Q1English Knowledge
One word substitution for 'a person who can speak two languages' is —
aLinguist
bPolyglot
cBilingual
dOrator
Answer: C
A 'bilingual' person speaks two languages; a 'polyglot' knows or speaks many languages.
Madhya Pradesh Judiciary · Prelims Mock Test 4
Madhya Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 4 — Questions & Solutions
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Start timed test →Q2English Knowledge
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ______ the charge of theft.'
awith
bagainst
cfrom
dof
Answer: D
The verb 'acquit' takes the preposition 'of'; one is acquitted 'of' a charge.
Q3Limitation Act, 1963
A suit to obtain a declaration falls under Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, for which the prescribed period is -
asix years from when the right to sue accrues
bthree years from when the right to sue first accrues
cone year from the right to sue
dtwelve years from the date of the order sought to be declared void
Answer: B
Article 58 prescribes three years for a suit to obtain any declaration, computed from the date when the right to sue 'first' accrues; the word 'first' distinguishes it from the residuary Article 113.
Q4Limitation Act, 1963
A suit to enforce a right of pre-emption is governed by Article 97 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, which prescribes a limitation period of -
asix years
btwelve years
cone year
dthree years
Answer: C
Article 97 prescribes one year for a suit to enforce a right of pre-emption, running from when the purchaser takes physical possession (or, where the subject is not possessory, registration of the sale deed).
Q5Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the person who is directed to pay by the maker of a bill of exchange or cheque is called the :-
aPayee
bDrawee
cDrawer
dAcceptor
Answer: B
Under Section 7, the maker of a bill of exchange or cheque is the "drawer"; the person thereby directed to pay is the "drawee"; and the person to whom payment is directed is the "payee".
Q6Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
The provision for grant of a temporary injunction to preserve property in dispute that is in danger of being wasted, damaged or wrongfully alienated is contained in :-
aOrder 39 Rule 4 CPC
bOrder 39 Rules 1 and 2 CPC
cOrder 38 Rule 5 CPC
dOrder 40 Rule 1 CPC
Answer: B
Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 CPC empower the court to grant a temporary injunction to preserve the subject matter of the suit; Order 38 Rule 5 deals with the distinct remedy of attachment before judgment to secure a future decree.
Q7Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Where a decree or order is varied or reversed in appeal, revision or other proceeding, the remedy by which a party may be restored to the position he would have occupied but for such decree, including refund and mesne profits, is provided under :-
aSection 151 CPC
bSection 115 CPC
cSection 144 CPC
dSection 114 CPC
Answer: C
Section 144 CPC embodies the doctrine of restitution; on variation or reversal of a decree the court that passed it may order such restitution, including refund of costs, interest, damages, compensation and mesne profits, to restore parties to their original position.
Q8Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
The inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court is saved by :-
aSection 149 CPC
bSection 151 CPC
cSection 153 CPC
dSection 148 CPC
Answer: B
Section 151 CPC declares that nothing in the Code shall limit or affect the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court.
Source: https://lawfoyer.in/important-concepts-res-sub-judice-resjudicata-restitution-caveat-inherent-powers-of-courts-reference-review-and-revision-of-cpc/ · https://www.studocu.com/in/document/guru-gobind-singh-indraprastha-university/bba-llb/1b-res-sub-judice-resjudicata-restitution-caveat-inherent-powers-of-courts-cpc/45332709
Q9Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
No appeal lies from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties. This bar is contained in :-
aSection 97 CPC
bSection 96(3) CPC
cSection 96(1) CPC
dSection 96(2) CPC
Answer: B
Section 96(3) CPC expressly bars an appeal from a decree passed with the consent of the parties; the remedy of an aggrieved party is to approach the court that recorded the compromise.
Q10Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
A party seeking to set aside a compromise decree on the ground that the compromise was not lawful :-
amay institute a separate suit for that purpose
bmay only file a revision under Section 115
cmay file a first appeal under Section 96(1) without any restriction
dis barred from instituting a separate suit and must approach the court which recorded the compromise
Answer: D
Order 23 Rule 3A CPC (inserted by the 1976 Amendment) bars a separate suit to set aside a decree on the ground that the compromise on which it is based was not lawful; the only remedy is to approach the same court that recorded the compromise.
Q11Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Additional evidence may be admitted by the appellate court under Order 41 Rule 27 of the Code of Civil Procedure in which of the following situations?
aOnly where the opposite party consents
bWhere the trial court refused to admit evidence which ought to have been admitted, or the appellate court requires it to pronounce judgment
cWhenever a party desires to strengthen its case
dIn every appeal as a matter of right
Answer: B
Order 41 Rule 27 CPC permits additional evidence in appeal only in limited circumstances, such as where the trial court wrongly refused admissible evidence, where the evidence was not within the party's knowledge despite due diligence, or where the appellate court itself requires it to pronounce judgment; it cannot be used merely to fill lacunae.
Q12Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
The maximum period within which a defendant may be permitted to file his written statement, reckoned from the date of service of summons, under the first proviso to Order 8 Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure (in a non-commercial suit) is :-
a60 days
b30 days
c90 days
d120 days
Answer: C
Under Order 8 Rule 1 CPC the defendant must ordinarily file the written statement within 30 days of service of summons, extendable for reasons recorded in writing up to a maximum of 90 days; the rigid 120-day outer limit applies only to commercial suits.
Q13Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
The leading decision of the Supreme Court which upheld the constitutional validity of Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure relating to settlement of disputes outside the court (ADR) was rendered in :-
aSalem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India
bHussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
cManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
dSushil Kumar Sen v. State of Bihar
Answer: A
In Salem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of Section 89 CPC and gave it a workable interpretation; the modes of ADR under Section 89 were further elaborated in Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co.
Q14Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Amendment of pleadings, allowing either party at any stage of the proceedings to alter or amend its pleadings as may be necessary for determining the real questions in controversy, is governed by :-
aOrder 8 Rule 9 CPC
bOrder 1 Rule 10 CPC
cOrder 7 Rule 11 CPC
dOrder 6 Rule 17 CPC
Answer: D
Order 6 Rule 17 CPC empowers the court at any stage to allow amendment of pleadings on just terms as necessary to determine the real questions in controversy; Order 1 Rule 10 deals with addition or striking out of parties.
Q15Constitution of India
The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is contained in Article 368. A constitutional amendment that seeks to change provisions such as the election of the President, the extent of executive or legislative power of the Union and States, or the Seventh Schedule, requires, in addition to a special majority of Parliament:
aAssent of the Council of States by two-thirds majority
bRatification by all the State Legislatures
cRatification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States
dA referendum among the electorate
Answer: C
Under the proviso to Article 368(2), amendments affecting the enumerated federal provisions must, in addition to the special majority, be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States before being presented for assent.
Q16Constitution of India
The 'Doctrine of Pleasure', under which civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President, is embodied in:
aArticle 311
bArticle 309
cArticle 312
dArticle 310
Answer: D
Article 310 embodies the doctrine of pleasure, providing that members of the defence and civil services of the Union hold office during the pleasure of the President; Article 311 provides safeguards against this rule.
Q17Constitution of India
Under Article 32, which the Supreme Court in some decisions has described as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution, the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights:
aIs merely a directive principle of State policy
bCan be taken away by an ordinary law of Parliament
cIs available only against State Governments, not the Union
dIs itself a fundamental right, but may be suspended except as otherwise provided by the Constitution
Answer: D
Article 32(1) guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court as itself a fundamental right; under Article 32(4) it cannot be suspended except as otherwise provided by the Constitution (e.g., under Article 359 during an emergency).
