignation/removal, the Vice-President acting as President can do so for a maximum of 6 months, within which a new President must be elected (Art 62).

Correct answer: A

Article 1 deals with 'Name and territory of the Union', not 'Short title of Constitution' (the Constitution has no short-title article). Hence (a) is not correctly matched.

Correct answer: A

Distribution of Legislative power=Arts 245-255(3), Organisation of Village Panchayats=Art 40(1), Extent of executive power of Union=Art 73(2), Parliamentary privileges=Art 105(4). Hence A-3,B-1,C-2,D-4.

Correct answer: A

In P.T. Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma (2007) 6 SCC 59, the Supreme Court, discussing adverse possession, observed that ownership is pre-eminently a right of the owner protected against intrusion.

Correct answer: D

For a custom to have force of law it MUST be continuously enjoyed, so A is false. R (custom represents the consciousness of the people) is true. Hence A false, R true.

Correct answer: A

'The greatest happiness of the greatest number' is the core of Bentham's Utilitarian theory.

Correct answer: C

Of corporate personality theories: Purpose Theory=Ihering(3), Will Theory=Austin(4), Fiction Theory=Salmond(1), Realist Theory=Gierke(2). Hence A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2.

Correct answer: B

An imperfect right (e.g., a time-barred debt) is recognised but not enforceable, forming an exception to 'ubi jus ibi remedium'.

Correct answer: A

'Law, Liberty and Morality' was authored by H.L.A. Hart, not Fuller. Hence (a) is not correctly matched.

Correct answer: C

The concept of 'Living Law' (Lebendes Recht) was expounded by Eugen Ehrlich, founder of the sociology of law.

Correct answer: A

Principal deposits goods with agent=Mediate Possession(2); Buyer purchases books from shopkeeper=Immediate Possession(1); Owner wearing his watch=Corporeal Possession(4); Author's copyright=Incorporeal Possession(3). Hence A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3.

Correct answer: B

Jeremy Bentham stated that 'witnesses are the eyes and ears of justice.'

Correct answer: C

The definition "Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law" is attributed to E.W. Patterson (in his work 'Jurisprudence: Men and Ideas of the Law').

Correct answer: A

Art. 38(1) of the ICJ Statute lets the Court decide ex aequo et bono (equity) if parties agree, and lists 'general principles of law recognized by civilized nations' as a source; equity flows from these, so R correctly explains A.

Correct answer: A

Article 25 of the UN Charter: members agree to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council.

Correct answer: B

International Day of Education = 24 Jan; World Environment Day = 5 June; World Teachers' Day = 5 Oct; International Mother Language Day = 21 Feb. Matching A-1(24 Jan), B-4(5 June), C-2(5 Oct), D-3(21 Feb).

Correct answer: D

The UN theme for Human Rights Day 2021 was 'EQUALITY - Reducing inequalities, advancing human rights'.

Correct answer: C

Article 3 of the UDHR, 1948: 'Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.'

Correct answer: A

Article 2(7) UN Charter bars intervention in matters essentially within domestic jurisdiction, with an express proviso that the principle shall not prejudice enforcement measures under Chapter VII; R is that very proviso, so it correctly explains A.

Correct answer: B

Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibits the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state; the Russian invasion of Ukraine violates it.

Correct answer: A

The Quad Leaders' Summit 2022 was held on 24 May 2022 in Tokyo, Japan.

Correct answer: C

The International Solar Alliance (with Elsevier) launched the open-access journal 'Solar Compass' at COP26 in November 2021.

Correct answer: A

Under Article 96 of the UN Charter, the General Assembly (and the Security Council) may request the ICJ to give an advisory opinion on any legal question.

Correct answer: A

Both statements are true and R explains A: because countries have conflicts/differences (R), international organizations play an important role in maintaining peace (A).

Correct answer: D

Under Article 94(2) of the UN Charter, the Security Council may take measures to give effect to (execute) a judgment of the ICJ.

Correct answer: B

Composition of General Assembly = Art. 9; Security Council = Art. 23; ECOSOC = Art. 61; Trusteeship Council = Art. 86. Thus A-1(Art.9), B-4(Art.23), C-2(Art.61), D-3(Art.86).

Correct answer: D

The headquarters of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is in Geneva, Switzerland.

Correct answer: B

Article 38 of the ICJ Statute enumerates the sources of international law; this is the only correctly matched pair (apartheid means racial segregation not equality, ICJ has 15 judges, and its seat is The Hague).

Correct answer: A

Article 6 of the UN Charter provides for the expulsion of a member state that persistently violates the Charter's principles.

Correct answer: D

Art. 2(7) = Domestic Jurisdiction Clause (4); Art. 4(2) = Admission of a State into UN (1); Art. 33 = Pacific settlement of disputes (2); Art. 36(3) = legal disputes referred to ICJ (3). Hence A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.

Correct answer: B

The 'double veto' arises under Article 27 of the UN Charter, which governs Security Council voting (procedural vs non-procedural questions).

Correct answer: A

Under Article 39 of the ICJ Statute, the official languages of the International Court of Justice are French and English.

Correct answer: B

UNESCO - Paris; ILO - Geneva; IMF - USA (Washington); ICJ - Netherlands (The Hague). With List-II order Geneva(1),USA(2),Netherland(3),Paris(4): UNESCO-4, ILO-1, IMF-2, ICJ-3.