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Gujarat Judiciary — Prelims 2019

75 questions Objective 75 answers with solutions PDF
2

Turpitude (Choose the Antonym)

  • aSaintly behaviour
  • bClever conversation
  • cLively imagination
  • dAgitation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Turpitude means depravity/wickedness; its antonym is 'Saintly behaviour'.

5

25, 27, 31, 37, 45, 55,_______(Complete the given series)

  • a61
  • b63
  • c67
  • d69
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Differences increase by 2: +2,+4,+6,+8,+10,+12. So 55+12 = 67.

6

Additional Evidence means :

  • aevidence let in appeal before the trial has closed in the lower Court, it is a privilege allowed only under special circumstances
  • bevidence let in appeal after the trial has closed in the Supreme Court, it is a privilege allowed only under special circumstances
  • cevidence let in appeal after the trial has closed in the lower Court, it is a privilege allowed only under special circumstances
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Additional evidence is evidence let in on appeal after the trial has closed in the lower court; a privilege allowed only under special circumstances (Order 41 Rule 27 CPC / Section 391 CrPC).

7

Which of the following deals with the absence of a complainant ?

  • aSection 235 of the Criminal Procedure Code
  • bSection 264 of the Criminal Procedure Code
  • cSection 249 of the Criminal Procedure Code
  • dSection 242 of the Criminal Procedure Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 249 CrPC empowers the Magistrate to discharge the accused on the absence of the complainant (before charge, where offence is compoundable or non-cognizable).

8

A sues B for land of which B is in possession, and which, as A asserts, was left to A by the will of C, B’s father. If no evidence were given on either side, B would be entitled to retain his possession. Applying Section 102 of the Indian Evidence Act :

  • athe burden of proof is on A
  • bthe burden of proof is on B
  • cthe burden of proof is on C
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 102 of the Evidence Act burden lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given; since B (in possession) would retain the land, the burden of proof is on A.

11

When the power has obtained possession of the goods pledged by him under a contract voidable is not rescinded at the time of pledge, the pawnee acquires_____.

  • aA good title
  • bA defective title
  • cThe goods illegally
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 178A of the Contract Act, where the pawnor obtained possession under a voidable contract not rescinded at the time of pledge, the pawnee (acting in good faith) acquires a good title to the goods.

12

A police officer, textures z in order to induce z to confess that he committed a crime.

  • aA has committed an offence under section 322 of the Indian Penal code
  • bA has committed an offence under section 328 of the Indian Penal Code
  • cA has committed an offence under section 330 of the Indian Penal Code
  • dA has committed an offence under section 334 of the Indian Penal code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

A police officer torturing/hurting Z to extort a confession commits an offence under Section 330 IPC (voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession).

13

Making the atmosphere noxious to health is dealt with.

  • aSection 278 of Indian Penal code
  • bSection 279 of Indian Penal code
  • cSection 280 of Indian Penal code
  • dSection 281 of Indian Penal code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Making the atmosphere noxious to health is dealt with under Section 278 IPC.

15

“Tort” in the limitation Act, 1963 includes which of the following?

  • aCivil wrong, which is exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of trust
  • bJudicial wrong, which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breast of trust
  • cCivil wrong, which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of trust
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act, 1963 defines 'tort' as a civil wrong which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach of a trust.

16

Which of the following is true of the right to receive maintenance under section 125 of the criminal Procedure code?

  • aIt is purely a personal right created by an order of criminal court
  • bThere is no charge created on property by the order for maintenance
  • cThe maintenance cannot be held to the alienable property
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The right to maintenance under Section 125 CrPC is a personal right created by the criminal court's order, creates no charge on property, and the maintenance cannot be made alienable — hence all of these are true.

17

Where a row and a column meet, is called____.

  • aA cell
  • bA block
  • cA box
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The intersection of a row and a column in a spreadsheet is called a cell.

18

By which amendment act to the constitution of India, the provision with regard to compulsory acquisition of property was omitted?

  • a44th amendment
  • b42nd amendment
  • c61st amendment
  • d20th amendment
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 omitted Article 31 (which dealt with compulsory acquisition of property) and deleted the right to property as a fundamental right, replacing it with Article 300A.

