Assam Judiciary Mock Test 8 — Questions & Solutions
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A sum of money becomes double in 8 years at a certain rate of simple interest. In how many years will the same sum become four times of itself at the same rate?
a24 years
b12 years
c32 years
d16 years
Answer: A
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years, so the rate is 12.5% per year. To become four times, the interest must equal three times the principal, requiring 3 x 8 = 24 years.
Select the option that correctly fills the blank in the sentence: "Neither the judge nor the lawyers _____ satisfied with the witness's evasive answers."
awere
bhas been
cis
dwas
Answer: A
In a 'neither...nor' construction the verb agrees with the nearer subject; since 'lawyers' is plural, the correct verb is the plural 'were'.
The capital of Assam was shifted from Shillong to Dispur following the carving out of which neighbouring State?
aMizoram
bManipur
cMeghalaya
dNagaland
Answer: C
After Meghalaya became a full-fledged State in 1972 (with Shillong as its capital), Assam shifted its capital to Dispur, a locality within Guwahati, in 1973.
Charaideo Maidam, inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2024, is associated with the royal burial mounds of which dynasty?
aTai-Ahom dynasty
bKoch dynasty
cKachari dynasty
dChutia dynasty
Answer: A
The Charaideo Maidams are pyramid-like burial mounds of the Tai-Ahom royalty; they became India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site in July 2024 and the first cultural site from the North-East.
The river Brahmaputra is known by which name when it flows through Arunachal Pradesh before entering the plains of Assam?
aSiang (Dihang)
bLohit
cYarlung Tsangpo
dJamuna
Answer: A
Originating from the Angsi glacier in Tibet (where it is the Yarlung Tsangpo), the river enters India through Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang or Dihang, becoming the Brahmaputra in Assam.
Kaziranga National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is best known for conserving the largest population of which animal?
aAsiatic lion
bHoolock gibbon
cSnow leopard
dGreat Indian one-horned rhinoceros
Answer: D
Kaziranga, located in Assam's Golaghat and Nagaon districts, harbours roughly two-thirds of the world's great one-horned rhinoceros population and was inscribed by UNESCO in 1985.
In April 2023, Assam entered the Guinness World Records for the largest performance of which traditional dance, staged at Guwahati's Sarusajai Stadium?
aBihu
bSattriya
cJhumur
dBhortal
Answer: A
More than 11,000 dancers and drummers performed the Bihu dance at Sarusajai Stadium on 13 April 2023, setting a Guinness World Record for the largest Bihu dance.
Who took oath as the Chief Justice of the Gauhati High Court in July 2025?
aJustice Lanusungkum Jamir
bJustice Ashutosh Kumar
cJustice Vijay Bishnoi
dJustice Sudhanshu Dhulia
Answer: B
Justice Ashutosh Kumar was sworn in as the 43rd Chief Justice of the Gauhati High Court on 21 July 2025, with the oath administered by the Governor of Assam.
The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to María Corina Machado for her work in promoting democratic rights in which country?
aCuba
bColombia
cVenezuela
dNicaragua
Answer: C
Venezuelan opposition leader María Corina Machado received the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize for her struggle for a just and peaceful democratic transition in Venezuela.
The territorial jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court presently extends to Assam and which of the following?
aTripura, Meghalaya and Manipur
bOnly Assam
cAll seven sister States and Sikkim
dNagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: D
After separate High Courts were established for Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura in 2013, the Gauhati High Court's jurisdiction covers Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
The writ of Habeas Corpus, which directs production of a detained person before the court, is regarded primarily as a safeguard for which value?
aReligious freedom
bFreedom of trade
cProperty rights
dPersonal liberty
Answer: D
Habeas Corpus ('you may have the body') is described as the bulwark of personal liberty, as it compels the State to justify the legality of a person's detention.
Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency?
aArticle 352
bArticle 365
cArticle 360
dArticle 356
Answer: C
Article 360 deals with the proclamation of a Financial Emergency, distinct from a National Emergency (Article 352) and President's Rule in a State (Article 356).