Q18Constitution of India
Under Article 233 of the Constitution of India, the appointment of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by:
aThe State Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
bThe President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
cThe Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State
dThe Chief Justice of the High Court alone
Answer: C
Article 233(1) provides that appointments, postings and promotions of district judges are made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State.
Q19Constitution of India
A person who is not already in the service of the Union or of the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233(2) only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than:
aThree years
bTen years
cSeven years
dFive years
Answer: C
Article 233(2) requires that such a person must have been an advocate or pleader for at least seven years and be recommended by the High Court for appointment.
Q20Constitution of India
The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution, holding that Parliament cannot under Article 368 amend the Constitution so as to destroy its basic structure, was propounded by the Supreme Court in:
aIndira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
bGolak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967)
cKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
dMinerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
Answer: C
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge bench held by a 7:6 majority that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 does not extend to altering the basic structure of the Constitution.
Q21Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Section 55 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) lays down the rule that:
aOral evidence must, in all cases, be direct
bSecondary evidence may be given without accounting for the original
cAll documentary evidence must be in the form of primary evidence
dHearsay evidence is always admissible if relevant
Answer: A
Section 55 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 enacts that oral evidence must in all cases be direct, i.e. of a fact seen by the witness who saw it, heard by the witness who heard it, and so on, thereby excluding hearsay.
Q22Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Under the definitions in Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), where one fact is declared to be "conclusive proof" of another, the Court:
aMay presume the other fact at its discretion
bShall regard the other fact as proved and shall not allow evidence to be given to disprove it
cMay regard the other fact as proved but may call for confirmatory evidence
dShall regard the other fact as proved unless and until it is disproved
Answer: B
Under Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where one fact is declared "conclusive proof" of another, the Court shall, on proof of the one, regard the other as proved and shall not allow evidence to be given to disprove it; the irrebuttable nature distinguishes it from "shall presume" (rebuttable) and "may presume" (discretionary).
Q23Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Under Section 6 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), which of the following is a relevant fact?
aAny fact which is the occasion, cause or effect of a fact in issue
bAny fact showing the motive or preparation for any fact in issue or relevant fact, or the conduct of a party influenced by or influencing such fact
cAny fact forming part of the same transaction (res gestae)
dAny opinion of a person specially skilled in science or art
Answer: B
Section 6 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 makes relevant any fact showing motive or preparation for a fact in issue or relevant fact, and the conduct of a party or his agent that influences or is influenced by such fact. (Option (a) is Section 5 BSA, (c) Section 4 BSA, (d) Section 39 BSA.)
Q24Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a confession made to a police officer:
ashall not be proved as against a person accused of any offence
bmay be proved against the accused if it is corroborated
cis admissible if made voluntarily and without inducement
dmay be proved only if recorded in the presence of two witnesses
Answer: A
Section 23(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 lays down an absolute bar: no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence, irrespective of voluntariness or corroboration.
Q25Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
So much of information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved. This 'discovery of fact' exception is contained in:
aSection 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
bSection 25 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
cSection 22 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
dthe proviso to Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is an exception to the bar in Section 23; only that part of the information which relates distinctly to the fact discovered, whether it amounts to a confession or not, is provable. Section 25 BSA deals with admissions not being conclusive proof (and operating as estoppel), not discovery.
Q26Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
In Pulukuri Kottaya v. Emperor (AIR 1947 PC 67), it was held that for the purpose of the 'discovery of fact' provision (now the proviso to Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023), the 'fact discovered' embraces:
aonly the motive disclosed by the accused
bonly the physical object such as the weapon recovered
cthe entire confessional statement of the accused
dthe place from which the object is produced and the accused's knowledge of it
Answer: D
The Privy Council held that the 'fact discovered' is not merely the object produced but includes the place from which it is produced and the knowledge of the accused as to this; only information relating distinctly to that fact is admissible, a principle carried into the proviso to Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
Q27General Knowledge
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom: 'To cross swords'.
aTo travel abroad
bTo take an oath
cTo make peace
dTo enter into conflict or argument
Answer: D
The idiom 'to cross swords' means to engage in a dispute, argument or conflict with someone.
Q28General Knowledge
Choose the one-word substitution for 'a government by officials':
aPlutocracy
bTheocracy
cBureaucracy
dAristocracy
Answer: C
'Bureaucracy' is the one-word substitution for a system of government in which most decisions are taken by State officials rather than by elected representatives.
Q29General Knowledge
Mauganj, which was carved out of Rewa district on 15 August 2023, became which numbered district of Madhya Pradesh?
a53rd
b55th
c52nd
d51st
Answer: A
Mauganj was notified as the 53rd district of Madhya Pradesh, formed out of Rewa district and made functional on 15 August 2023.
Q30General Knowledge
Kuno National Park, the site of India's Project Cheetah where African cheetahs were reintroduced in September 2022, is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
aShivpuri
bMandsaur
cMorena
dSheopur
Answer: D
Kuno National Park lies in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh, where Namibian cheetahs were released on 17 September 2022 under Project Cheetah.
Q31General Knowledge
The Tansen Samaroh, an annual classical music festival held in Madhya Pradesh, is organised at the tomb of Tansen in which city?
aKhajuraho
bUjjain
cMaheshwar
dGwalior
Answer: D
The Tansen Samaroh is held every year in December near the tomb of the musician Tansen at Gwalior, organised by the state's culture department.
Q32Indian Contract Act, 1872
Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful in all the following cases EXCEPT where it:-
ais forbidden by law
bthe Court regards as immoral or opposed to public policy
cis of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law
dresults in a poor commercial bargain for one party
Answer: D
Section 23 declares consideration or object unlawful only if it is forbidden by law, defeats the provisions of any law, is fraudulent, involves injury to person or property, or is immoral or opposed to public policy; a mere bad bargain does not make the object unlawful.
Q33Indian Contract Act, 1872
Which one of the following best states the ratio of Satyabrata Ghose Vs. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. regarding the doctrine of frustration?
aFrustration applies only where the subject matter is physically destroyed
bSection 56 of the Contract Act is exhaustive on supervening impossibility, and a temporary requisition not destroying the foundation of the contract does not frustrate it
cThe doctrine of frustration in India is governed by the English theory of implied terms, not the Contract Act
dCommercial hardship or rise in price by itself frustrates a contract
Answer: B
In Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. (AIR 1954 SC 44) the Supreme Court held that frustration in India is governed by Section 56 and not the English implied-term theory, and that a temporary wartime requisition which did not destroy the foundation of the contract did not frustrate it.
Q34Indian Contract Act, 1872
Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which provides for compensation for loss caused by breach of contract, is regarded as the statutory embodiment of the rule laid down in:-
aHadley Vs. Baxendale
bCundy Vs. Lindsay
cTaylor Vs. Caldwell
dHochster Vs. De La Tour
Answer: A
Section 73 codifies the principle of Hadley v. Baxendale (1854): only loss arising naturally in the usual course of things, or which the parties knew at the time of contract to be likely from the breach, is recoverable; remote and indirect loss is not.
Q35Indian Contract Act, 1872
Where a contract contains a stipulation by way of liquidated damages or penalty for breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, entitles the aggrieved party to receive:-
ano compensation at all unless actual loss is strictly proved
bthe whole of the sum named irrespective of actual loss
creasonable compensation not exceeding the sum named, whether or not actual loss is proved
ddouble the sum named as a deterrent
Answer: C
Section 74 provides that where a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid on breach, the party complaining of breach is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named, irrespective of proof of actual damage.
Q36Indian Contract Act, 1872
The chief distinction between a contract of indemnity (Section 124) and a contract of guarantee (Section 126) under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, lies in that:-
aa guarantee need not be supported by consideration, while an indemnity must be
ba guarantee has three parties (creditor, principal debtor and surety) whereas an indemnity has two parties
cin indemnity the liability is secondary, while in guarantee it is primary
dan indemnity has three parties whereas a guarantee has only two parties
Answer: B
A contract of indemnity (Section 124) involves two parties, the indemnifier and the indemnity-holder, whereas a contract of guarantee (Section 126) involves three parties, the creditor, the principal debtor and the surety, whose liability is collateral to that of the principal debtor.
