Madhya Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 8 — Questions & Solutions

Under the Constitution of India, a Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of, and a Judge of a High Court until he attains the age of, respectively:

The test of repugnancy between a State law and a Central law occupying the field in the Concurrent List, under Article 254, was authoritatively summarised by the Supreme Court in:

Under Article 249, the Council of States may, by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, empower Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List, and such resolution remains in force for:

Which Article of the Constitution declares that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India?

Under Section 108 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), when a person is accused of an offence, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within any General Exception of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita lies on:

Under Section 104 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the burden of proof in a suit or proceeding initially lies on:

Illustration (g) to Section 119 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) permits the Court to presume that:

Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is:

Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), who is competent to testify?

When the Court has to form an opinion as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, or upon a point of foreign law, science or art, the opinions of persons specially skilled are relevant under:

Which river is known as the 'lifeline of Madhya Pradesh' and flows westward through the State before reaching the Arabian Sea?

The vitamin that is synthesised by the human skin on exposure to sunlight is:

Which gas, present in the atmosphere, is chiefly responsible for the greenhouse effect and global warming?

The 'Tropic of Cancer' passes through which of the following States of India?

Rani Lakshmibai, a leading figure of the Revolt of 1857, was the queen of which princely state?

Choose the word that is the correct synonym of 'ABSCOND':

Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer:-

Which of the following precedents established that an advertisement promising a reward can constitute a general offer to the world at large, acceptance of which by performance does not require prior communication to the offeror?

As per Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration may move:-

An agreement made without consideration is valid under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when it is:-

'A', a minor, executes a mortgage of his property in favour of 'B' to secure a loan. On the principle laid down by the Privy Council in Mohori Bibee Vs. Dharmodas Ghose, the agreement is:-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which one of the following has been introduced for the first time as a kind of punishment, having no counterpart in the repealed Indian Penal Code, 1860?

'Snatching', as a distinct offence quickly or forcibly seizing movable property from a person, is punishable under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for the offence of murder is provided in:

Murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief (commonly called mob lynching) is specifically punishable under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Causing death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide is punishable under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 by:

Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no arrest shall be made of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age for an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

Under Section 187(3) of the BNSS, 2023, the maximum total period of detention authorised during investigation for an offence punishable with imprisonment for ten years or more is:

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, as interpreted by the High Courts, police custody of fifteen days for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to ten years may be sought:

The concept of 'Zero FIR'—registration of information relating to a cognizable offence irrespective of the area where the offence is committed—is now expressly recognised under which provision of the BNSS, 2023?

Under Section 176(3) of the BNSS, 2023, a forensic expert is required to compulsorily visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of:

The requirement that the plaintiff must aver and prove that he has performed or has always been ready and willing to perform the essential terms of the contract, as a personal bar to the relief of specific performance, is contained in :-

A person entitled to any legal character or to any right as to any property may institute a suit for a declaration under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. Where the plaintiff is able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title but omits to do so, the court :-

Rectification of an instrument under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 may be ordered where, through fraud or mutual mistake of the parties, the instrument does not express their real intention. Such rectification :-

Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted when equally efficacious relief can certainly be obtained by any other usual mode of proceeding (except in case of breach of trust). This is provided in :-

Under Section 58(b) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in which type of mortgage does the mortgagor ostensibly sell the property on condition that on default the sale shall become absolute, or on payment it shall become void?

The maxim 'once a mortgage, always a mortgage' and the rule that any stipulation fettering the mortgagor's right to redeem is void as a clog on the equity of redemption flow from which provision of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

'Subrogation' — the right of a person who pays off a mortgage to step into the shoes of the mortgagee — is dealt with in which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

In the absence of a contract, local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for a purpose other than agricultural or manufacturing is, under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deemed to be a lease from month to month terminable by:

On a suit being instituted by the landlord on a ground referred to in Section 12, the tenant claiming protection must deposit or pay the arrears of rent under Section 13(1) within :

Under Section 13(1) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, after making the initial deposit, the tenant is required to continue depositing or paying the monthly rent by :

Chapter III-A of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, providing a special summary procedure for eviction on the ground of bona fide requirement by a special class of landlords, was inserted by amendment with effect from :

Under Section 178 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, an application for partition of a holding by a bhumiswami is to be made to the -

Disputes regarding boundaries between villages, survey numbers and plot numbers, where such boundaries have been fixed under Section 124, are decided under Section 125 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959 by the -

Penalty for unauthorisedly taking possession of land, providing for summary ejectment of an encroacher, is contained in which section of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959?

RAM in a computer is a type of:

In Microsoft Word and most Windows applications, the keyboard shortcut 'Ctrl + Z' is used to:

The binary number system used by computers consists of which two digits?