Who is the author of the famous epic that gave Vaishnavism a strong base in Assam and who founded the Sattra institution?
aHema Saraswati
bMadhav Kandali
cMadhavdev
dSankardev (Srimanta Sankardeva)
Answer: D
Srimanta Sankardeva, the 15th-16th century saint-reformer, propagated Ek-Sarana Naam-Dharma (Neo-Vaishnavism) and established the Sattra monastic institutions and Sattriya dance in Assam.
Fill in the blank with the correct word: The witness gave a ____ account of the incident, leaving no detail out.
avague
bperfunctory
cmeticulous
dcursory
Answer: C
'Meticulous' means showing great attention to detail, which fits an account that leaves no detail out; the other options imply carelessness or vagueness.
The writ which is issued by a High Court to a person holding a public office to show under what authority he holds that office is the writ of-
aMandamus
bQuo warranto
cProhibition
dCertiorari
Answer: B
The writ of quo warranto is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office; if the holder is not entitled, the court can oust him from that office.
Article 21A of the Constitution of India, which makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children of the age of six to fourteen years, was inserted by-
Article 21A was inserted by the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, making free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged six to fourteen years.
Under the Constitution of India, the doctrine of 'double jeopardy' embodied in Article 20(2) provides that-
aNo person shall be convicted except for violation of a law in force at the time of the act
bNo person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself
cNo person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
dNo person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law
Answer: C
Article 20(2) embodies the rule against double jeopardy: no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. Option (b) is Article 20(3) (self-incrimination) and (c) is Article 20(1) (ex post facto).
Article 371B of the Constitution of India makes a special provision with respect to which State?
aAssam
bArunachal Pradesh
cManipur
dNagaland
Answer: A
Article 371B, inserted by the Constitution (Twenty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1971, empowers the President to provide for a committee of the Legislative Assembly of Assam consisting of members elected from the tribal areas. The corresponding special provision for Nagaland is Article 371A.
Under Article 233 of the Constitution of India, the appointment of persons to be district judges in a State is made by the-
aPresident in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
bHigh Court alone
cGovernor of the State in consultation with the High Court
dChief Justice of the High Court
Answer: C
Article 233(1) provides that appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State.
Article 244A of the Constitution of India, inserted by the Twenty-second Amendment, empowers Parliament to form an autonomous State within which State?
aTripura
bAssam
cMeghalaya
dMizoram
Answer: B
Article 244A, inserted by the Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act, 1969, empowers Parliament to form by law an autonomous State comprising certain tribal areas in Assam, with its own Legislature or Council of Ministers or both.
The administration of the tribal areas in the State of Assam through Autonomous District Councils is provided for in which Schedule of the Constitution?
aFifth Schedule
bTenth Schedule
cSeventh Schedule
dSixth Schedule
Answer: D
The Sixth Schedule, read with Article 244(2) and 275(1), provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram through Autonomous District and Regional Councils. The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in other States.
Which Article of the Constitution of India vests in the High Court the control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting and promotion of persons belonging to the judicial service of a State holding posts inferior to that of a District Judge?
aArticle 234
bArticle 237
cArticle 233
dArticle 235
Answer: D
Article 235 vests in the High Court the control over district courts and subordinate courts, including the posting, promotion and grant of leave to members of the judicial service holding posts inferior to that of District Judge.
The concept of the 'Grundnorm' (basic norm) as the ultimate source of validity of a legal system was propounded by
aH.L.A. Hart
bHans Kelsen
cJeremy Bentham
dSavigny
Answer: B
The Austrian jurist Hans Kelsen, in his Pure Theory of Law, conceived the Grundnorm as the foundational norm from which all other norms in a legal order derive their validity.
The view that law is 'the command of the sovereign backed by a sanction' is associated with
aFriedrich Carl von Savigny
bJohn Austin
cRudolf von Jhering
dSir Henry Maine
Answer: B
John Austin's imperative or command theory, a form of analytical positivism, defines law as the command of a determinate sovereign enforced by sanction.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder (whoever commits murder shall be punished with death or imprisonment for life and fine) is provided in:
aSection 302
bSection 101
cSection 105
dSection 103
Answer: D
Section 103(1) of the BNS prescribes death or imprisonment for life, plus fine, for murder; Section 101 only defines when culpable homicide amounts to murder.
