Jharkhand Judiciary Mock Test 1 — Questions & Solutions
Every question from this prelims mock with the correct answer and a detailed, source-backed solution. Free to read. Want the real exam feel — a timer, instant scoring, and a subject-wise weakness report? Take it as a test.
100
Questions
8
Subjects
+ solutions
Every question
Take this as a timed mock test — instant score + subject-wise analytics. First mock free, then ₹999/year for unlimited.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the general power of a police officer to arrest any person who commits a cognizable offence in his presence, without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, is contained in
aSection 46
bSection 50
cSection 41
dSection 35
Answer: D
Section 35 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 41 of the old CrPC) enumerates the circumstances in which a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant, including where the person commits a cognizable offence in the officer's presence.
Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the total period of police custody to which an accused may be subjected
acannot exceed fifteen days reckoned only from the date of first production
bcannot exceed twenty-four hours without the District Magistrate's sanction
ccannot exceed fifteen days, and may be sought within the first forty or sixty days of detention as the case may be
dcannot exceed seven days in any circumstance
Answer: C
Under Section 187 BNSS the maximum police custody remains fifteen days in the whole, but unlike the old CrPC this custody may be authorised in parts during the first forty days (for lesser offences) or sixty days (for graver offences) of the detention period.
An accused becomes entitled to default bail under Section 187(3) of the BNSS, 2023 if the investigation is not completed within sixty days, where the offence is one
apunishable with imprisonment for life only
bpunishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for ten years or more
ctriable exclusively by a Court of Session
dpunishable with imprisonment for less than ten years and not falling in the higher category
Answer: D
Under Section 187(3) BNSS, the ninety-day ceiling applies to offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of ten years or more; for all other offences the period is sixty days, after which the indefeasible right to default bail accrues.
Under the BNSS, 2023, an order for maintenance of wives, children and parents who are unable to maintain themselves may be passed by a Magistrate of the first class under
aSection 164
bSection 188
cSection 144
dSection 125
Answer: C
Section 144 BNSS, 2023 replaces Section 125 of the old CrPC and empowers a Judicial Magistrate of the first class to order maintenance for neglected wives, children and parents.
Under Section 125 of the BNSS, 2023, when a Court of Session or a Magistrate of the first class convicts a person of an offence likely to cause a breach of the peace, it may order him to execute a bond for keeping the peace for a period not exceeding
atwo years
bthree years
cfive years
done year
Answer: B
Section 125 BNSS permits the convicting court, at the time of passing sentence, to require the convict to execute a bond or bail bond for keeping the peace for a period not exceeding three years.
The recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate during the course of investigation is provided for under which section of the BNSS, 2023?
aSection 183
bSection 180
cSection 193
dSection 187
Answer: A
Section 183 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 164 of the old CrPC) governs the recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate in the course of an investigation or before the commencement of inquiry or trial.
A statement made to a police officer in the course of examination of a witness under Section 180 of the BNSS, 2023
ais required to be signed by the person making it
bmust be recorded on oath
cshall not be signed by the person making it
dis by itself substantive evidence of the facts stated
Answer: C
Section 180 BNSS (corresponding to Section 161 of the old CrPC) provides that no statement made to the police during investigation shall be signed by the maker; such statements are not substantive evidence and may only be used to contradict the witness.
Under Section 184 of the BNSS, 2023, the medical examination of a woman who is a victim of rape is to be conducted, and the report forwarded, within the following respective periods
aexamination within forty-eight hours and report within fifteen days
bexamination within seventy-two hours and report within thirty days
cexamination within twenty-four hours of receiving information and report within seven days
dexamination within twelve hours and report within three days
Answer: C
Section 184 BNSS requires that the victim be sent for medical examination within twenty-four hours of receiving the information, and the registered medical practitioner must forward the report to the investigating officer within seven days.
Which of the following correctly describes the power of the Court to examine the accused under Section 351 of the BNSS, 2023?
aNo oath is administered, and the accused does not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer or by giving false answers
bThe examination is confined to summons cases only
cThe accused is examined on oath and is liable to punishment for false answers
dThe examination can be conducted only after the accused leads his defence evidence
Answer: A
Under Section 351 BNSS (corresponding to Section 313 of the old CrPC), the Court may question the accused generally on the case; no oath is administered, and the accused incurs no punishment for refusing to answer or for giving false answers.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the power of the High Court and the Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail to a person apprehending arrest is contained in
aSection 438
bSection 480
cSection 484
dSection 482
Answer: D
Section 482 BNSS replaces Section 438 of the old CrPC and confers on the High Court and the Court of Session the power to grant anticipatory bail (direction for release in the event of arrest).