Identify the sentence written in the active voice.

One word substitution for 'a person who can speak two languages' is —

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ______ the charge of theft.'

A suit to obtain a declaration falls under Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, for which the prescribed period is -

A suit to enforce a right of pre-emption is governed by Article 97 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, which prescribes a limitation period of -

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the person who is directed to pay by the maker of a bill of exchange or cheque is called the :-

The provision for grant of a temporary injunction to preserve property in dispute that is in danger of being wasted, damaged or wrongfully alienated is contained in :-

Where a decree or order is varied or reversed in appeal, revision or other proceeding, the remedy by which a party may be restored to the position he would have occupied but for such decree, including refund and mesne profits, is provided under :-

The inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court is saved by :-

No appeal lies from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties. This bar is contained in :-

A party seeking to set aside a compromise decree on the ground that the compromise was not lawful :-

Additional evidence may be admitted by the appellate court under Order 41 Rule 27 of the Code of Civil Procedure in which of the following situations?

The maximum period within which a defendant may be permitted to file his written statement, reckoned from the date of service of summons, under the first proviso to Order 8 Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure (in a non-commercial suit) is :-

The leading decision of the Supreme Court which upheld the constitutional validity of Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure relating to settlement of disputes outside the court (ADR) was rendered in :-

Amendment of pleadings, allowing either party at any stage of the proceedings to alter or amend its pleadings as may be necessary for determining the real questions in controversy, is governed by :-

The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is contained in Article 368. A constitutional amendment that seeks to change provisions such as the election of the President, the extent of executive or legislative power of the Union and States, or the Seventh Schedule, requires, in addition to a special majority of Parliament:

The 'Doctrine of Pleasure', under which civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President, is embodied in:

Under Article 32, which the Supreme Court in some decisions has described as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution, the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights:

Under Article 233 of the Constitution of India, the appointment of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by:

A person who is not already in the service of the Union or of the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233(2) only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than:

The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution, holding that Parliament cannot under Article 368 amend the Constitution so as to destroy its basic structure, was propounded by the Supreme Court in:

Section 55 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) lays down the rule that:

Under the definitions in Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), where one fact is declared to be "conclusive proof" of another, the Court:

Under Section 6 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), which of the following is a relevant fact?

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a confession made to a police officer:

So much of information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved. This 'discovery of fact' exception is contained in:

In Pulukuri Kottaya v. Emperor (AIR 1947 PC 67), it was held that for the purpose of the 'discovery of fact' provision (now the proviso to Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023), the 'fact discovered' embraces:

Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom: 'To cross swords'.

Choose the one-word substitution for 'a government by officials':

Mauganj, which was carved out of Rewa district on 15 August 2023, became which numbered district of Madhya Pradesh?

Kuno National Park, the site of India's Project Cheetah where African cheetahs were reintroduced in September 2022, is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

The Tansen Samaroh, an annual classical music festival held in Madhya Pradesh, is organised at the tomb of Tansen in which city?

Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful in all the following cases EXCEPT where it:-

Which one of the following best states the ratio of Satyabrata Ghose Vs. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. regarding the doctrine of frustration?

Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which provides for compensation for loss caused by breach of contract, is regarded as the statutory embodiment of the rule laid down in:-

Where a contract contains a stipulation by way of liquidated damages or penalty for breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, entitles the aggrieved party to receive:-

The chief distinction between a contract of indemnity (Section 124) and a contract of guarantee (Section 126) under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, lies in that:-

A man has sexual intercourse with a woman by making a promise to marry her without any intention of fulfilling it, such intercourse not amounting to rape. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, he is liable under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'dowry death' is dealt with under:

Subjecting a married woman to cruelty by her husband or a relative of her husband is, under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an offence under:

Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with 'organised crime', a category of offence newly codified in the Sanhita?

The offence of acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, which replaces the erstwhile offence of sedition, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023, a Judicial Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding:

Under Section 105 of the BNSS, 2023, the search and seizure of property and the preparation of the list of seized articles shall be:

Under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023, inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender may be commenced by the Court after the expiry of:

Under Section 290 of the BNSS, 2023, an application for plea bargaining is to be filed by the accused within a period of:

Under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023, a first-time offender (who has never been convicted) undergoing detention as an undertrial shall ordinarily be released on bond after having undergone detention up to:

Clause (ha) inserted in Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 by the 2018 amendment bars the grant of an injunction where it :-

In a suit for perpetual injunction under Section 38 or mandatory injunction under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the plaintiff may, under Section 40, claim damages :-

A person who has been dispossessed of immovable property without his consent otherwise than in due course of law may recover possession by a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. Such a suit must be brought within :-

Against an order or decree passed in a suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 :-

A makes a gift to B of a number of shares, some of which are fully paid and some of which carry a heavy onerous burden of further calls, by a single transfer. Under Section 127 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, B:

Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a sale of tangible immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards can be made only by:

In the absence of a contract, local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable on the part of either lessor or lessee by:

'A', professing to transfer to 'B' for consideration the property of his uncle 'C' which 'A' merely hopes to inherit, executes a sale deed; later 'C' dies and 'A' actually inherits the property. 'B' demands the property. Which provision governs and what is the result?