A new form of punishment, namely 'community service', has been introduced for the first time in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. The expression 'community service' is, however, defined in:
aThe Explanation to Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
bSection 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
cSection 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
dSection 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
Answer: A
Community service is listed as a punishment under Section 4 BNS, but the definition (unpaid work benefiting the community, ordered by the court) appears in the Explanation to Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'dowry death' (death of a woman within seven years of marriage in connection with a demand for dowry) is dealt with under:
aSection 80
bSection 85
cSection 86
dSection 304-B
Answer: A
Section 80 BNS reproduces the old Section 304-B IPC; the minimum punishment is seven years which may extend to imprisonment for life.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention in police custody that a Magistrate may authorise (whether at once or in parts) in respect of an accused is:
a7 days
b15 days
c30 days
d10 days
Answer: B
Section 187 BNSS retains the ceiling of 15 days police custody, but now it may be sought in parts during the first 40 or 60 days of the total 60/90-day detention period.
Community service has been introduced as a form of punishment for the first time under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. It is enumerated among the punishments in-
aSection 8
bSection 4
cSection 6
dSection 53
Answer: B
Section 4 of the BNS lists the punishments, and clause (f) introduces 'community service' as a new category of sentence, applied to certain petty offences such as first-time small-value theft under Section 303(2).
The offence of cheating, which corresponded to Section 420 of the old Indian Penal Code, is now contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 318
bSection 420
cSection 316
dSection 415
Answer: A
Section 318 of the BNS now consolidates the provisions on cheating, including cheating with dishonest inducement to deliver property, which was earlier Section 420 of the IPC.
The offence of defamation, earlier punishable under Section 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code, is now provided for under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 499
bSection 351
cSection 356
dSection 354
Answer: C
Section 356 of the BNS deals with defamation, corresponding to Sections 499 and 500 of the old IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an act done by a person who, by reason of intoxication, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act is NOT an offence only when-
aThe intoxicant was administered to him without his knowledge or against his will
bHe voluntarily consumed liquor
cHe had consumed only a small quantity
dHe was a habitual drinker
Answer: A
Section 23 of the BNS exempts only involuntary intoxication, that is, where the intoxicant was administered without the person's knowledge or against his will. Voluntary intoxication is not a defence.
Under Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023, no arrest of a person who is infirm or above the age of sixty years shall be made, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of less than three years, without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:
aDeputy Superintendent of Police
bSuperintendent of Police
cOfficer in charge of the police station
dDistrict Magistrate
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 35(7) BNSS requires the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police before arresting an infirm person or one above sixty years for an offence punishable with less than three years' imprisonment.
Under Section 173(3) of the BNSS, 2023, where a complaint relates to a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists, within:
aThirty days
bSeven days
cTwenty-one days
dFourteen days
Answer: D
Section 173(3) BNSS permits a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days for offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years; this preliminary enquiry option had no express counterpart in the CrPC.
Section 105 of the BNSS, 2023, introduces a new safeguard requiring that the process of search and seizure, including preparation of the list of seized articles and signing by witnesses, be:
aCounter-signed by the District Superintendent of Police
bRecorded through audio-video electronic means and forwarded to the Magistrate
cCarried out only during daytime hours
dConducted only in the presence of a Magistrate
Answer: B
Section 105 BNSS mandates audio-video recording (preferably by mobile phone) of search and seizure and its forwarding to the concerned Magistrate without delay — a safeguard absent in the CrPC.
Under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023, a trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial may commence only after the expiry of:
aSixty days from the date of recording evidence
bNinety days from the date of framing of the charge
cThirty days from the date of issue of the proclamation
dOne hundred and eighty days from the date of the first information report
Answer: B
The proviso to Section 356 BNSS, a wholly new provision permitting trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, allows the trial to begin only after ninety days from the date of framing of charge.
Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, a convict under a sentence of death (or his legal heir/relative) may file a mercy petition before the Governor or the President within how many days from the date the jail Superintendent informs him of dismissal of his appeal/review by the Supreme Court or confirmation of the death sentence?
aThirty days
bNinety days
cFifteen days
dSixty days
Answer: A
Section 472 BNSS, a new provision, prescribes a thirty-day window to file a mercy petition; on rejection by the Governor, a petition to the President must be made within sixty days.
On disobedience of an order of temporary injunction, the Court, under Order XXXIX Rule 2A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, may order detention of the guilty person in civil prison for a term not exceeding-
aTwo months
bThree months
cSix months
dOne month
Answer: B
Under Order XXXIX Rule 2A CPC, on breach of an injunction the Court may attach the property of the guilty person and may order his detention in civil prison for a term not exceeding three months.
Notwithstanding anything contained in any Letters Patent, no further appeal lies from a decree passed in appeal by a Single Judge of a High Court. This bar is contained in-
aSection 104 of the CPC
bSection 100A of the CPC
cSection 115 of the CPC
dSection 96A of the CPC
Answer: B
Section 100A CPC, beginning with a non obstante clause, bars any further (Letters Patent) appeal where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order has been heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court.
An appeal from an original decree under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 does NOT lie-
aOn a question of fact
bFrom an ex parte decree
cFrom a decree passed with the consent of parties
dOn a mixed question of law and fact
Answer: C
Section 96(3) CPC bars an appeal from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties. A first appeal otherwise lies on questions of fact and law, and even against an ex parte decree.
Under Order IX Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed for the plaintiff's default in appearance, the plaintiff is precluded from-
aBringing a fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action
bRecovering costs already incurred
cFiling an appeal against the order of dismissal
dApplying for restoration of the suit
Answer: A
Order IX Rule 9 CPC bars the plaintiff from bringing a fresh suit on the same cause of action after dismissal for default; his remedy is to apply for setting aside the dismissal on showing sufficient cause.
The doctrine of res judicata, which bars a court from trying a matter already finally decided between the same parties, is contained in-
aSection 14 of the CPC
bSection 10 of the CPC
cSection 11 of the CPC
dSection 12 of the CPC
Answer: C
Section 11 CPC enacts the doctrine of res judicata: once a matter has been directly and substantially in issue and finally decided by a competent court between the same parties, it cannot be re-agitated.
Which one of the following is NOT an essential element required by Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 for an agreement to be a contract?
aLawful consideration and lawful object
bThat the agreement be in writing and registered in every case
cThat the agreement is not expressly declared to be void
dFree consent of parties competent to contract
Answer: B
Section 10 requires free consent of competent parties, lawful consideration and object, and that the agreement is not expressly declared void; writing and registration are required only where some law specifically so demands, not in every case.
Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration for a promise-
aMust move only from the promisee
bMay move from the promisee or any other person
cMust always be adequate to the promise
dMust invariably be executed and never executory
Answer: B
Section 2(d) provides that consideration may be furnished by the promisee 'or any other person', so a stranger to the consideration can supply it, as recognised in Chinnaya v. Ramayya (1882). This is a point of departure from English law, which requires consideration to move from the promisee.
A minor mortgaged his property to a moneylender. On the question of the validity of the agreement, the law as settled in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose is that an agreement by a minor is-
aValid but unenforceable until ratification on majority
bVoidable at the option of the minor
cValid and binding on the minor
dVoid ab initio
Answer: D
Read with Section 11, a minor is not competent to contract, and the Privy Council in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) held that an agreement with a minor is void ab initio. A minor cannot ratify it on attaining majority.
Which of the following is NOT one of the exceptions recognised under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, whereby an agreement without consideration is valid?
aA promise to compensate a person who has voluntarily done something for the promisor
bA written and registered promise made on account of natural love and affection between parties in near relation
cA promise to make a gift to a charitable institution in the future
dA promise in writing to pay a debt barred by the law of limitation
Answer: C
Section 25 lays down three exceptions: a written registered promise out of natural love and affection between near relations; a promise to compensate for a voluntary past act; and a written promise to pay a time-barred debt. A bare future promise to gift to charity is not among them.