Q37Indian Penal Code, 1860
A man has sexual intercourse with a woman by making a promise to marry her without any intention of fulfilling it, such intercourse not amounting to rape. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, he is liable under:
aSection 69
bSection 64
cSection 63
dSection 85
Answer: A
Section 69 BNS is a new offence that punishes sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means, including a false promise to marry, with imprisonment up to ten years and fine, where it does not amount to rape.
Q38Indian Penal Code, 1860
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'dowry death' is dealt with under:
aSection 80
bSection 84
cSection 79
dSection 85
Answer: A
Section 80 BNS deals with dowry death (corresponding to Section 304B IPC) and is punishable with imprisonment of not less than seven years which may extend to imprisonment for life.
Q39Indian Penal Code, 1860
Subjecting a married woman to cruelty by her husband or a relative of her husband is, under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an offence under:
aSection 86
bSection 80
cSection 84
dSection 85
Answer: D
Section 85 BNS punishes cruelty by husband or his relative (corresponding to Section 498A IPC) with imprisonment up to three years and fine; Section 86 defines 'cruelty' for this purpose.
Q40Indian Penal Code, 1860
Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with 'organised crime', a category of offence newly codified in the Sanhita?
aSection 113
bSection 109
cSection 110
dSection 111
Answer: D
Section 111 BNS newly defines and punishes 'organised crime', covering acts such as kidnapping, extortion and cyber-crime committed on behalf of a crime syndicate; this had no counterpart in the IPC.
Q41Indian Penal Code, 1860
The offence of acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, which replaces the erstwhile offence of sedition, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 147
bSection 150
cSection 152
dSection 197
Answer: C
Section 152 BNS replaces the old sedition provision (Section 124A IPC) and punishes acts exciting secession, armed rebellion or subversive activities, with imprisonment for life or up to seven years and fine.
Q42Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023, a Judicial Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding:
aOne year, or fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both
bThree years, or fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both, or community service
cFive years, or fine up to one lakh rupees, or both
dSeven years, or fine up to ten thousand rupees
Answer: B
Section 23(1) BNSS empowers a Magistrate of the first class to pass a sentence of imprisonment up to three years, or fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both, or community service.
Q43Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 105 of the BNSS, 2023, the search and seizure of property and the preparation of the list of seized articles shall be:
aWitnessed only by a gazetted officer
bRecorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone, and forwarded to the Magistrate
cConducted only after obtaining a warrant from the District Magistrate
dRecorded only in writing in the presence of two witnesses
Answer: B
Section 105 BNSS newly mandates that the process of search and seizure and preparation of the seizure list be recorded through audio-video electronic means (preferably a mobile phone) and forwarded without delay to the District/Sub-Divisional Magistrate or Magistrate of the first class.
Q44Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023, inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender may be commenced by the Court after the expiry of:
aNinety days from the date of framing of charge
bThirty days from the date of framing of charge
cOne hundred and eighty days from the date of the FIR
dSixty days from the date of issue of the proclamation
Answer: A
Section 356 BNSS, a new provision, allows trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender where the Court proceeds with the trial after ninety days have elapsed from the date of framing of charge.
Q45Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 290 of the BNSS, 2023, an application for plea bargaining is to be filed by the accused within a period of:
aThirty days from the date of framing of charge
bSeven days from the date of the FIR
cSixty days from the filing of the charge-sheet
dFifteen days from the cognizance of offence
Answer: A
Section 290 BNSS makes plea bargaining time-bound, requiring the accused to file the application within thirty days from the date of framing of charge.
Q46Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023, a first-time offender (who has never been convicted) undergoing detention as an undertrial shall ordinarily be released on bond after having undergone detention up to:
aTwo-thirds of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
bOne-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
cThe full maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
dOne-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
Answer: D
The first proviso to Section 479(1) BNSS provides that a first-time offender shall be released on bond by the Court after having undergone detention for up to one-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence.
Q47Specific Relief Act, 1963
Clause (ha) inserted in Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 by the 2018 amendment bars the grant of an injunction where it :-
awould impede or delay the progress or completion of any infrastructure project or interfere with the continued provision of any related facility or service
bis sought against the Government
cwould prevent a continuing breach of trust
drelates to enforcement of a penal law
Answer: A
Section 41(ha), added by the 2018 amendment, prohibits an injunction if it would impede or delay the progress or completion of an infrastructure project or interfere with the continued provision of any facility or service connected with such project.
Q48Specific Relief Act, 1963
In a suit for perpetual injunction under Section 38 or mandatory injunction under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the plaintiff may, under Section 40, claim damages :-
ain substitution for the injunction only
bin no circumstances, as damages are alien to injunction suits
cin addition to the injunction only
deither in addition to, or in substitution for, such injunction
Answer: D
Section 40(1) allows the plaintiff in a suit under Section 38 or 39 to claim damages either in addition to, or in substitution for, the injunction, provided such relief has been claimed in the plaint (or by amendment).
Q49Specific Relief Act, 1963
A person who has been dispossessed of immovable property without his consent otherwise than in due course of law may recover possession by a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. Such a suit must be brought within :-
athirty days from the date of dispossession
bsix months from the date of dispossession
cone year from the date of dispossession
dtwelve years from the date of dispossession
Answer: B
Section 6(2)(a) bars a suit under Section 6 if brought after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession; this summary remedy is independent of title.
Q50Specific Relief Act, 1963
Against an order or decree passed in a suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 :-
aan appeal lies but no review is permitted
bneither an appeal nor a review lies
ca review lies but no appeal is permitted
dboth an appeal and a review lie as a matter of right
Answer: B
Section 6(3) expressly provides that no appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in a suit under Section 6, nor shall any review of such order or decree be allowed; the remedy of an aggrieved party is a regular title suit.
Q51Transfer of Property Act, 1882
A makes a gift to B of a number of shares, some of which are fully paid and some of which carry a heavy onerous burden of further calls, by a single transfer. Under Section 127 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, B:
aIs liable only to the extent of the value of the benefit received
bMust, if he accepts the gift, take it as a whole including the onerous shares
cMay accept the fully paid shares and reject the burdened ones
dCan take nothing by the gift
Answer: B
Section 127 provides that where a single gift comprises several things, one of which is burdened by an onerous obligation, the donee can take nothing unless he accepts it fully; he cannot accept the beneficial part and reject the onerous part.
Q52Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a sale of tangible immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards can be made only by:
aAn unregistered written agreement signed by the seller
bEither a registered instrument or delivery of possession
cDelivery of possession alone
dA registered instrument
Answer: D
Section 54 provides that in the case of tangible immovable property of value of one hundred rupees and upwards, or in the case of a reversion or other intangible thing, sale can be made only by a registered instrument; delivery suffices only for tangible property below one hundred rupees.
Q53Transfer of Property Act, 1882
In the absence of a contract, local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable on the part of either lessor or lessee by:
aone month's notice
bsix months' notice
cthree months' notice
dfifteen days' notice
Answer: B
Under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, a lease for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be from year to year, terminable by six months' notice; a lease for any other purpose is from month to month, terminable by fifteen days' notice.