Under Section 290 of the BNSS, 2023, an application for plea bargaining by the accused must be filed
aat any time before the judgment is pronounced
bonly before the charge is framed
cwithin sixty days of the filing of the police report
dwithin thirty days from the date of framing of the charge
Answer: D
Section 290 BNSS makes plea bargaining time-bound by requiring the accused to file the application within thirty days from the date of framing of charge, a limitation not present in the old CrPC.
The provision for filing a mercy petition in a death sentence case before the Governor or the President is, for the first time, expressly codified in the BNSS, 2023 under
aSection 433
bSection 472
cSection 484
dSection 454
Answer: B
Section 472 BNSS is a new provision codifying the procedure for mercy petitions in death sentence cases, including the convict's right to petition the Governor and thereafter the President within prescribed periods.
Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, after the rejection of a mercy petition by the Governor, the petition to the President must be made within
ano time limit is prescribed
bthirty days from the date of rejection
cninety days from the date of rejection
dsixty days from the date of rejection
Answer: D
Section 472 BNSS provides that where a mercy petition is first made to the Governor and is rejected or disposed of, the petition to the President must be made within sixty days from the date of such rejection or disposal.
Under Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023, in the case of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age, an arrest for an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years
ashall not be made except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
bis absolutely prohibited in all circumstances
ccan be made by any police officer without any prior permission
drequires the prior sanction of the Magistrate having jurisdiction
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 35 BNSS provides that a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall not be arrested for an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
The chapter on plea bargaining in the BNSS, 2023 (Sections 289 to 300) is, like the corresponding provisions of the old CrPC,
ainapplicable to offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country and offences committed against a woman or a child below fourteen years
bavailable only to a habitual offender
capplicable only after the appellate court remands the case
dapplicable to all offences including those punishable with death or imprisonment for life
Answer: A
Plea bargaining under the BNSS (as under the old CrPC) is barred for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment exceeding seven years, for offences notified as affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, and for offences committed against a woman or a child below fourteen years of age.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the order for maintenance of wives, children and parents is now contained in which Section?
aSection 488
bSection 144
cSection 125
dSection 197
Answer: B
Section 144 BNSS, 2023 carries forward the maintenance provision that stood as Section 125 of the CrPC, 1973, empowering a Magistrate to order monthly maintenance to a neglected wife, child or parent unable to maintain themselves.
Where investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours, the Magistrate is empowered to authorise the detention of the accused beyond that period under which provision of the BNSS, 2023?
aSection 167
bSection 187
cSection 173
dSection 190
Answer: B
Section 187 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 167 CrPC) governs the procedure when investigation cannot be completed in 24 hours and the Magistrate's power to authorise further detention, including police custody.
Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is
aimpliedly barred only
beither expressly or impliedly barred
cexpressly barred only
dbarred by a notification of the State Government
Answer: B
Section 9 confers jurisdiction over all suits of a civil nature except those whose cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred. Both modes of exclusion are recognised.
The general power of transfer and withdrawal of suits, appeals or other proceedings to a subordinate competent court is conferred on the High Court or the District Court by
aSection 25
bSection 23
cSection 24
dSection 22
Answer: C
Section 24 empowers the High Court or District Court, on application of a party or of its own motion, to transfer or withdraw any suit, appeal or proceeding to a subordinate court competent to try it. Section 25 deals with the Supreme Court's power to transfer.
No suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiration of how many months after notice in writing has been delivered under Section 80, C.P.C. ?
athree months
bsix months
ctwo months
done month
Answer: C
Section 80 requires that no suit against the Government or a public officer (for an official act) be instituted until two months have elapsed after delivery of the prescribed written notice.
Where a decree is reversed or varied in appeal, the court which passed the decree shall, on the application of any party entitled to a benefit, cause restitution to be made. This power is contained in
aSection 144
bSection 151
cSection 141
dSection 152
Answer: A
Section 144 embodies the doctrine of restitution, placing the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree that has been varied, reversed, set aside or modified.