Under Section 12 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, where a minor has an undivided interest in joint family property under the management of an adult member of the family:
aThe interest vests in the Court of Wards
bA guardian must be appointed by the District Court for that interest
cNo guardian shall be appointed for the minor in respect of such undivided interest, though the High Court's jurisdiction is preserved
dThe mother automatically becomes guardian of that interest
Answer: C
Section 12 of the HMGA, 1956 bars appointment of a guardian for a minor's undivided interest in joint family property managed by an adult member, but the proviso preserves the High Court's jurisdiction to appoint such a guardian.
The expression 'sapinda relationship' under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 extends, so far as relationship through the father is concerned, as far as the
aSeventh generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent
bThird generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent
cFourth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent
dFifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent
Answer: D
Section 3(f) defines sapinda relationship as extending to the third generation in the line of ascent through the mother and the fifth generation in the line of ascent through the father.
Where a Hindu marriage is solemnised with rites that include the 'saptapadi', the marriage becomes complete and binding under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
aOn the exchange of garlands between the parties
bWhen the seventh step is taken before the sacred fire
cOn registration of the marriage
dWhen the fourth step is taken before the sacred fire
Answer: B
Under Section 7(2), where the rites include the saptapadi (taking of seven steps jointly before the sacred fire), the marriage becomes complete and binding when the seventh step is taken.
Prompt dower (mahr-e-muajjal) under Muslim law is:
aPayable only after consummation of the marriage
bNever recoverable once the marriage is consummated
cPayable only on dissolution of marriage by death or divorce
dPayable immediately on demand by the wife
Answer: D
Prompt dower is payable immediately on demand; the wife may even refuse cohabitation until it is paid, and her right to sue for it is not lost by consummation.
A Muslim widow in possession of her deceased husband's property in lieu of her unpaid dower:
aBecomes a mortgagee with power to sell the property
bLoses all claim to the dower on the husband's death
cAcquires absolute ownership of the property
dMay retain possession until her dower debt is satisfied but acquires no title
Answer: D
Dower is an unsecured debt; the widow has a right of retention over the husband's estate until her dower is satisfied, but acquires no title or interest like a mortgagee and cannot alienate the property.
Under Sunni (Hanafi) law, a Muslim may by will (wasiyat) bequeath, without the consent of his heirs, not more than:
aOne-third of his net estate
bOne-half of his net estate
cOne-fourth of his net estate
dThe whole of his estate
Answer: A
A Muslim can bequeath only one-third of his estate (after debts and funeral expenses) without the consent of his heirs; any bequest beyond one-third requires the heirs' consent.
Under Section 2(n) of the Limitation Act, 1963, the term "trustee" does NOT include -
aA constructive trustee appointed by a court
bA person holding property under an express trust
cAn executor or administrator of an estate
dA benamidar, a mortgagee remaining in possession after the mortgage is satisfied, or a person in wrongful possession without title
Answer: D
Section 2(n) expressly excludes a benamidar, a mortgagee remaining in possession after the mortgage has been satisfied, and a person in wrongful possession without title from the definition of "trustee".
Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that a fresh period of limitation begins from the date of an acknowledgment of liability only where such acknowledgment is -
aIn writing and made at any time, even after the period has expired
bIn writing and signed before the expiration of the prescribed period
cOral and made to the creditor
dMade before a notary in any form
Answer: B
Under Section 18 the acknowledgment must be in writing, signed by the party (or his agent), and made before the prescribed period expires; an acknowledgment after expiry cannot revive a time-barred claim.
Under Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963, at the determination of the period limited for instituting a suit for possession of any property -
aThe right to such property is extinguished
bOnly the remedy is barred but the right survives
cA fresh period of twelve years begins to run
dThe suit may still be entertained with court's leave
Answer: A
Section 27 is an exception to the general rule that limitation bars the remedy only; on expiry of the period to sue for possession, the right to the property itself is extinguished, perfecting adverse possession.