Q54Transfer of Property Act, 1882
'A', professing to transfer to 'B' for consideration the property of his uncle 'C' which 'A' merely hopes to inherit, executes a sale deed; later 'C' dies and 'A' actually inherits the property. 'B' demands the property. Which provision governs and what is the result?
aThe transfer is void under Section 6(a) as it was of a spes successionis
bAt B's option, the transfer becomes operative on the interest later acquired by A under Section 43
cThe transfer is valid only if C had consented in writing during his lifetime
dB can claim only damages and not the property, under Section 6(e)
Answer: B
Under Section 43 (feeding the grant by estoppel), where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer property and the transfer is for consideration, the transfer operates on any interest he subsequently acquires, at the option of the transferee. The Supreme Court in Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah, AIR 1962 SC 847, held Section 43 prevails over Section 6(a) where the transferee acts on a representation of present title.
Q55M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
Which of the following landlords is NOT included within the definition of 'landlord' for the purpose of Chapter III-A (Section 23-J) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 ?
aA widow or a divorced wife
bA physically handicapped person
cA minor who has inherited the accommodation
dA retired servant of any Government, including a retired member of the Defence Services
Answer: C
Section 23-J defines 'landlord' for Chapter III-A to include retired Government/defence servants, retired servants of Government-controlled companies, widows or divorced wives, physically handicapped persons, and certain serving Government employees; a minor heir is not within this special category.
Q56M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
In proceedings under Chapter III-A of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, a tenant who has been served with a summons can contest the application only after obtaining leave from the Rent Controlling Authority, and the application for such leave must be filed within :
atwo months of service of summons
bseven days of service of summons
cthirty days of service of summons
dfifteen days of service of summons
Answer: D
Under Section 23-C, the tenant must file an application supported by affidavit seeking leave to contest within fifteen days of the service of summons; failing which the landlord's averments in the eviction application are deemed admitted.
Q57M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
An application by a specified-category landlord for recovery of possession on the ground of bona fide requirement under Chapter III-A of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, is decided by :
athe District Judge
bthe Collector of the district
cthe Civil Judge having territorial jurisdiction
dthe Rent Controlling Authority
Answer: D
Under Section 23-A, an application for recovery of possession on the ground of bona fide requirement by a Chapter III-A landlord is made to and decided by the Rent Controlling Authority following the summary procedure of that Chapter.
Q58M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
Under Section 11 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, which of the following is NOT included among the classes of Revenue Officers?
aPatwari
bTahsildar
cNaib-Tahsildar
dCommissioner
Answer: A
Section 11 enumerates Revenue Officers from Commissioner down to Naib-Tahsildar and Assistant Superintendents of Land Records; the patwari is not listed as a class of Revenue Officer under this section.
Q59M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
Under Section 257 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, on matters which a Revenue Officer is empowered to determine under the Code, the jurisdiction of a Civil Court is -
aconcurrent with the Revenue Court
bavailable only with leave of the Board of Revenue
cbarred, save as otherwise provided
davailable only after exhausting appeals under the Code
Answer: C
Section 257 ousts the jurisdiction of Civil Courts over matters which the State Government, Board or any Revenue Officer is empowered to decide under the Code, except as otherwise provided.
Q60M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
Diversion of land, i.e. using land assessed for one purpose under Section 59 for another purpose, is dealt with under which section of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959?
aSection 170
bSection 165
cSection 178
dSection 172
Answer: D
Section 172 governs diversion of land; its Explanation defines diversion as using land assessed to one purpose under Section 59 for any other purpose mentioned therein.
Q61Computer Knowledge
In the context of email, 'Cc' stands for:
aCarbon Copy
bClosed Circuit
cComputer Copy
dConfidential Copy
Answer: A
In email, 'Cc' stands for Carbon Copy; recipients in the Cc field receive a copy of the message and their addresses are visible to all recipients.
Q62Computer Knowledge
Which of the following is the default file extension of a Microsoft Excel workbook created in recent versions?
a.docx
b.pptx
c.xlsx
d.txt
Answer: C
Modern Microsoft Excel workbooks are saved with the .xlsx extension, while .docx is for Word documents and .pptx is for PowerPoint presentations.
Q63Computer Knowledge
'URL' in the context of the internet stands for:
aUniversal Resource Language
bUniversal Reference Link
cUniform Resource Locator
dUnique Reference Locator
Answer: C
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, which is the address used to locate a resource such as a web page on the internet.
Q64English Knowledge
Choose the word that is the antonym of 'Frugal'.
aEconomical
bThrifty
cExtravagant
dSparing
Answer: C
'Frugal' means careful and sparing with money; its antonym is 'extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish in spending.
Q65English Knowledge
The idiom 'a red-letter day' means —
aA day of warning
bA memorable or joyfully important day
cA day of hard labour
dA day of mourning
Answer: B
'A red-letter day' refers to a day that is pleasantly memorable or special, traditionally marked in red on calendars.
Q66English Knowledge
One who is recovering from illness is called —
aPatient
bValetudinarian
cInvalid
dConvalescent
Answer: D
A 'convalescent' is a person who is recovering health and strength after an illness.
Q67Limitation Act, 1963
An application for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 is governed by the residuary Article 137, which prescribes -
athree years from when the right to apply accrues
bninety days from the right to apply
cthirty days from the right to apply
dtwelve years from when the right to apply accrues
Answer: A
Article 137, the residuary article for applications, prescribes three years from the date when the right to apply accrues; it applies to applications under the CPC and other applications not specifically provided for elsewhere in the Schedule.
Q68Limitation Act, 1963
A suit is instituted after the period prescribed in the Schedule has expired, but the defendant in his written statement does not plead limitation as a defence. What is the duty of the court under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963?
aThe court shall stay the suit and direct the defendant to amend the written statement
bThe court shall dismiss the suit, even though limitation has not been set up as a defence
cThe court must decree the suit since limitation has been waived by the defendant
dThe court may proceed with the suit unless the defendant later raises the plea
Answer: B
Section 3 makes the bar of limitation mandatory: any suit instituted, appeal preferred or application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed although limitation has not been set up as a defence. Limitation cannot be waived by the parties.
Q69Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effect of a material alteration of a negotiable instrument under Section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
aIt renders the instrument voidable at the option of the holder
bIt has no effect on the validity of the instrument
cIt renders the instrument void against anyone who was a party at the time of the alteration and did not consent thereto
dIt renders the instrument void in all cases without exception
Answer: C
Section 87 provides that any material alteration renders the instrument void as against anyone who was a party at the time of the alteration and did not consent thereto, unless the alteration was made to carry out the common intention of the original parties.
Q70Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Where the holder of a decree for possession of immovable property is resisted or obstructed by any person in obtaining possession, the decree-holder may make an application complaining of such resistance under :-
aOrder 21 Rule 97 CPC
bOrder 21 Rule 58 CPC
cOrder 21 Rule 101 CPC
dOrder 21 Rule 32 CPC
Answer: A
Order 21 Rule 97 CPC enables a decree-holder for possession of immovable property (or the auction-purchaser) who is resisted or obstructed in obtaining possession to apply to the court complaining of such resistance or obstruction.
Q71Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, the jurisdiction of civil courts to try all suits of a civil nature is conferred by Section 9, subject to the qualification that such jurisdiction is :-
aavailable only with prior sanction of the District Judge
bbarred in all suits involving the Government
cavailable unless its cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
davailable only where the suit value exceeds a prescribed amount
Answer: C
Section 9 CPC provides that civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.
Q72Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Under Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, any agreement by which a judgment-debtor waives the benefit of the exemptions from attachment specified in the proviso to Section 60(1) is :-
avalid only if registered
bvoid
cvoidable at the option of the decree-holder
dvalid and binding
Answer: B
Section 60 CPC specifies properties liable to attachment and those exempt under its proviso; a sub-section inserted by the 1976 Amendment declares void any agreement by which a person waives the benefit of the exemptions under the proviso to Section 60(1).