Which of the following landlords is NOT included within the definition of 'landlord' for the purpose of Chapter III-A (Section 23-J) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 ?

In proceedings under Chapter III-A of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, a tenant who has been served with a summons can contest the application only after obtaining leave from the Rent Controlling Authority, and the application for such leave must be filed within :

An application by a specified-category landlord for recovery of possession on the ground of bona fide requirement under Chapter III-A of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, is decided by :

Under Section 11 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, which of the following is NOT included among the classes of Revenue Officers?

Under Section 257 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, on matters which a Revenue Officer is empowered to determine under the Code, the jurisdiction of a Civil Court is -

Diversion of land, i.e. using land assessed for one purpose under Section 59 for another purpose, is dealt with under which section of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959?

In the context of email, 'Cc' stands for:

Which of the following is the default file extension of a Microsoft Excel workbook created in recent versions?

'URL' in the context of the internet stands for:

Choose the word that is the antonym of 'Frugal'.

The idiom 'a red-letter day' means —

One who is recovering from illness is called —

An application for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 is governed by the residuary Article 137, which prescribes -

A suit is instituted after the period prescribed in the Schedule has expired, but the defendant in his written statement does not plead limitation as a defence. What is the duty of the court under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963?

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effect of a material alteration of a negotiable instrument under Section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

Where the holder of a decree for possession of immovable property is resisted or obstructed by any person in obtaining possession, the decree-holder may make an application complaining of such resistance under :-

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, the jurisdiction of civil courts to try all suits of a civil nature is conferred by Section 9, subject to the qualification that such jurisdiction is :-

Under Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, any agreement by which a judgment-debtor waives the benefit of the exemptions from attachment specified in the proviso to Section 60(1) is :-

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature :-

As per Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every suit shall be instituted in the Court of :-

The doctrine of res judicata, which bars a Court from trying any suit or issue already directly and substantially in issue in a former suit finally decided between the same parties, is contained in :-

The general power to transfer and withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before it to any subordinate Court is conferred upon the High Court or the District Court by :-

No suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiration of a notice period of :-

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal (except on a question of law) shall lie from a decree in any suit cognizable by Courts of Small Causes where the value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed :-

Under Article 312, Parliament may create a new All-India Service only if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) has declared by resolution, supported by:

Under Article 280, the President is required to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every:

The Finance Commission constituted under Article 280 consists of a Chairman and:

Under Article 243-O of the Constitution of India, no election to any Panchayat shall be called in question except:

Which one of the following writs may a High Court issue under Article 226 but the territorial reach of which is expressly extended where the cause of action arises wholly or in part within its jurisdiction?

Under Article 124(2) of the Constitution, a Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of:

In Khushal Rao v. State of Bombay (AIR 1958 SC 22), interpreting the law on dying declarations now contained in Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the Supreme Court held that a dying declaration:

Statements made by a person, since deceased, as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death are relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), where the Adhiniyam directs that the Court 'shall presume' a fact, the Court:

The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is conclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access is shown. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) this rule is contained in:

When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) this is provided in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the principle that 'oral evidence must, in all cases, be direct' is enshrined in:

The 2024 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Nihon Hidankyo, a grassroots movement associated with which country?

What was the total number of medals won by India at the Paris 2024 Summer Olympic Games?

On which date did India's Chandrayaan-3 mission achieve a soft landing near the lunar south pole, making India the first nation to do so?

The Sanchi Stupa, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Madhya Pradesh, was originally commissioned by which ruler?

Which gland in the human body is known as the 'master gland' because it controls other endocrine glands?

Which two rivers meet at the city of Allahabad (Prayagraj) at the site known as Triveni Sangam, in addition to the mythical Saraswati?

Under Section 171 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a general lien in the absence of a contract to the contrary is available to:-

As a general rule under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agent who makes a contract on behalf of his principal:-

Consent is said to be caused by 'undue influence' under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where one party is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage. The relevant section is:-

When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, the person who has received any advantage under it is bound to restore it or to make compensation for it to the person from whom he received it. This obligation is contained in:-

A contingent contract to do or not to do something if an uncertain future event happens cannot be enforced by law unless and until:-