In international commercial arbitration apart, under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 the arbitral award shall be made within a period of ______ from the date of completion of pleadings.
aNine months
bTwelve months
cSix months
dEighteen months
Answer: B
Section 29A(1) requires the award (in matters other than international commercial arbitration) to be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under Section 23(4); parties may extend by consent up to six months further.
Where the arbitral award does not direct otherwise, a sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall, under Section 31(7)(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (as originally enacted), carry post-award interest at the rate of :
aTwelve per cent per annum
bSix per cent per annum
cEighteen per cent per annum
dNine per cent per annum
Answer: C
Section 31(7)(b), as originally enacted, provides that a sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall, unless the award otherwise directs, carry interest at eighteen per cent per annum from the date of the award to the date of payment.
Under Section 36 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, once the time for making an application to set aside the award has expired, the arbitral award shall be enforced :
aBy a fresh suit in the civil court
bOnly after confirmation by the High Court
cOnly with leave of the arbitral tribunal
dIn accordance with the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in the same manner as if it were a decree of the court
Answer: D
Section 36 creates a legal fiction by which the award, once not assailable or after disposal of the Section 34 application, is enforced under the CPC, 1908 in the same manner as if it were a decree of the court.
121, 169, 196 and 225 are perfect squares (11², 13², 14², 15²); 250 is not a perfect square.
Q73Aptitude / Reasoning
The average age of 5 members of a family is 30 years. If the youngest member, aged 10 years, is excluded, what is the average age of the remaining 4 members?
a32 years
b40 years
c35 years
d34 years
Answer: C
Total age of 5 = 5×30 = 150; removing 10 leaves 140 for 4 members, giving 140/4 = 35 years.
Q74Aptitude / Reasoning
A is the brother of B. C is the sister of A. D is the brother of E. E is the daughter of B. Who is the uncle of D?
aB
bE
cC
dA
Answer: D
E is B's daughter and D is E's brother, so D is also B's child; A, being B's brother, is the uncle of D.
The writ that lies to inquire into the legality of a claim of a person to hold a public office is :
aProhibition
bMandamus
cCertiorari
dQuo warranto
Answer: D
Quo warranto is issued to call upon the holder of a public office to show by what authority he holds it, and to oust him if the appointment is found to be illegal.
Under Section 3 of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation if personal injury is caused to an employee by accident :
aArising at the residence of the employee only
bArising out of OR in the course of his employment
cArising solely due to the employer's negligence
dArising out of AND in the course of his employment
Answer: D
Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 imposes liability where personal injury is caused to an employee by accident 'arising out of and in the course of his employment'; both conditions must be satisfied.
Under Section 4A of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923, if an employer is in default in paying compensation due within one month from the date it fell due, the Commissioner shall direct payment of simple interest at the rate of :
aSix per cent per annum
bNine per cent per annum
cTwelve per cent per annum
dEighteen per cent per annum
Answer: C
Section 4A(3)(a) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 provides for simple interest at twelve per cent per annum (or such higher rate as the Central Government may specify) on the defaulted amount, besides a possible penalty up to fifty per cent.
The general rule that the burden of proof lies on the person who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 106
bSection 109
cSection 104
dSection 101
Answer: C
Section 104 of the BSA, 2023 lays down the general rule on burden of proof, corresponding to Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this rule is contained in which section?
aSection 109
bSection 114
cSection 104
dSection 106
Answer: A
Section 109 of the BSA, 2023 deals with the burden of proving a fact especially within a person's knowledge, corresponding to Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Under Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the essential distinction between a lease and a sale of immovable property is that in a lease:
aThe property is transferred without consideration
bThe transfer takes effect only on the death of the lessor
cThe absolute ownership of the property is transferred to the lessee
dOnly a right to enjoy the property for a term is transferred, in consideration of rent or premium, ownership remaining with the lessor
Answer: D
Section 105 defines a lease as a transfer of a right to enjoy immovable property for a certain time, or in perpetuity, in consideration of a price (premium) or rent; ownership remains with the lessor, unlike a sale where ownership passes to the buyer.