Q73Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature :-
aexcepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
bexcepting suits in which the right to property is contested
conly where the suit relates to a question of religious rites or ceremonies
donly when such jurisdiction is expressly conferred by statute
Answer: A
Section 9 provides that civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those of which cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. The Explanation makes clear that a suit relating to religious office is a suit of a civil nature even though it may involve a question as to religious rites.
Q74Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
As per Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every suit shall be instituted in the Court of :-
athe lowest grade competent to try it
bthe grade chosen at the option of the plaintiff
cthe District Judge alone
dthe highest grade competent to try it
Answer: A
Section 15, titled 'Court in which suits to be instituted', requires that every suit be instituted in the Court of the lowest grade competent to try it; this is a rule of procedure intended to distribute work and not one that ousts jurisdiction.
Q75Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
The doctrine of res judicata, which bars a Court from trying any suit or issue already directly and substantially in issue in a former suit finally decided between the same parties, is contained in :-
aSection 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
bSection 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
cSection 12 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
dSection 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: B
Section 11 embodies the doctrine of res judicata, preventing re-litigation of a matter already directly and substantially in issue and finally decided between the same parties or those claiming under them by a competent court. Section 10, by contrast, deals with stay of suit (res sub judice).
Q76Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
The general power to transfer and withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before it to any subordinate Court is conferred upon the High Court or the District Court by :-
aSection 24 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
bSection 23 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
cSection 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
dSection 22 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: A
Section 24 confers the general power of transfer and withdrawal on the High Court and the District Court, exercisable on application of a party or suo motu. Section 25 separately empowers the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal or proceeding from a High Court in one State to a High Court in another State.
Q77Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
No suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiration of a notice period of :-
atwo months after notice in writing under Section 80
bthree months after notice in writing under Section 80
csix months after notice in writing under Section 80
done month after notice in writing under Section 80
Answer: A
Section 80 requires that two months' written notice be served before instituting a suit against the Government or a public officer in respect of acts done in official capacity. The proviso added by the 1976 amendment allows a suit to be filed with leave of the court without notice in cases requiring urgent relief.
Q78Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal (except on a question of law) shall lie from a decree in any suit cognizable by Courts of Small Causes where the value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed :-
atwenty thousand rupees
bten thousand rupees
cfive thousand rupees
dthree thousand rupees
Answer: B
Section 96(4) bars an appeal, except on a question of law, from a decree in a suit of a nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes where the value of the subject-matter does not exceed ten thousand rupees.
Q79Constitution of India
Under Article 312, Parliament may create a new All-India Service only if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) has declared by resolution, supported by:
aAn absolute majority of the total membership of the House
bA simple majority of the members present and voting, that it is necessary in the national interest
cNot less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest
dNot less than one-half of the total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting
Answer: C
Article 312(1) requires the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring it necessary or expedient in the national interest, before Parliament may create a new All-India Service.
Q80Constitution of India
Under Article 280, the President is required to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every:
aFifth year, or at such earlier time as he considers necessary
bThird year, or at such earlier time as he considers necessary
cFourth year, or at such earlier time as he considers necessary
dSixth year, or at such earlier time as he considers necessary
Answer: A
Article 280(1) requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year, or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
Q81Constitution of India
The Finance Commission constituted under Article 280 consists of a Chairman and:
aThree other members appointed by the President
bFour other members appointed by the President
cFive other members appointed by the President
dTwo other members appointed by the President
Answer: B
Article 280(1) provides that the Finance Commission shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President.
Q82Constitution of India
Under Article 243-O of the Constitution of India, no election to any Panchayat shall be called in question except:
aBy a writ petition before the High Court under Article 226
bBy a suit before the competent civil court
cBy an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by or under any law made by the State Legislature
dBy an appeal to the State Election Commission
Answer: C
Article 243-O(b) bars courts from interfering in Panchayat electoral matters and provides that no election to a Panchayat shall be called in question except by an election petition presented to the authority and in the manner provided by State law.
Q83Constitution of India
Which one of the following writs may a High Court issue under Article 226 but the territorial reach of which is expressly extended where the cause of action arises wholly or in part within its jurisdiction?
aArticle 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and also for any other purpose
bArticle 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs only for enforcement of fundamental rights and for no other purpose
cArticle 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs only to authorities situated within its territory in every case without exception
dArticle 226 confers no power to issue prerogative writs
Answer: A
Article 226(1) empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Part III rights 'and for any other purpose', and clause (2) extends jurisdiction where the cause of action arises wholly or in part, even if the authority is outside the territory.
Q84Constitution of India
Under Article 124(2) of the Constitution, a Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of:
aSixty-five years
bSeventy years
cSixty-two years
dSixty years
Answer: A
Article 124(2) provides that a Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.
Q85Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
In Khushal Rao v. State of Bombay (AIR 1958 SC 22), interpreting the law on dying declarations now contained in Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the Supreme Court held that a dying declaration:
acan never form the sole basis of conviction without corroboration
bmust always be recorded by a Magistrate to be relevant
cis admissible only in cases of homicide and not suicide
dif found true and voluntary, can form the sole basis of conviction without corroboration
Answer: D
The Court held there is no absolute rule of law or even of prudence that a dying declaration must be corroborated; if found reliable, true and voluntary, it can by itself sustain a conviction. The statement of a deceased as to the cause of death is made relevant by Section 26(a) BSA (formerly Section 32(1) IEA).
Q86Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Statements made by a person, since deceased, as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death are relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) in:
aSection 24
bSection 27
cSection 26(a)
dSection 28
Answer: C
Section 26(a) BSA (corresponding to the former Section 32(1) IEA) makes relevant the statement of a person who is dead as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death (the dying declaration), in cases in which the cause of death comes into question.
Q87Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), where the Adhiniyam directs that the Court 'shall presume' a fact, the Court:
ashall regard the fact as proved unless and until it is disproved
bshall ignore the fact unless it is independently corroborated
cmay regard the fact as proved or call for proof at its discretion
dshall regard the fact as proved and allow no evidence to disprove it
Answer: A
Under the definitions in Section 2 BSA (which carries forward the former Section 4 IEA), when the Court 'shall presume' a fact it must treat it as proved unless and until it is disproved; unlike 'may presume' there is no discretion to call for proof, and unlike 'conclusive proof' the presumption is rebuttable.
Q88Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is conclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access is shown. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) this rule is contained in:
aSection 117
bSection 116
cSection 118
dSection 115
Answer: B
Section 116 BSA (formerly Section 112 IEA) treats birth during a valid marriage (or within two hundred and eighty days of its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried) as conclusive proof of legitimacy, the only rebuttal being proof of non-access between the parties.
Q89Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) this is provided in:
aSection 55
bSection 41
cSection 44
dSection 39
Answer: D
Section 39 BSA (formerly Section 45 IEA) makes relevant the opinions of experts on points of foreign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting and finger impressions; such persons are called experts.
Q90Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the principle that 'oral evidence must, in all cases, be direct' is enshrined in:
aSection 54
bSection 56
cSection 58
dSection 55
Answer: D
Section 55 BSA (formerly Section 60 IEA) requires that oral evidence be direct, that is the witness must have personally seen, heard or perceived the fact; this provision is the statutory basis for excluding hearsay.
Q91General Knowledge
The 2024 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Nihon Hidankyo, a grassroots movement associated with which country?
aSouth Korea
bSwitzerland
cNorway
dJapan
Answer: D
Nihon Hidankyo is a Japanese organisation of atomic bomb survivors (Hibakusha) of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, awarded the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize for its work against nuclear weapons.
Q92General Knowledge
What was the total number of medals won by India at the Paris 2024 Summer Olympic Games?
aTen
bFive
cSix
dSeven
Answer: C
India won six medals (one silver and five bronze) at the Paris 2024 Olympics, with Neeraj Chopra taking the lone silver in javelin throw.
