Assam Judiciary Mock Test 9 — Questions & Solutions
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Kaziranga National Park in Assam, renowned for the great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the year
a1974
b1990
c1985
d2006
Answer: C
Kaziranga, established as a national park in 1974, was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It holds the world's largest population of one-horned rhinoceroses.
Majuli, the world's largest river island formed by the Brahmaputra, became which numbered district of Assam when it was declared India's first island district in 2016?
a27th
b35th
c34th
d33rd
Answer: B
On 8 September 2016 Majuli was declared India's first island district, becoming the 35th district of Assam, carved out of the erstwhile Jorhat district.
The Battle of Saraighat (1671), in which the Ahom forces decisively repelled the Mughal navy on the Brahmaputra, was led on the Ahom side by
aBir Chilarai Barua
bMomai Tamuli Borbarua
cChilarai
dLachit Borphukan
Answer: D
Lachit Borphukan, commander-in-chief of the Ahom army, led the forces to victory at Saraighat in 1671 against the Mughal army of Ram Singh, halting Mughal expansion into Assam.
Srimanta Sankardeva, the 15th-16th century saint-reformer of Assam, is best known as the founder of which religious order?
aLingayatism
bEkasarana Dharma (Neo-Vaishnavism)
cBrahmo Samaj
dSahajiya Buddhism
Answer: B
Sankardeva founded the Ekasarana Dharma, a monotheistic Neo-Vaishnavite movement centred on devotion to Krishna, and established institutions such as the Satras and Namghars.
Bohag Bihu (Rongali Bihu), the Assamese New Year and spring festival, is celebrated in which Assamese month corresponding to mid-April?
aBohag
bKati
cMagh
dAghon
Answer: A
Rongali or Bohag Bihu is celebrated in the Assamese month of Bohag (mid-April), marking the New Year and the onset of the sowing season. The other major Bihus are Kati and Magh (Bhogali).
According to United Nations data, in 2025 India became the world's most populous country, overtaking which nation?
aChina
bUnited States
cPakistan
dIndonesia
Answer: A
The UN confirmed India overtook China to become the most populous country, with India at roughly 1.46 billion people while China's population has begun to decline.
In December 2023, UNESCO inscribed which Assamese cultural tradition on its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
aJhumur dance
bBhaona theatre
cSattriya dance
dBihu dance
Answer: D
Bihu dance was inscribed by UNESCO on its Intangible Cultural Heritage list in December 2023, recognising the festival's unique music, dance and cultural traditions.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: "The witnesses, along with the accused, ______ present in the court when the verdict was read."
awas
bis
chas been
dwere
Answer: D
The subject 'witnesses' is plural; the phrase 'along with the accused' does not change the number of the subject, so the plural verb 'were' is correct.
Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'ACQUIT' as used in a criminal trial.
aDischarge
bAbsolve
cRelease
dConvict
Answer: D
To acquit means to free a person from a criminal charge; its antonym is 'convict', meaning to find guilty. Discharge, release and absolve are near-synonyms of acquit.
Which Article of the Constitution of India confers on every High Court the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction?
aArticle 227
bArticle 235
cArticle 228
dArticle 226
Answer: A
Article 227 confers on the High Court the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction. Article 226 deals with the power to issue writs, while Article 228 deals with transfer of certain cases to the High Court.
The power of a High Court under Article 226 to issue writs may be exercised for the enforcement of-
aLegal rights only
bFundamental rights only
cFundamental rights as well as for any other purpose
dDirective Principles of State Policy
Answer: C
Article 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose, making its writ jurisdiction wider than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32, which is confined to fundamental rights.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described which Article of the Constitution of India as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?
aArticle 226
bArticle 32
cArticle 14
dArticle 21
Answer: B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of fundamental rights, as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. It is itself a fundamental right.
Under the Constitution of India, the power to establish a common High Court for two or more States rests with-
aParliament by law
bThe President by order
cThe Supreme Court
dThe Governors of the concerned States acting jointly
Answer: A
Article 231 empowers Parliament by law to establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union territory. The Gauhati High Court historically exercised common jurisdiction over several north-eastern States.