19

Choose the word spelled correctly

  • aFelicilate
  • bFacilitate
  • cFelicitated
  • dFacilitate
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

The correctly spelled word is 'Facilitate' (option b).

20

Extra–Judicial confession is weak if it is made especially:

  • aBefore a person with whom the accused had no previous contact
  • bBefore a person whom the accused already knows
  • cBefore a person who is co-accused
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

An extra-judicial confession is regarded as weak especially when made before a person with whom the accused had no previous contact.

21

in a certain code language, 35796 is written as 44887. How would 46823 be written in that code language?

  • a57914
  • b55914
  • c55934
  • d55714
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

44887 - 35796 = 9091 (constant added). So 46823 + 9091 = 55914.

22

Article 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with which of the following?

  • aPayment of interest on the money due from the defendant to the plaintiff
  • bPayment of interest on the money due from the plaintiff to the defendant
  • cEther (A) or (B)
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Article 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963 prescribes the period for money payable for interest upon money due from the defendant to the plaintiff (3 years from when interest becomes due).

23

False statement, rumour, etc. circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offence against the public peace is dealt under

  • aSection 505 of Indian Penal Code
  • bSection 300 of Indian Penal Code
  • cSection 299 of Indian Penal Code
  • dSection 351 of Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

False statements/rumours circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offence against public peace are dealt with under Section 505 IPC (statements conducing to public mischief).

24

What is usually used for displaying information at public places?

  • aMonitores
  • bOverhead projections
  • cTouch screen kiosks
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Touch screen kiosks are commonly used for displaying information at public places.

25

Using as true any such declaration known to be false is dent under

  • aSection 199 of Indian Penal code
  • bSection 200 of Indian Penal code
  • cSection 201 of Indian Penal code
  • dSection 202 of Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Using as true any declaration knowing it to be false is dealt with under Section 200 IPC.

26

Find the principle when the simple interest for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 90.

  • aRs.300
  • bRs.400
  • cRs.500
  • dRs.600
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Principal = SI×100/(R×T) = 90×100/(5×3) = 9000/15 = Rs. 600.

27

We were friends at school but ____ when we want to different university?(Fill in the blank with correct phrases/verb)

  • aDrifted along
  • bDrifted apart
  • cDrifted out
  • dDrifted from
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

'Drifted apart' means to gradually become less close — correct for friends going to different universities.

28

X has been illegally detained by the police authorities. His father has been advised to file a writ petition before the High Court. Which writ should be prayed for in such petitions?

  • aHabeas corpus
  • bCertiorari
  • cQuo Warranto
  • dMandamus
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

For illegal detention by the police, the appropriate writ is Habeas Corpus, which commands production of the detained person before the court.

30

Which of the following provisions of the code of civil procedure will be applicable in case of death of one of the several defendants or the sole defendant in the suit?

  • aOrder 12, Rule 1
  • bOrder 10, Rule 9
  • cOrder 19, Rule 6
  • dOrder 22, Rule 4
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Order 22 Rule 4 CPC governs the death of one of several defendants or the sole defendant, providing for substitution of the legal representative.

31

Manifest (Choose the Synonym

  • aBoasting
  • bEvident
  • cDestined
  • dGenerous
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

'Manifest' means clear or obvious; its synonym is 'Evident'.

33

Under Section 6(2), limitation act, 1963 where several disabilities co-exist concurrently or where the plaintiff is affected by another disability from earlier disability,______.

  • aTime will commence even if both the disabilities have not cased
  • bTime will not commence till both the disabilities have crashed
  • cTime will not commence till any one of the disabilities has cased
  • dNone of the above
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Section 6(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963, where several disabilities co-exist or a further disability supervenes, time will not commence till both (all) the disabilities have ceased.

34

Which of the following states when accused shall be discharged?

  • aSection 239 of code of Criminal Procedure
  • bSection 264 of Code of Criminal Procedure
  • cSection 337 of Code of Criminal Procedure
  • dSection 258 of Code of Criminal Procedure
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 239 CrPC provides that in a warrant case instituted on a police report, if upon consideration the Magistrate finds the charge groundless, he shall discharge the accused.

35

The tangible part of a computer system is called :

  • aInput data
  • bOutput data
  • cHardware
  • dSoftware
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The tangible (physical) components of a computer system are collectively called hardware; software is intangible.