Q93General Knowledge
On which date did India's Chandrayaan-3 mission achieve a soft landing near the lunar south pole, making India the first nation to do so?
a23 September 2023
b14 July 2023
c2 September 2023
d23 August 2023
Answer: D
The Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-3 soft-landed near the Moon's south pole on 23 August 2023, making India the first country to land in that region.
Q94General Knowledge
The Sanchi Stupa, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Madhya Pradesh, was originally commissioned by which ruler?
aSamudragupta
bHarshavardhana
cAshoka
dChandragupta Maurya
Answer: C
The Great Stupa at Sanchi was originally built in the 3rd century BCE by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka, making it one of the oldest stone structures in India.
Q95General Knowledge
Which gland in the human body is known as the 'master gland' because it controls other endocrine glands?
aThyroid gland
bPituitary gland
cPancreas
dAdrenal gland
Answer: B
The pituitary gland is called the master gland because the hormones it secretes regulate the activity of other endocrine glands.
Q96General Knowledge
Which two rivers meet at the city of Allahabad (Prayagraj) at the site known as Triveni Sangam, in addition to the mythical Saraswati?
aGanga and Son
bGanga and Yamuna
cYamuna and Chambal
dGanga and Gomti
Answer: B
At the Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj, the Ganga and the Yamuna physically meet, along with the mythical Saraswati river.
Q97Indian Contract Act, 1872
Under Section 171 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a general lien in the absence of a contract to the contrary is available to:-
aonly an unpaid seller of goods
ba finder of goods
cevery bailee to whom goods are bailed
dbankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers
Answer: D
Section 171 confers a right of general lien, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, only on bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers; other persons have only a particular lien unless there is an express contract.
Q98Indian Contract Act, 1872
As a general rule under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agent who makes a contract on behalf of his principal:-
acannot personally enforce, nor is he personally bound by, such contracts, in the absence of a contract to that effect
bis always personally liable along with the principal
cis personally bound by and can personally enforce the contract
dcan never make a contract that binds the principal
Answer: A
Section 230 lays down the general rule that, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, an agent can neither personally enforce contracts entered into on behalf of his principal, nor is he personally bound by them; the section then sets out presumed exceptions.
Q99Indian Contract Act, 1872
Consent is said to be caused by 'undue influence' under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where one party is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage. The relevant section is:-
aSection 16
bSection 15
cSection 18
dSection 17
Answer: A
Section 16 defines undue influence as the use, by a party in a position to dominate the will of another, of that position to obtain an unfair advantage; Section 15 deals with coercion, Section 17 with fraud and Section 18 with misrepresentation.
Q100Indian Contract Act, 1872
When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, the person who has received any advantage under it is bound to restore it or to make compensation for it to the person from whom he received it. This obligation is contained in:-
aSection 65
bSection 70
cSection 72
dSection 64
Answer: A
Section 65 provides that when an agreement is discovered to be void, or a contract becomes void, any person who has received an advantage thereunder must restore it or compensate the person from whom he received it.
Q101Indian Contract Act, 1872
A contingent contract to do or not to do something if an uncertain future event happens cannot be enforced by law unless and until:-
athat event has happened
ba reasonable time has expired
cthe event has become impossible
dthe parties mutually rescind it
Answer: A
Under Section 32, contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if an uncertain future event happens cannot be enforced unless and until that event has happened, and become void if the event becomes impossible.
Q102Indian Penal Code, 1860
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'criminal conspiracy' is defined and dealt with under:
aSection 61
bSection 62
cSection 59
dSection 45
Answer: A
Section 61 BNS defines criminal conspiracy as an agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means, corresponding to the old Section 120A/120B IPC.
Q103Indian Penal Code, 1860
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'affray' two or more persons fighting in a public place and disturbing the public peace is punishable under:
aSection 196
bSection 191
cSection 189
dSection 194
Answer: D
Section 194 BNS defines affray and prescribes a maximum punishment of one month's imprisonment or a fine of one thousand rupees, or both; rioting falls under Section 191.
Q104Indian Penal Code, 1860
Under Section 310 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an act of robbery becomes 'dacoity' when it is conjointly committed or attempted by:
athree or more persons
btwo or more persons
cfour or more persons
dfive or more persons
Answer: D
Section 310 BNS retains the IPC position that where five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt a robbery (including those present and aiding), the offence is dacoity, punishable with imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment up to ten years.
Q105Indian Penal Code, 1860
A is entrusted with property and dishonestly converts it to his own use. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this offence of criminal breach of trust falls under:
aSection 316
bSection 303
cSection 320
dSection 318
Answer: A
Section 316 BNS deals with criminal breach of trust (old Section 405/406 IPC), where property is received lawfully on trust and later dishonestly misappropriated; cheating is dealt with separately under Section 318.
Q106Indian Penal Code, 1860
Kidnapping or abducting a person in order that the victim may be murdered, or for ransom, is an aggravated offence punishable under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 137
bSection 141
cSection 139
dSection 140
Answer: D
Section 140 BNS punishes the aggravated forms of kidnapping/abduction, including for ransom or in order to murder; the basic offence of kidnapping is defined in Section 137.
Q107Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under the BNSS, 2023, the provision for grant of anticipatory bail (direction for release on bail to a person apprehending arrest) is contained in:
aSection 438
bSection 482
cSection 483
dSection 437
Answer: B
Anticipatory bail, earlier under Section 438 CrPC, is now governed by Section 482 BNSS, under which an application may be made to the Court of Session or the High Court.
Q108Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 398 of the BNSS, 2023, the obligation to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme is cast upon:
aEvery State Government
bThe National Human Rights Commission
cThe Central Government
dThe concerned High Court
Answer: A
Section 398 BNSS, a new statutory provision, mandates that every State Government shall prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the State to ensure protection of witnesses.
Q109Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 184 of the BNSS, 2023, the registered medical practitioner conducting the medical examination of a victim of rape must forward the report to the investigating officer within:
aThree days
bSeven days
cTwenty-four hours
dFifteen days
Answer: B
Section 184 BNSS requires that the medical report of the examination of a rape victim be forwarded by the registered medical practitioner to the investigating officer within seven days.
Q110Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Under Section 530 of the BNSS, 2023, which of the following may be conducted in electronic mode using audio-video electronic means?
aOnly appellate proceedings before the High Court
bOnly the issuance and service of summons
cAll trials, inquiries and proceedings, including issuance and service of summons and warrants, examination of witnesses and recording of evidence
dOnly the recording of evidence of witnesses
Answer: C
Section 530 BNSS permits all trials, inquiries and proceedings—including issuance, service and execution of summons and warrants, examination of complainant and witnesses, recording of evidence and appellate proceedings—to be held in electronic mode.
Q111Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Where, on completion of investigation, further investigation is conducted during the trial with the permission of the Court under Section 193 of the BNSS, 2023, such further investigation shall ordinarily be completed within:
aOne hundred and eighty days
bThirty days
cNinety days
dSixty days
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 193(9) BNSS provides that further investigation during trial, with the Court's permission, shall be completed within ninety days, which may be extended only with the permission of the Court.
Q112Specific Relief Act, 1963
A suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 for recovery of possession by a person dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law :-
acan be brought against the Government like any other person
bcan be brought against the Government only with the sanction of the Collector
cshall not be brought against the Government
dcan be brought against the Government only in the High Court
Answer: C
The proviso in Section 6(2)(b) expressly bars any suit under Section 6 against the Government; the State can ordinarily be presumed to act in due course of law.