Until the establishment of separate High Courts for Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura in 2013, the Gauhati High Court exercised jurisdiction over those areas. The mandate that there shall be a High Court for each State flows from-
aArticle 215
bArticle 124
cArticle 214
dArticle 217
Answer: C
Article 214 provides that there shall be a High Court for each State. Articles 215 and 217 deal respectively with High Courts as courts of record and appointment of High Court judges.
A person not already in the service of the Union or of a State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233(2) only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than-
aThree years
bTen years
cSeven years
dFive years
Answer: C
Article 233(2) provides that such a person is eligible to be appointed a district judge only if he has been for not less than seven years an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment.
The doctrine of 'double jeopardy', protecting a person from being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once, is embodied in which clause of Article 20 of the Constitution of India?
aArticle 20(2)
bArticle 20(1)
cArticle 20(3)
dArticle 21
Answer: A
Article 20(2) provides that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. Article 20(1) bars ex post facto laws, and Article 20(3) protects against self-incrimination.
A writ issued by a superior court directing a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty which it has failed to perform is the writ of-
aCertiorari
bMandamus
cQuo warranto
dProhibition
Answer: B
The writ of mandamus is a command from a higher court to a public authority or lower court to perform a public or statutory duty it has failed or refused to perform. Certiorari and prohibition relate to excess of jurisdiction by inferior tribunals.
The concept of 'Zero FIR' (registration of a First Information Report irrespective of the jurisdiction of the police station) has been given statutory recognition in:
aSection 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
bSection 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
cSection 173 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
dSection 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Answer: D
Section 173 BNSS codifies both the Zero FIR and e-FIR, allowing information of a cognizable offence to be given orally or electronically to any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction.
'A, accused of murder, alleges that, by reason of unsoundness of mind, he did not know the nature of the act. The burden of proof is on A.' Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this illustration falls under the section dealing with proof of facts especially within knowledge / exceptions, namely:
aSection 106
bSection 101
cSection 105
dSection 104
Answer: C
Section 105 BSA (formerly Section 105 of the Evidence Act) places on the accused the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing his case within a General Exception, such as unsoundness of mind.
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consists of how many sections?
a358 sections
b170 sections
c511 sections
d167 sections
Answer: B
The BSA, 2023 (Act 47 of 2023) is organised into 4 parts, 12 chapters and 170 sections, against 167 sections of the repealed Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, is broadly regarded as the successor provision to which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
aCriminal conspiracy (Section 120-B IPC)
bPromoting enmity between groups (Section 153-A IPC)
cSedition (Section 124-A IPC)
dWaging war against the State (Section 121 IPC)
Answer: C
Section 152 BNS replaces the old offence of sedition under Section 124-A IPC, recasting it as endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India through subversive or separatist activities.
Section 113 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, for the first time within a general penal code, separately defines and punishes the offence of-
aTerrorist act
bPetty organised crime
cOrganised crime
dMob lynching
Answer: A
Section 113 of the BNS for the first time defines a 'terrorist act' within the general penal law. Organised crime is dealt with separately under Section 111.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief (commonly called mob lynching), the relevant provision is-
aSection 117(4)
bSection 101(2)
cSection 103(2)
dSection 103(1)
Answer: C
Section 103(2) of the BNS specifically addresses mob lynching, prescribing death or life imprisonment where five or more persons acting in concert commit murder on a discriminatory ground.
Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces a new offence relating to-
aVoyeurism
bOutraging the modesty of a woman
cSexual intercourse by employing deceitful means or a false promise of marriage
dStalking
Answer: C
Section 69 of the BNS is a new provision punishing sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means, which the Explanation includes a false promise of marriage or concealment of identity, with imprisonment up to ten years.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the definition of rape is contained in Section 63 and the general punishment for rape is provided in-
aSection 375
bSection 376
cSection 62
dSection 64
Answer: D
Section 63 of the BNS defines rape, while Section 64 provides the punishment, namely rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years extendable to imprisonment for life, and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of criminal conspiracy is dealt with under-
aSection 61
bSection 120A
cSection 120B
dSection 45
Answer: A
Section 61 of the BNS deals with criminal conspiracy, replacing Sections 120A and 120B of the old IPC. Abetment is separately covered beginning at Section 45 within the same chapter.