A, during the lifetime of his father B, transfers to C for consideration his chance of inheriting B's estate as heir-apparent. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, such a transfer is:
aValid, as it is supported by consideration
bVoid, being a transfer of mere spes successionis under Section 6(a)
cVoidable at the option of B
dValid only if reduced to a registered instrument
Answer: B
Section 6(a) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 expressly bars the transfer of the chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate (spes successionis); such a transfer is void ab initio and consideration cannot validate it.
Under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, an appeal against an award of the Claims Tribunal must ordinarily be filed before the High Court within what period from the date of the award?
a120 days
b30 days
c90 days
d60 days
Answer: C
Section 173 prescribes a limitation of 90 days for filing an appeal to the High Court, extendable where sufficient cause for delay is shown.
Under Section 23 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, where a trustee commits a breach of trust, he is, as a general rule, liable to:
aMake good the loss which the trust-property or the beneficiary has thereby sustained
bBe removed from office without any monetary liability
cBe prosecuted for criminal breach of trust irrespective of loss
dForfeit only his right to remuneration
Answer: A
Section 23 makes a trustee who commits a breach of trust liable to make good the loss which the trust-property or the beneficiary has thereby sustained, subject to the exceptions specified therein.
In which case did the Supreme Court award exemplary/aggravated monetary compensation for the tort of false imprisonment, where an MLA was arrested and deliberately not produced before a Magistrate so as to prevent him from attending the Assembly session?
aNilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
bD.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
cRudal Sah v. State of Bihar
dBhim Singh v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: D
In Bhim Singh v. State of J&K (AIR 1986 SC 494), the Supreme Court held the wrongful arrest and detention of the MLA to be a violation of Articles 21 and 22(2) and awarded him exemplary damages of Rs. 50,000.
Section 32A of the Registration Act, 1908, which requires affixing of passport size photographs and fingerprints of the persons presenting a document and, in the case of transfer of ownership of immovable property, of each buyer and seller, was inserted by:
bthe Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001
cthe Registration (Amendment) Act, 1969
dthe Registration (Amendment) Act, 1929
Answer: B
Section 32A was inserted by the Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001 (Act 48 of 2001), making passport size photographs and fingerprints compulsory at registration.
Section 4 of the Court-fees Act, 1870 prohibits the filing, exhibition or recording of any document chargeable with fee under the First or Second Schedule, unless the fee is paid, in proceedings before:
aCourts of Small Causes only
bRevenue authorities exercising executive powers
cA High Court in the exercise of the jurisdictions specified in that section
dGram Nyayalayas constituted under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
Answer: C
Section 4 bars High Courts from filing, exhibiting or recording documents specified in the Schedules unless the prescribed fee is paid, in the exercise of their extraordinary original, appellate, reference and revisional jurisdictions, etc.
The proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lays down that no court shall make a declaration of legal character or right where the plaintiff:
aSeeks the declaration against the Government
bHas failed to give notice to the defendant
cBeing able to seek further relief than a mere declaration, omits to do so
dHas no subsisting interest in the property
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 34 bars a mere declaratory decree where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so; this prevents multiplicity of proceedings.
Under Section 4 of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, an application for registration of a trade union may be made by:
aAny hundred or more members
bAny ten or more members
cAny two or more members
dAny seven or more members
Answer: D
Section 4 of the Trade Unions Act, 1926 permits any seven or more members of a trade union to apply for its registration, subject to the prescribed conditions.
Under the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, the urgency provisions enabling the appropriate Government to take possession after a notice of fifteen days may be invoked only:
aFor any public-private partnership project
bFor any public purpose at the discretion of the Collector
cFor the minimum area required for defence of India or national security, or for any emergency arising out of natural calamities
dFor acquisition by private companies for industrial corridors
Answer: C
Section 40 confines the urgency clause to the minimum area required for defence and national security, or emergencies arising out of natural calamities, or other approved emergencies.
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