Q113Specific Relief Act, 1963
After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, which of the following is NOT one of the contracts which cannot be specifically enforced under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 ?
aA contract which is so dependent on the personal qualifications of the parties that the court cannot enforce specific performance of its material terms
bA contract which is in its nature determinable
cA contract for the non-performance of which compensation in money is an adequate relief
dA contract the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
Answer: C
The 2018 amendment recast Section 14 and deleted the old clause about contracts for which money compensation is adequate; the four surviving bars are substituted performance obtained under Section 20, continuous-duty contracts, contracts dependent on personal qualifications, and determinable contracts.
Q114Specific Relief Act, 1963
Under Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018), before a party who suffers breach of contract may have it performed through a third party or by his own agency, he must first give the party in breach a notice in writing of not less than :-
athirty days
bfifteen days
cninety days
dsixty days
Answer: A
Section 20(2) requires a written notice of not less than thirty days calling upon the party in breach to perform; only on his refusal or failure may substituted performance be undertaken, and the aggrieved party then loses the right to specific performance against the defaulter.
Q115Specific Relief Act, 1963
In respect of a contract relating to an infrastructure project specified in the Schedule, Section 20A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that the court :-
amay grant an injunction in every case to protect the plaintiff
bshall not grant an injunction where it would cause hindrance or delay in the continuance or completion of the infrastructure project
cshall grant only mandatory injunctions and not prohibitory injunctions
dshall always refer the dispute to arbitration
Answer: B
Section 20A, inserted by the 2018 amendment, bars the court from granting an injunction in a suit relating to a Scheduled infrastructure project where the injunction would cause hindrance or delay in its continuance or completion.
Q116Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Where the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage money on a certain date and transfers the mortgaged property absolutely to the mortgagee, subject to a proviso that he will re-transfer it to the mortgagor upon payment, the mortgage is known as:
aSimple mortgage
bMortgage by conditional sale
cEnglish mortgage
dUsufructuary mortgage
Answer: C
Section 58(e) of the Transfer of Property Act defines an English mortgage, where the mortgagor binds himself to repay on a certain date and transfers the property absolutely subject to a proviso for re-transfer on repayment.
Q117Transfer of Property Act, 1882
'A' gives a lakh of rupees to 'B', reserving to himself, with B's assent, the right to take back at his mere pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of it. What is the legal effect of this arrangement?
aThe entire gift is void
bThe gift is good as to the whole amount, but the reservation of the right to take back Rs. 10,000 at pleasure is void
cThe gift is voidable at the option of B
dThe gift is valid only to the extent of Rs. 90,000
Answer: B
Under Section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, a gift made revocable, wholly or in part, at the mere will of the donor is void to that extent; per the illustration, the gift of the lakh stands but the reserved power to take back Rs. 10,000 at pleasure is void.
Q118Transfer of Property Act, 1882
The doctrine of lis pendens, under which property which is the subject-matter of a pending suit cannot be transferred so as to affect the rights of any party under the eventual decree, is contained in which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
aSection 52
bSection 41
cSection 53
dSection 48
Answer: A
Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act embodies the doctrine of lis pendens; a transfer made during the pendency of a suit binds the transferee to the result of the suit, irrespective of notice.
Q119Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Which of the following may NOT be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
aA reversion arising on the determination of a lease
bThe right to future maintenance, in whosoever favour it may be secured, for personal benefit
cThe equity of redemption of a mortgagor
dAn actionable claim
Answer: B
Section 6(dd) of the Transfer of Property Act bars transfer of a right to future maintenance, which is for the personal benefit of the person concerned; actionable claims, reversions and the equity of redemption are all transferable.
Q120M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
Against an order passed by the Rent Controlling Authority under Chapter III-A of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, the remedy available to an aggrieved person is :
aa review before the Rent Controlling Authority itself
ban appeal to the District Judge
can appeal to the Court of Small Causes
da revision to the High Court (no appeal lies)
Answer: D
Under Section 23-E, no appeal lies from an order of the Rent Controlling Authority under Chapter III-A; the High Court may, however, exercise revisional jurisdiction, suo motu or on the application of an aggrieved person.
Q121M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
Under Section 12(1) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, the ground that the tenant has, whether before or after the commencement of the Act, unlawfully sub-let, assigned or otherwise parted with possession of the whole or any part of the accommodation is contained in :
aclause (a)
bclause (c)
cclause (b)
dclause (e)
Answer: C
Section 12(1)(b) deals with unlawful sub-letting, assignment or parting with possession of the accommodation by the tenant without the landlord's consent.
Q122M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
Under Section 2 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, a 'landlord' means a person who, for the time being :
aowns the accommodation by a registered sale deed only
bhas constructed the accommodation
cis in physical possession of the accommodation
dis receiving or is entitled to receive the rent of any accommodation
Answer: D
Section 2 defines 'landlord' as a person who, for the time being, is receiving or is entitled to receive the rent of any accommodation, whether on his own account or on account of another, and includes a tenant who has sub-let.
Q123M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
Under Section 57 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, ownership of all lands, including standing and flowing water, mines, quarries, minerals and forests, vests in the -
aGram Panchayat
bState Government
cBoard of Revenue
dbhumiswami in possession
Answer: B
Section 57(1) declares that all lands belong to the State Government, including standing and flowing water, mines, quarries, minerals and forests, whether reserved or not.
Q124M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
Under Section 124 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, the construction of boundary marks of villages, survey numbers or plot numbers is provided. In case of temporary vacancy, the officer placed in charge of the current duties of the Collector is deemed to be the Collector under which section?
aSection 30
bSection 28
cSection 24
dSection 26
Answer: D
Section 26 provides that if the Collector dies or is disabled, the officer temporarily placed in charge of his current duties shall be held to be the Collector until a successor takes charge.
Q125M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
Under Section 44 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, an appeal from an original order passed by a Revenue Officer subordinate to the Sub-Divisional Officer lies to the -
aSub-Divisional Officer
bCollector
cCommissioner
dBoard of Revenue
Answer: A
Section 44(1)(a) provides that an appeal from an order of a Revenue Officer subordinate to the Sub-Divisional Officer lies to the Sub-Divisional Officer, whether or not that officer is invested with the powers of the Collector.
Q126Computer Knowledge
Which of the following devices is an input device?
aMonitor
bPrinter
cKeyboard
dSpeaker
Answer: C
A keyboard is an input device used to enter data into a computer; the monitor, printer and speaker are output devices.
Q127Computer Knowledge
Which of the following is a web browser?
aOracle
bWindows 11
cGoogle Chrome
dMicrosoft Excel
Answer: C
Google Chrome is a web browser used to access websites; Excel is a spreadsheet application, Windows 11 is an operating system, and Oracle is a database system.
Q128Computer Knowledge
In computer storage, 1 Kilobyte (KB) is conventionally equal to:
a1000 bits
b1024 bits
c100 bytes
d1024 bytes
Answer: D
In the traditional binary convention, 1 Kilobyte equals 1024 (2 to the power 10) bytes.
Q129English Knowledge
Choose the correct passive voice of: 'The court will hear the appeal tomorrow.'
aThe appeal has been heard by the court tomorrow.
bThe appeal will be heard by the court tomorrow.
cThe appeal would be heard by the court tomorrow.
dThe appeal is heard by the court tomorrow.
Answer: B
Converting a simple-future active sentence to passive uses 'will be + past participle': 'The appeal will be heard by the court tomorrow.'
Q130English Knowledge
Give the synonym of the word 'Candid'.
aReserved
bHostile
cFrank
dDeceitful
Answer: C
'Candid' means honest and straightforward in speech; 'frank' is its closest synonym.