Under the BNSS, 2023, every State Government is statutorily obliged to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the State. This obligation is contained in:
aSection 360
bSection 398
cSection 450
dSection 412
Answer: B
Section 398 BNSS, a new provision, casts a statutory duty on every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme — a matter earlier governed only by the Supreme Court's scheme in Mahender Chawla v. Union of India.
Under Section 530 of the BNSS, 2023, which of the following may be held in electronic mode through audio-video electronic means?
aAll trials, inquiries and proceedings, including issuance and service of summons and warrants, examination of witnesses, recording of evidence and appellate proceedings
bOnly appellate proceedings
cOnly the service of summons and warrants
dOnly the recording of evidence of witnesses
Answer: A
Section 530 BNSS broadly permits all trials, inquiries and proceedings — including issuance/service/execution of summons and warrants, examination of witnesses, recording of evidence and appellate proceedings — to be conducted in electronic mode.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the power of a Magistrate empowered under Section 210 to order an investigation by the police into a cognizable case, on a complaint received, is provided in:
aSection 173
bSection 156
cSection 190
dSection 175
Answer: D
Section 175 BNSS (corresponding to Section 156 CrPC) empowers a Magistrate to direct police investigation into a cognizable offence; sub-section (3) now additionally requires the Magistrate to consider the police officer's submissions and an enquiry by the complainant.
Under the scheme of bail provisions in the BNSS, 2023, the power of a Court (other than the High Court or the Court of Session) to release on bail a person accused of a non-bailable offence is contained in:
aSection 480
bSection 483
cSection 482
dSection 481
Answer: A
Section 480 BNSS (corresponding to Section 437 CrPC) governs bail in non-bailable offences by courts other than the High Court or Court of Session, with the embargo where there are reasonable grounds to believe the accused is guilty of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the special powers of the High Court and the Court of Session regarding bail, including the power to cancel bail already granted, are contained in:
aSection 480
bSection 483
cSection 439
dSection 482
Answer: B
Section 483 BNSS (corresponding to Section 439 CrPC) confers special bail powers on the High Court and Court of Session, including the power under sub-section (3) to direct arrest and commit to custody a person previously released on bail.
A foreign decree of a reciprocating territory may be executed in India as if it were passed by a District Court, under-
aSection 39 of the CPC
bSection 38 of the CPC
cSection 44A of the CPC
dSection 47 of the CPC
Answer: C
Section 44A CPC permits execution in India of a decree of a superior court of a reciprocating territory as if it had been passed by a District Court, subject to the exceptions in Section 13.
The power of the High Court to call for the record of a case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where such court has exercised jurisdiction not vested in it, is the power of-
aReference under Section 113 of the CPC
bRevision under Section 115 of the CPC
cReview under Section 114 of the CPC
dInherent powers under Section 151 of the CPC
Answer: B
Section 115 CPC confers revisional jurisdiction on the High Court over subordinate courts that have exercised jurisdiction not vested in them, failed to exercise jurisdiction vested in them, or acted illegally or with material irregularity, where no appeal lies.
The provision preserving the inherent power of the Court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court is-
aSection 149 of the CPC
bSection 148 of the CPC
cSection 151 of the CPC
dSection 153 of the CPC
Answer: C
Section 151 CPC saves the inherent powers of the court to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court; it is not the source of any new power.
Amendment of pleadings under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is governed by-
aOrder VIII Rule 1
bOrder VII Rule 11
cOrder I Rule 10
dOrder VI Rule 17
Answer: D
Order VI Rule 17 CPC empowers the court to allow amendment of pleadings at any stage on just terms; after commencement of trial, the proviso requires that the matter could not have been raised earlier with due diligence.
Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a civil court has jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is-
aExpressly barred only
bBarred by an order of the High Court
cImpliedly barred only
dEither expressly or impliedly barred
Answer: D
Section 9 CPC provides that courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.
When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is-
aValid and fully enforceable
bVoidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused
cVoidable at the option of either party
dVoid ab initio
Answer: B
Section 19 provides that where consent is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused. It is not void, and only the aggrieved party may avoid it.
Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful in all the following cases EXCEPT where it is-
aOpposed to public policy
bInadequate in relation to the promise made
cForbidden by law
dOf such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law
Answer: B
Section 23 makes consideration or object unlawful if it is forbidden by law, defeats the provisions of any law, is fraudulent, involves injury to person or property, or is immoral or opposed to public policy. Mere inadequacy of consideration does not make it unlawful.
A contract whereby one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is defined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as a contract of-
aBailment
bAgency
cIndemnity
dGuarantee
Answer: C
Section 124 defines a contract of indemnity as one by which a party promises to save the other from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor himself or of any other person. It is a two-party contract between indemnifier and indemnified.
In a contract of guarantee under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given is called the-
aPrincipal debtor
bCreditor
cIndemnifier
dSurety
Answer: A
Under Section 126, the person who gives the guarantee is the 'surety', the person to whom it is given is the 'creditor', and the person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given is the 'principal debtor'.
A petition for divorce by mutual consent under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 requires that the parties have been living separately for a period of
aOne year or more
bTwo years or more
cThree years or more
dSix months or more
Answer: A
Section 13B(1) requires the parties to have been living separately for one year or more before presenting a joint petition for divorce by mutual consent.
In Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar Chadha (1984), the Supreme Court of India held that Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, relating to restitution of conjugal rights, is
aViolative of Articles 14 and 21 and therefore void
bUltra vires the legislative competence of Parliament
cApplicable only to the wife and not the husband
dNot violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution
Answer: D
In Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar (AIR 1984 SC 1562), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 9, holding it does not offend Article 14 or Article 21, overruling the contrary view in T. Sareetha.
Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 declares that any marriage solemnised after the commencement of the Act shall be null and void if it contravenes the condition that neither party has a spouse living at the time of marriage?
aSection 13
bSection 11
cSection 15
dSection 12
Answer: B
Section 11 declares a marriage null and void if it contravenes clause (i), (iv) or (v) of Section 5; clause (i) requires that neither party has a spouse living. A bigamous marriage is thus void.
In Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985), the Supreme Court held that a divorced Muslim woman who is unable to maintain herself:
aIs entitled to claim maintenance under Section 125 CrPC even after the iddat period
bIs entitled only to the return of her dower
cCannot claim any maintenance from her former husband
dCan claim maintenance only up to the iddat period
Answer: A
The Court held that Section 125 CrPC applies to a divorced Muslim woman unable to maintain herself even after the iddat period, finding no conflict between it and Muslim personal law.
In Danial Latifi v. Union of India (2001), the Supreme Court, while upholding the constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, held that the husband must make a reasonable and fair provision for the divorced wife:
aWithin the iddat period, but extending to and securing her future beyond iddat
bOnly until she remarries
cOnly during the period of iddat
dOnly to the extent of her unpaid dower
Answer: A
The Court read down the 1986 Act to hold that a reasonable and fair provision and maintenance, though to be made within the iddat period, must extend beyond it to secure the divorced wife's future, thereby saving the Act from unconstitutionality.
Under Muslim law, the period of iddat to be observed by a widow on the death of her husband (where she is not pregnant) is:
aFour months and ten days
bUntil the birth of a child in every case
cThree menstrual courses
dThree lunar months
Answer: A
A widow who is not pregnant must observe an iddat of four months and ten days, irrespective of consummation; if pregnant, the iddat continues until delivery.
The maximum period of limitation prescribed by the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 (for instance for a suit by a mortgagor to redeem under Article 61) is -
aTwelve years
bSixty years
cThirty years
dTwenty years
Answer: C
The longest period in the Schedule is thirty years, applicable inter alia to a suit by a mortgagor to redeem or recover possession of mortgaged immovable property under Article 61(a).
Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for a suit for possession of immovable property based on title is twelve years, computed from -
aThe date of registration of the sale deed
bThe date of execution of the title deed
cThe date when the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff
dThe date when the plaintiff first acquired title
Answer: C
Article 65 fixes twelve years for a title-based possession suit, but the period runs from when the defendant's possession becomes adverse to the plaintiff, not from accrual of title.