36

Spurious liquor containing_____or any other poisonous substance has been defined as “Laththa”.

  • aMethanol
  • bHemp
  • cSpirit
  • dToldy
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under the Bombay Prohibition (Gujarat Amendment) Act, 'Laththa' is defined as spurious liquor containing methanol or any other poisonous substance.

38

F.I.R. suggests that

  • aIt is the earliest and the first information of a cognizable offence prevented by an officer in charge of a police station
  • bIt is earliest and the first information of a cognizable offence recorded by an officer in charge of a police station
  • cIt is the earliest and the first information of a cognizable offence committed by an officer in charge of a police station
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

An FIR is the earliest and first information of a cognizable offence recorded by the officer in charge of a police station (Section 154 CrPC).

39

Inimitable (Choose the Antonym)

  • aInclined to disappear
  • bEager to advise
  • cIntelligence
  • dOrdinary
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

'Inimitable' means matchless/incapable of being imitated; its antonym is 'Ordinary'.

40

Under which of the following provisions of the code of civil procedure, the particulars of set-off are to be given in the written statements?

  • aOrder 5, Rule 30
  • bOrder 8, Rule 6
  • cOrder 6, Rule 10
  • dOrder 10, Rule 22
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Order 8 Rule 6 CPC requires the defendant to give particulars of a set-off in the written statement, which then has the effect of a plaint in a cross-suit.

41

Which of the following deals with power to amend decree or order where appeal is summarily dismissed in the Code of Civil Procedure ?

  • aSection USA
  • bSection 103A
  • cSection 148A
  • dSection 153A
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 153A CPC gives the court of first instance power to amend the decree/order under Section 152 where the appeal has been summarily dismissed under Order 41 Rule 11.

42

A suit for partition contains which of the following decree ?

  • aPreliminary decree
  • bIntermediate decree
  • cFinal decree
  • dBoth (A) and ©
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

A partition suit ordinarily proceeds in two stages, producing both a preliminary decree (declaring shares) and a final decree (effecting actual division by metes and bounds).

43

The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them, whose weight is 80 kg, is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is :

Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Options array is empty/missing in the source, so the intended key cannot be selected. Computationally the new person's weight = 80 + (10 x 3) = 110 kg; whichever option equals 110 kg is correct.

45

Under which of the following provisions of the code of civil procedure, the prismer is required to be brought to court in custody?

  • aOrder 16A, Rule 6
  • bOrder 14, Rule 20
  • cOrder 19, Rule 21
  • dOrder 11, Rule 7
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Order 16A Rule 6 CPC requires the officer in charge of the prison to cause the named prisoner to be brought to and kept in custody in or near the court.

47

Eye :Wink :: Heart:_____

  • aThrob
  • bMove
  • cPump
  • dRespirate
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

An eye winks; correspondingly a heart throbs (its characteristic rhythmic action).

48

I am glad we are on the same page with our ideas for this project. (Give the appropriate meaning to the underlined portion).

  • aAgree
  • bDischarge
  • cDivided
  • dDeliberate
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

To be 'on the same page' is an idiom meaning to be in agreement.

49

Which section of the Gujarat Prohibition Act provides for procedure in confiscation ?

  • aSection 99
  • bSection 100
  • cSection 101
  • dSection 98
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 100 of the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 lays down the procedure in confiscation (Section 98 lists things liable to confiscation; Section 99 deals with return to bona fide owners).

50

Internet is an example of:

  • aWAN
  • bLAN
  • cInternet
  • dMAN
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

The Internet spans across countries/continents and is the classic example of a Wide Area Network (WAN).

51

In Ms- word, by default, a document is printed____mode.

  • aLandscape
  • bPortrait
  • cPage setup
  • dPrint view
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

By default, MS Word prints documents in Portrait orientation.

52

A statement by the accused must amount to a confession for the application of:

  • aSection 25 of Indian Evidence Act
  • bSection 13 of Indian Evidence Act
  • cSection 10 of Indian Evidence Act
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act bars confessions made to a police officer; for its application the statement must amount to a confession.