Where it appears to the court that there exist elements of a settlement, the court may formulate the terms and refer the dispute for arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement, Lok Adalat or mediation. This provision for settlement of disputes outside the court is
aSection 94
bSection 89
cSection 80
dSection 96
Answer: B
Section 89 enables the court to refer disputes to ADR mechanisms—arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, or mediation—where elements of a settlement appear to exist.
A second appeal lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves
aany question of law or fact
ban error of fact apparent on the record
ca substantial question of law
da question of value exceeding the prescribed limit
Answer: C
Under Section 100, a second appeal to the High Court is maintainable only where it involves a substantial question of law; questions of fact cannot be reagitated in second appeal.
An appeal from every decree passed by a court exercising original jurisdiction (a first appeal) is provided under
aSection 100
bSection 104
cSection 115
dSection 96
Answer: D
Section 96 provides for a first appeal from an original decree to the court authorised to hear appeals. Section 100 governs second appeals and Section 104 governs appeals from orders.
The revisional jurisdiction over subordinate courts which have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in them, or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally in the exercise of jurisdiction, is conferred on the High Court by
aSection 115
bSection 113
cSection 100
dSection 96
Answer: A
Section 115 vests revisional jurisdiction in the High Court over cases decided by subordinate courts in which no appeal lies, on the grounds of jurisdictional error. Section 113 deals with reference.
Nothing in the Code shall be deemed to limit or otherwise affect the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court. This saving of inherent powers is contained in
aSection 152
bSection 153
cSection 148
dSection 151
Answer: D
Section 151 preserves the inherent powers of the civil court to secure the ends of justice and to prevent abuse of its process; it does not confer new powers but recognises existing ones.
Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders, or errors arising from accidental slip or omission, may at any time be corrected by the court under
aSection 151
bSection 153-B
cSection 152
dSection 153-A
Answer: C
Section 152 empowers the court to correct clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders, or errors arising from any accidental slip or omission, at any time.
Where a period is fixed or granted by the court for doing any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, the court may, in its discretion, enlarge such period from time to time. The power of enlargement of time is found in
aSection 148
bSection 149
cSection 151
dSection 153
Answer: A
Section 148 confers discretion on the court to enlarge a period fixed for doing an act under the Code, even if the period originally fixed has expired. Section 149 deals with the power to make up a deficiency in court fees.
A defendant may institute an interpleader suit where two or more persons claim adversely the same debt, sum of money or property from him and he claims no interest therein. Interpleader suits are governed by
aOrder XXXV
bOrder XXXIX
cOrder XXXVII
dOrder XXXIII
Answer: A
Order XXXV deals with interpleader suits, where a person holding property claimed adversely by two or more rival claimants compels them to interplead. Order XXXIII deals with suits by indigent persons.
A suit upon a bill of exchange, hundi or promissory note, or to recover a debt or liquidated demand in money, may be instituted under the summary procedure provided in
aOrder XXXII
bOrder XXXVII
cOrder XXXIV
dOrder XXXIX
Answer: B
Order XXXVII provides the summary procedure applicable to suits on negotiable instruments and for recovery of a debt or liquidated demand, where the defendant must obtain leave to defend.
A temporary injunction restraining a party from wasting, damaging or alienating property in dispute, or from committing a breach of contract or other injury, may be granted under
aOrder XXXVIII, Rules 1 and 2
bOrder XLI, Rules 1 and 2
cOrder XXXIX, Rules 1 and 2
dOrder XL, Rules 1 and 2
Answer: C
Order XXXIX, Rules 1 and 2 empower the court to grant temporary injunctions to protect property in dispute and to restrain breach of contract or injury. Order XXXVIII deals with attachment before judgment.
A decree passed by a foreign court is conclusive under Section 13 of CPC unless it falls within one of the stated exceptions. Which of the following is NOT one of the grounds on which a foreign judgment ceases to be conclusive?
aWhere it sustains a claim founded on a breach of any law in force in India
bWhere it has not been pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction
cWhere it has been delivered by a court located outside the Commonwealth
dWhere it has been obtained by fraud
Answer: C
Section 13 lists six grounds (clauses a to f); the location of the foreign court within or outside the Commonwealth is not a ground. Clauses (a), (e) and (f) cover incompetent jurisdiction, fraud and breach of Indian law respectively.