In computing the period of limitation for an appeal under Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following is excluded?
aThe entire period the appeal remained pending before the appellate court
bOnly the day on which the judgment was pronounced
cThe time taken by the appellant to engage counsel
dThe day on which the judgment was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree or order appealed from
Answer: D
Section 12(2) excludes the day of pronouncement of the judgment complained of and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from.
Under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a judicial authority before which an action is brought in a matter which is the subject of an arbitration agreement shall refer the parties to arbitration, provided the application is made by the party not later than :
aThe date of framing of issues
bThirty days from institution of the suit
cThe date of first hearing
dThe date of submitting his first statement on the substance of the dispute
Answer: D
Section 8(1) requires the application to be made not later than the date of submitting the first statement on the substance of the dispute; the judicial authority shall then refer the parties to arbitration unless it finds prima facie no valid arbitration agreement exists.
In Bharat Aluminium Co. v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc. (BALCO), the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held that :
aForeign awards cannot be enforced in India
bPart I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 applies to all arbitrations, including those seated abroad
cAn arbitration agreement need not be in writing
dPart I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 has no application to arbitrations seated outside India
Answer: D
In BALCO (2012), the Supreme Court held that Part I of the 1996 Act does not apply to foreign-seated arbitrations, overruling Bhatia International, and applied the ruling prospectively to agreements made after 6 September 2012.
Under Section 63 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in conciliation proceedings there shall be ______ unless the parties agree otherwise.
aA panel of five conciliators
bTwo conciliators
cThree conciliators
dOne conciliator
Answer: D
Section 63 provides that there shall be one conciliator unless the parties agree that there shall be two or three conciliators; where there is more than one, they ought, as a general rule, to act jointly.
What should come next in the series? Z, X, V, T, R, ?
aO
bP
cQ
dN
Answer: B
The letters skip one each time going backward (Z, X, V, T, R), so the next is P.
Q73Aptitude / Reasoning
A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 10% on the marked price. What is his profit percent?
a30%
b28%
c24%
d26%
Answer: D
Taking CP = 100, MP = 140; selling price after 10% discount = 140×0.9 = 126, so profit = 26%.
Q74Aptitude / Reasoning
Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing North. R is to the immediate right of P. T is at one extreme end and Q is at the other extreme end. S is between U and Q, and U is to the immediate left of S. R is to the immediate left of U. Who is sitting immediately to the right of R?
aS
bU
cQ
dP
Answer: B
The order from left (T) to right (Q) is T, P, R, U, S, Q; thus the person immediately to the right of R is U.
The doctrine of 'notional extension' of employment, applied under the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923, is used to determine :
aWhether an accident arose in the course of employment beyond the strict limits of the work premises
bThe period of limitation for filing a claim
cThe quantum of compensation payable for permanent disablement
dWhether a contractor is the principal employer
Answer: A
The doctrine of notional extension widens the phrase 'in the course of employment' so that an accident occurring shortly before reaching or after leaving the actual place of work may still be treated as in the course of employment.
Under Section 22 of the Copyright Act, 1957, copyright in a published literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work subsists until :
aSixty years from the date of first publication
bFifty years from the date of publication
cTwenty years from the date of registration
dThe lifetime of the author and sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year of the author's death
Answer: D
Section 22 of the Copyright Act, 1957 provides that copyright subsists during the lifetime of the author and until sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the author dies.
Under the Trade Marks Act, 1999, the registration of a trade mark is, in the first instance, valid for :
aSeven years and renewable for seven years
bFifteen years and non-renewable
cTen years and renewable for further periods of ten years each
dTwenty years from the date of registration
Answer: C
Under Section 25 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, registration of a trade mark is for a period of ten years and may be renewed from time to time for further periods of ten years each.
The rule that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 142
bSection 134
cSection 138
dSection 139
Answer: D
Section 139 of the BSA, 2023 provides that no particular number of witnesses is required to prove any fact, corresponding to Section 134 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the power of the Judge to ask any question he considers necessary, in any form, at any time, of any witness or of the parties, is contained in which section?
aSection 167
bSection 168
cSection 165
dSection 170
Answer: B
Section 168 of the BSA, 2023 confers on the Judge the power to put questions or order production, corresponding to Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
The rule against perpetuity embodied in Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 permits the vesting of an interest to be postponed only up to:
aA fixed period of eighteen years from the date of the transfer
bA perpetual period, provided the beneficiary is in existence
cThe life or lives of persons living at the date of the transfer alone
dThe life or lives in being at the date of the transfer plus the minority of the ultimate beneficiary
Answer: D
Under Section 14, the creation of an interest may not extend beyond the lifetime of one or more persons living at the date of transfer plus the minority (i.e., up to eighteen years) of the ultimate beneficiary who must exist at the expiration of that life period.