54

Which of the following is essential of an offence under Section 114, of Indian Penal Code ’

  • athere was abetment by accused
  • bthe act was actually committed in pursuance of abetment
  • cthe accused was present while the act was being committed
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 114 IPC (abettor present when offence committed) requires abetment by the accused, that the act was committed in pursuance of the abetment, and the accused's presence at the time of commission - all of these.

55

I______ the latest issue of the magazine in the shop and decided to buy it, (Fill in the blank with correct phrase/verb).

  • aFlipped on
  • bFlipped off
  • cFlipped through
  • dFlipped out
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

'Flipped through' means to browse/turn the pages of a magazine, which fits the context.

56

What is the presumption to be drawn under Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act ?

  • aThat the holder of the cheque received the cheque for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability.
  • bThat the drawer had duly signed the cheque.
  • cThat the cheque was dishonoured for want of sufficient funds;
  • dThat the cheque in question had not expired on the date of its presentation
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 139 NI Act raises the presumption that the holder of the cheque received it for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability, unless the contrary is proved.

58

The principle___is embodied in section 6 of the evidence acts.

  • aEstoppel
  • bRes Gestae
  • cPresumption
  • dFalsus in uno falsus in omentum
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act embodies the doctrine of res gestae - facts forming part of the same transaction are relevant.

63

The use of computer workstations to send and receive messages is known as :

  • aElectronic funds transfer
  • bElectronic message switching
  • cElectronic mail
  • dElectronic publishing
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Using computer workstations to send and receive messages is electronic mail (email).

64

Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following types of conduct would be material ?

  • aChange of life
  • bEvasion of justice
  • cFear, trembling
  • dAll of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Under subsequent conduct (relevant under Section 8 of the Evidence Act), change of life, evasion of justice, and fear/trembling are all material - all of these.

65

Which of the following deals with alternative promise, one branch being illegal in the Indian Contract Act, 1872 ?

  • aSection 56
  • bSection 50
  • cSection 55
  • dSection 58
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Section 58 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with an alternative promise one branch of which is illegal, in which case only the legal branch is enforceable.

66

Choose the word spelt correctly

  • aDispatch
  • bDispatch
  • cDispatch
  • dDyspatch
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

'Dispatch' is the correct spelling; option (d) 'Dyspatch' is wrong (options a/b/c are printed identically in the OCR, so any of those is the intended correct choice).

67

What do you understand by the term “Leading Question” ?

  • aQuestion suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive
  • bA question asked to contradict the witness by his previous writing
  • cA question asked with reasonable ground
  • dA question asked with reasonable ground
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act defines a leading question as one suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive.

68

Where a promissory note is payable by instalments have become due, and the holder of the note sues only for one of the instalments and consists of sure for the other instalments.

  • aHe can afterwards sue for these instalments
  • bHe cannot afterwards sue for these instalments
  • cEither (A) or (B)
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Under Order 2 Rule 2 CPC, a plaintiff who sues for only one matured instalment and relinquishes/omits the claim for the other due instalments cannot afterwards sue for them; the whole claim arising from one cause of action must be included.

69

The evidence of any person whose evidence is of a formal character which may be given by affidavit is provisioned in:

  • aSection 265 of Criminal procedure code
  • bSection 387 of Criminal procedure code
  • cSection 280 of Criminal procedure code
  • dSection 295 of Criminal procedure code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Evidence of formal character by affidavit is actually Section 296 CrPC, which is not among the options; the nearest related affidavit provision present is Section 295 (affidavit in proof of conduct of public servant), so option (d) is the best available guess. Likely an option-printing error.

71

Who is the first Indian to receive the honour of Bharat Ratna?

  • aDr. Sarvapali RadhaKrishnan
  • bRavindra Nath Tagore
  • cIndira Gandhi
  • dMahatma Gandhi
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was among the first recipients of the Bharat Ratna in 1954 (along with C. Rajagopalachari and C.V. Raman); he is the only first-batch awardee listed.

73

Which of the following deals with the period of detention undergone by the accused to be set off against the sentence of imprisonment?

  • aSection 286 of Criminal procedure code
  • bSection 428 of Criminal procedure code
  • cSection 588 of Criminal procedure code
  • dSection 289 of Criminal procedure code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 428 CrPC provides that the period of detention undergone by the accused during investigation, inquiry or trial shall be set off against the term of imprisonment imposed on conviction.