Q131English Knowledge
Complete the analogy: 'Pen is to Writer as Scalpel is to ______.'
aNurse
bPatient
cSurgeon
dChemist
Answer: C
A pen is the characteristic tool of a writer; analogously, a scalpel is the characteristic tool of a surgeon.
Q132Limitation Act, 1963
At the time from which the prescribed period for instituting a suit is to be reckoned, the person entitled to sue is a minor. Under Section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963, within what time may he institute the suit?
aWithin the same period after the disability has ceased as would otherwise have been allowed from the time specified in the Schedule
bHe loses the right to sue entirely on attaining majority
cWithin three years from the date the cause of action accrued, with no extension
dWithin one year from the date the minority ceases, irrespective of the period in the Schedule
Answer: A
Section 6(1) allows a person under a legal disability (minor, insane or idiot) at the relevant time to institute the suit or make the application within the same period after the disability has ceased as would otherwise have been allowed from the time specified in the third column of the Schedule.
Q133Limitation Act, 1963
A debtor, before the expiration of the prescribed period, makes a written and signed acknowledgment of his liability to the creditor. What is the effect under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963?
aA fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgment was signed
bThe acknowledgment has no effect unless it is registered before a notary
cThe debt becomes time-barred immediately because acknowledgment amounts to admission of delay
dThe limitation period is extended by an additional three years from the date of the original cause of action
Answer: A
Under Section 18, where an acknowledgment of liability is made in writing signed by the party against whom the right is claimed before the prescribed period expires, a fresh period of limitation is computed from the time the acknowledgment was so signed.
Q134Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Under Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, it shall be presumed, unless the contrary is proved, that the holder of a cheque received the cheque :-
aWithout consideration
bAs a gift
cFor the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability
dBy way of security only
Answer: C
Section 139 raises a rebuttable presumption that the holder of the cheque received it for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability; the burden then shifts to the accused to rebut it on a preponderance of probabilities.
Q135Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order has been heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court, the provision that bars any further appeal therefrom notwithstanding anything in any Letters Patent is :-
aSection 104 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
bSection 100-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
cSection 105 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
dSection 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: B
Section 100-A, titled 'No further appeal in certain cases', begins with a non-obstante clause overriding Letters Patent and bars any Letters Patent Appeal where a Single Judge of a High Court has decided an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order.
Q136Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
The power of a civil court to grant restitution, restoring to a party that which has been lost in consequence of a decree which is subsequently varied or reversed, is contained in :-
aSection 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
bSection 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
cSection 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
dSection 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: A
Section 144 provides for restitution: where a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, revision or otherwise, the court which passed the decree shall on application place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree. Section 114 deals with review and Section 115 with revision.
Q137Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Where any period is fixed or granted by a Court for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, the Court has power, from time to time, to enlarge such period even though the period originally fixed has expired, under :-
aSection 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
bSection 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
cSection 149 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
dSection 150 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: B
Section 148, titled 'Enlargement of time', empowers the court to enlarge a period it has fixed for doing an act, even after the period has expired, the total extension not exceeding thirty days after the 1999 amendment. Section 151 separately preserves the inherent powers of the court.
Q138Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences may be awarded under Section 35-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, subject to a maximum amount of :-
afive thousand rupees
bten thousand rupees
cthree thousand rupees
done thousand rupees
Answer: C
Section 35-A permits a court, where a claim or defence is found to be false or vexatious to the knowledge of the party, to award compensatory costs not exceeding three thousand rupees or the limit of the court's pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less.
Q139Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Under the proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the defendant fails to file the written statement within thirty days, the Court may allow him to file it on a later day, but not later than :-
aone hundred twenty days from the date of service of summons
bone hundred eighty days from the date of service of summons
cninety days from the date of service of summons
dsixty days from the date of service of summons
Answer: C
Order VIII Rule 1 requires the written statement within thirty days of service of summons; the proviso permits the court, for recorded reasons, to extend the time, but in no case beyond ninety days from the date of service of summons.
Q140Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply to the Court by which the decree was passed for an order to set it aside under :-
aOrder IX Rule 7 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
bOrder IX Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
cOrder IX Rule 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
dOrder IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: D
Order IX Rule 13 enables a defendant to apply to set aside an ex parte decree on proof that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing. Order IX Rule 9, by contrast, concerns setting aside dismissal of a suit for the plaintiff's default.
Q141Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Where the holder of a decree for possession of immovable property is resisted or obstructed by any person in obtaining possession of the property, the remedy is to apply to the executing Court under :-
aOrder XXI Rule 97 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
bOrder XXI Rule 99 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
cOrder XXI Rule 101 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
dOrder XXI Rule 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: A
Order XXI Rule 97 allows the decree-holder for possession (or auction-purchaser) who is resisted or obstructed by any person to apply to the executing court, which then adjudicates the application under Rules 98 to 101 as a complete code. Rule 99 deals with the complaint of a dispossessed person.
Q142Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that a civil court, while exercising power under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, cannot refer a suit to arbitration unless all parties to the suit agree to such reference, and laid down guidelines for choosing the appropriate ADR process?
aAfcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd.
bSalem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India
cBooz Allen & Hamilton Inc. v. SBI Home Finance Ltd.
dK.K. Modi v. K.N. Modi
Answer: A
In Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd., (2010) 8 SCC 24, the Supreme Court held that a court cannot refer parties to arbitration under Section 89 without the consent of all parties, and gave detailed guidelines on selecting the suitable ADR mechanism.
Q143Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Which of the following modes of settlement is NOT one of those enumerated in Section 89(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, for reference of a dispute outside the Court?
aConciliation
bJudicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat
cArbitration
dCompulsory reference to a commission of inquiry
Answer: D
Section 89(1) lists four modes for referring a dispute for settlement: arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat, and mediation. A 'compulsory reference to a commission of inquiry' is not among them.
Q144Constitution of India
Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution, a Judge of a High Court holds office until he attains the age of:
aSixty-eight years
bSixty-five years
cSixty years
dSixty-two years
Answer: D
Article 217(1) provides that a Judge of a High Court shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-two years (raised from sixty by the Fifteenth Amendment).
Q145Constitution of India
Article 21A, inserted by the Eighty-sixth Constitutional Amendment, makes provision for free and compulsory education to children of the age of:
aFive to twelve years
bSix to fourteen years
cSix to eighteen years
dThree to fourteen years
Answer: B
Article 21A obliges the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years, in such manner as the State may by law determine.
Q146Constitution of India
Under Article 61, the procedure for impeachment of the President for violation of the Constitution requires the charge to be passed by a resolution of each House by a majority of:
aNot less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House
bSimple majority of members present and voting
cTwo-thirds of the members present and voting only
dThree-fourths of the total membership of that House
Answer: A
Article 61(3) requires that the resolution preferring or sustaining the charge be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
Q147Constitution of India
Under Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
aBoth Houses of Parliament jointly
bThe House of the People (Lok Sabha)
cThe Rajya Sabha
dThe President of India
Answer: B
Article 75(3) provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
Q148Constitution of India
The power of the Supreme Court to do complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it is conferred by:
aArticle 136
bArticle 143
cArticle 142
dArticle 141
Answer: C
Article 142(1) empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
Q149Constitution of India
Under Article 1 of the Constitution, India, that is Bharat, shall be a:
aUnitary State with federal features
bUnion of States
cConfederation of States and Union Territories
dFederation of States
Answer: B
Article 1(1) declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States; the term 'Union of States' deliberately avoids the language of a federation or compact.
Q150Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given are enumerated in:
aSection 58
bSection 59
cSection 61
dSection 60
Answer: D
Section 60 BSA (formerly Section 65 IEA) enumerates the situations (such as the original being lost or destroyed, or in possession of the opposite party) in which secondary evidence of a document may be given; Section 58 BSA merely defines the kinds of secondary evidence.
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