The doctrine of 'feeding the grant by estoppel', under which a transferor who fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer immovable property and later acquires an interest in it is bound to pass that interest to the transferee at the transferee's option, is contained in which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
aSection 53
bSection 43
cSection 41
dSection 51
Answer: B
Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 enacts the rule of feeding the grant by estoppel; where a person erroneously or fraudulently represents authority to transfer property for consideration and subsequently acquires an interest in it, the transfer operates on that interest at the option of the transferee.
In National Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Pranay Sethi (2017), the Constitution Bench held that for a deceased having a permanent job and below 40 years of age, the addition to actual income towards 'future prospects' should be what percentage?
a50 per cent
b25 per cent
c15 per cent
d40 per cent
Answer: A
In Pranay Sethi (2017), the Supreme Court fixed future prospects at 50% of actual salary for a deceased with a permanent job aged below 40, 30% for ages 40-50, and 15% for 50-60.
The principle that a trustee may not use or deal with the trust-property for his own profit or for any other purpose unconnected with the trust is contained in which section of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?
aSection 23
bSection 51
cSection 11
dSection 14
Answer: B
Section 51 expressly provides that a trustee may not use or deal with the trust-property for his own profit or for any other purpose unconnected with the trust.
Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a consumer complaint shall not, ordinarily, be admitted by a Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission unless it is filed within ______ from the date on which the cause of action arose.
aTwo years
bSix months
cThree years
dOne year
Answer: A
Section 69 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 prescribes a limitation period of two years from the date of accrual of the cause of action, subject to condonation of delay on sufficient cause being recorded.
An appeal against an order of a Sub-Registrar refusing to register a document lies to the Registrar under Section 72 of the Registration Act, 1908, in every case except where the refusal is made on the ground of:
athe document being presented after four months
bdenial of execution of the document
cthe document being insufficiently stamped
dthe property not being situate within the sub-district
Answer: B
Section 72 provides an appeal to the Registrar against a Sub-Registrar's refusal to register, except where the refusal is on the ground of denial of execution; such an appeal must be presented within thirty days of the order.
The Court-fees (Assam Amendment) Act, 1972 substituted the table of ad valorem fees leviable on the institution of suits, fixing a maximum institution fee of:
aRs. 25,000
bRs. 5,000
cThere is no maximum; the fee is purely ad valorem
dRs. 11,000
Answer: D
The Court-fees (Assam Amendment) Act, 1972 substituted the table of ad valorem rates, with the fee increasing at Rs. 41.25 for every Rs. 5,000 or part thereof, subject to a maximum fee of Rs. 11,000.
Under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction CANNOT be granted:
aTo restrain a continuing breach of contract
bTo restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a criminal matter
cTo perpetuate a recognised right of easement
dTo restrain repeated acts of trespass
Answer: B
Section 41(d) bars the grant of an injunction to restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a criminal matter; the section enumerates situations where preventive relief is refused.
Under Section 2(m) of the Factories Act, 1948, premises wherein a manufacturing process is carried on WITHOUT the aid of power amount to a 'factory' if the number of workers working there on any day of the preceding twelve months is:
aTwenty or more
bTen or more
cFive or more
dFifty or more
Answer: A
Section 2(m)(ii) treats premises as a factory where twenty or more workers work, or worked on any day of the preceding twelve months, and a manufacturing process is carried on without the aid of power (the threshold is ten where power is used).
Under the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, the rehabilitation and resettlement entitlements of affected families are set out in the:
aThird Schedule
bFourth Schedule
cSecond Schedule
dFirst Schedule
Answer: C
The First Schedule deals with compensation, the Second Schedule with rehabilitation and resettlement entitlements, and the Third Schedule with infrastructure amenities.
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