74

Which of the following is the limitation period under Article 27 of the limitation Act, 1963?

  • aOne year
  • bThree year
  • cFive year
  • dBoth- One year and three years
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Standard editions of the Limitation Act 1963 Schedule give Article 27 (possession on forfeiture/breach of condition) a 12-year period, which is not among the options; given the year-only options the intended answer is likely 'one year', so (a) is the best guess. Numbering/options appear inconsistent with the current Schedule.

75

To prove both the parts of the offence contemplated in section 116 of the Indian Penal code, which of the following must be proved by the prosecution?

  • aTo prove the first part, the accused did abet the offence either by instigation or by conspiracy or by international aiding or by illegal commission
  • bto prove the first part, the offence was such which is punishable with imprisonment.
  • cto prove the second part, the person abetted was a public servant during the period he was abetted.
  • dto prove the second part, it was the duty of such public servants to prevent the commission of such an offence.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 116 IPC (abetment of an offence punishable with imprisonment, where the offence is not committed), the first part requires proof that the accused abetted the offence by instigation, conspiracy or intentional aiding; option (a) correctly states this limb.

76

Which of the following latitudes pass through India ?

  • aEquator
  • bArctic Circle
  • cTropic of Capricorn
  • dTropic of Cancer
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

The Tropic of Cancer (23.5 N) passes through India, traversing eight states; the Equator, Arctic Circle and Tropic of Capricorn do not.

77

Find the odd one out

  • aJoy
  • bCleaver
  • cHappy
  • dAnxiety
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Joy, Happy and Anxiety are emotional states; 'Cleaver' is a physical object (a tool), making it the odd one out.

78

A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder. A, in the exercise to the best of his judgement exerted in good faith, of the power which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in the act, seizes Z, in order to bring Z before the proper authorities.

  • aA has committed an offence, while Z was acting in self-defence
  • bBoth A and Z committed an offence
  • cA has committed no offence, though it may turn out that Z was acting in self-defence
  • dnone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

This is the illustration to the general exception (good faith, mistake of fact, Section 79 IPC): A, apprehending what appears to be a murderer in good faith exercise of the power law gives all persons, commits no offence even if Z turns out to have acted in self-defence.

80

Expedient (Choose the Synonym)

  • aSuitable and advantageous
  • bMoral or ethical
  • cTroublesome or costly
  • dQuick
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Expedient means suitable, convenient and advantageous for a particular purpose.

82

How does Section 157 of Criminal Procedure code provides safeguards for rape victims ?

  • aThe recording of statement of the victim shall be conducted at the residence of the victim or in the place of her choice
  • bThe recording of statement as far as practicable must be conducted by a woman police officer in the presence of her parent or guardian or near relatives or social worker of the locality
  • cBoth (A) and (B)
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

The proviso to Section 157 CrPC requires, for rape offences, that the victim's statement be recorded at her residence or place of her choice and, as far as practicable, by a woman police officer in the presence of her parent/guardian/near relative/social worker; both (A) and (B) are correct.

83

Which of the following deals with how delivery to bailee is to be made in the indian contract act, 1872.

  • aSection 149
  • bSection 135
  • cSection 145
  • dSection 140
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 149 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with how delivery to a bailee is made: by doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the bailee or of any person authorised to hold them on his behalf.

85

Article 94 of the limitation act, 1963 will apply to which of the following institution/

  • aHindu religious endowment
  • bMuslim religious endowment
  • cBuddhist charitable endowment
  • dChristian religious endowment
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Article 94 of the Limitation Act 1963 covers transfers of property comprised in a Hindu, Muslim OR Buddhist religious/charitable endowment (not Christian); since options (a), (b) and (c) all qualify and only Christian is excluded, the question is defective. Hindu religious endowment (a) is taken as the intended/safest single answer.

86

Autrefois acquit or plea of double jeopardy arises:

  • aWhen a person is acquitted again of the same offence
  • bWhen a person is convicted again for the different offence
  • cWhen a person is tried again for the same offence
  • dNone of these
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Autrefois acquit (and the double jeopardy bar under Section 300 CrPC / Article 20(2)) arises when a person is tried again for the same offence after a prior acquittal or conviction.

89

I needed to study, but I kept beating around the bush. (Give the appropriate meaning to the underlined portion)

  • aGetting confused
  • bGetting angry
  • cNot coming to the point
  • dFeeling scared
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

'Beating around the bush' is an idiom meaning to avoid the main topic and not come straight to the point.

90

Which of the following is false of Section 34 and Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code ?

  • aSection 34 does not by itself create any specific offence whereas Section 149 does so.
  • bSome active participation in crime is required in Section 34 while it is not needed in Section 149
  • cSection 34 speaks of common intention while Section 149 contemplates common object
  • dSection 34 requires at least five persons who must share the common intention while Section 149 requires at least two persons to share the common intention
Answer & solution

Correct answer: D

Statement (d) is false: Section 149 IPC (unlawful assembly) requires at least five persons sharing a common object, whereas Section 34 requires at least two persons sharing a common intention; option (d) reverses these requirements.

91

Article 51A of the Constitution of India provides for :

  • afundamental duties
  • bpromotion of international peace and security
  • corganisation of agriculture and animal husbandry
  • dprotection of monuments and places and objects of national importance
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Article 51A of the Constitution of India (inserted by the 42nd Amendment) enumerates the Fundamental Duties of citizens.

92

A agrees to sell to B the goods which are on their way to Chennai from Oman by a ship. But before the agreement between the parties, the ship had sunk and the goods to be sold to B, were lost. Neither party is aware of this happening. The agreement is :

  • aVoid
  • bVoidable
  • cValid
  • dEnforceable
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Under Section 20 of the Contract Act (mistake of fact as to a matter essential to the agreement) and Section 6 of the Sale of Goods Act (goods perishing before the contract without the knowledge of either party), the agreement is void.

93

Voluntarily causing grievous hurt to extort property or a valuable security or to constrain to do anything, which is, illegal or which may facilitate the commission of an offence is dealt under

  • aSection 329 of Indian Penal Code
  • bSection 330 of Indian Penal Code
  • cSection 331 of Indian Penal Code
  • dSection 332 of Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Section 329 IPC punishes voluntarily causing grievous hurt to extort property/valuable security or to constrain a person to do anything illegal or which may facilitate an offence.

94

When a file is saved for the first time____________.

  • aa copy is automatically printed
  • bit must be given a name to identify it
  • cit does not need a name
  • dit only needs a name if it is not going to be printed
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

When a file is saved for the first time it must be given a name (and location) to identify it so it can be stored and retrieved.

95

CTRL+Z=_____.

  • aUndo last action”
  • bInsert Link
  • cMinimise Current Window
  • dBold highlighted section
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

CTRL+Z is the standard keyboard shortcut to undo the last action.

97

Which of the following deals with subsequent pleading in the code of civil procedure?

  • aOrder 8, rule 9
  • bOrder 4, rule 13
  • cOrder 6, rule 10
  • dOrder 10, rule 22
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Order 8 Rule 9 CPC deals with subsequent pleadings (no pleading subsequent to the written statement other than by way of defence to set-off or counterclaim shall be presented except by leave of the Court).

98

Under Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act, secondary evidence includes;

  • acertified copies
  • bcopies made from the original by mechanical processes, and copies compared with such copies
  • ccopies made from or compared with the original
  • dcounterparts of documents, as against the parties who did not execute them
Answer & solution

Correct answer: B

Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act, clause (2), lists as secondary evidence copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves ensure accuracy, and copies compared with such copies.

99

In case presentation of an instrument for acceptance or payment is delayed,______.

  • aThe responsibility of all the parties thereto end
  • bIt becomes ineligible for payment
  • cThe delay can be excused if it is caused by circumstances outside the control of the holder and not because of his negligence, default or misconduct
  • dThe delay can be excused if it is caused by circumstances outside the control of the holder, or due to his negligence, but not if caused due to default or misconduct.
Answer & solution

Correct answer: C

Section 75A of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 excuses delay in presentment for acceptance or payment where it is caused by circumstances beyond the holder's control and not imputable to his default, misconduct or negligence.

100

Article 20(2) of the constitution of India provides for protection against:

  • aDouble jeopardy
  • bWrongful restraint
  • cArrest and detention
  • dChild labour
Answer & solution

Correct answer: A

Article 20(2) of the Constitution embodies the rule against double jeopardy: no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

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