A new offence has been introduced under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 whereby murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief is separately punishable. This provision is contained in—
aSection 103(2)
bSection 111
cSection 101(2)
dSection 117(3)
Answer: A
Section 103(2) BNS codifies mob-lynching murder by a group of five or more on the stated grounds, punishable with death or life imprisonment and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching' has been recognised as a distinct offence for the first time. It is dealt with under—
aSection 310
bSection 303
cSection 304
dSection 309
Answer: C
Section 304 BNS newly defines and punishes snatching, where theft is committed by suddenly or quickly seizing movable property from a person or possession.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, robbery is deemed to be 'dacoity' only when the number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit the robbery is—
afive or more
bthree or more
cfour or more
dtwo or more
Answer: A
Section 310 BNS retains the requirement that five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt robbery for the act to amount to dacoity.
The offence of theft, which was punishable under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, now corresponds to which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 305
bSection 309
cSection 301
dSection 303
Answer: D
Section 303 BNS defines theft and prescribes its punishment, replacing Sections 378-379 IPC.
The offence of criminal conspiracy under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is dealt with under—
aSection 152
bSection 120A
cSection 61
dSection 111
Answer: C
Section 61 BNS defines criminal conspiracy; its proviso requires an overt act besides the agreement except where the agreement itself is to commit an offence.
Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, effectively replacing the offence of sedition?
aSection 152
bSection 150
cSection 197
dSection 124A
Answer: A
Section 152 BNS punishes acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; the old offence of sedition under Section 124A IPC has been omitted.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime' — newly introduced — is punishable under—
aSection 111
bSection 152
cSection 109
dSection 113
Answer: A
Section 111 BNS introduces organised crime, covering continuing unlawful activities such as kidnapping, extortion, contract killing and cyber-crime by a syndicate.
Section 226 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 partially retains the offence under the erstwhile Section 309 IPC. It penalises attempt to commit suicide—
awith intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty
bonly by a public servant
conly when it results in grievous hurt
din all circumstances
Answer: A
Section 226 BNS punishes attempt to commit suicide with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty; general attempt to suicide is otherwise decriminalised.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of dowry death is contained in—
aSection 304B
bSection 80
cSection 85
dSection 108
Answer: B
Section 80 BNS deals with dowry death — death of a woman within seven years of marriage in connection with demand for dowry — replacing Section 304B IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which provision now defines and prescribes the punishment for the offence of 'murder'?
aSection 299 defines murder and Section 302 prescribes its punishment
bSection 103 defines murder and Section 101 prescribes its punishment
cSection 101 defines murder and Section 103 prescribes its punishment
dSection 100 defines murder and Section 105 prescribes its punishment
Answer: C
In the BNS, 2023, Section 101 defines murder while Section 103 prescribes the punishment (death or life imprisonment, plus fine). This replaces the old IPC scheme of Sections 300 and 302.
Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration may be furnished by the promisee 'or any other person'. This recognition of consideration moving from a third person reflects the rule laid down in
aTweddle v. Atkinson
bChinnaya v. Ramayya
cDunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. v. Selfridge & Co.
dBeswick v. Beswick
Answer: B
Section 2(d) permits consideration to move from 'the promisee or any other person', so a stranger to the consideration may sue, as held in Chinnaya v. Ramayya; the English contrary rule appears in Tweddle v. Atkinson.
A, by a registered written instrument, promises out of natural love and affection to pay his brother B a sum of money, though B has given nothing in return. The agreement is
avoidable at the option of A
bvalid only if B subsequently does some act for A
cvoid for want of consideration
dvalid and enforceable under Section 25(1)
Answer: D
Section 25(1) makes a written and registered promise founded on natural love and affection between parties in near relation enforceable despite absence of consideration.
A signs a written and signed promise to pay B Rs. 5,000 in respect of a debt which B could no longer recover by suit owing to the law of limitation. The promise is
avalid under Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
bvalid only if it is also registered
cvoid, as the original debt is already barred
dvoid, as it is without fresh consideration
Answer: A
Section 25(3) validates a written and signed promise to pay wholly or in part a debt whose recovery is barred by limitation, even without fresh consideration; registration is not required.
A minor, aged 16, mortgages his house to secure a loan advanced to him by a money-lender. Following the rule in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, the mortgage is
avalid to the extent of the loan actually utilised
bvoid ab initio, the minor being incompetent to contract under Section 11
cvoidable at the option of the minor on attaining majority
dvalid and binding once ratified after majority
Answer: B
In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose the Privy Council held that, since a minor is not competent to contract under Section 11, an agreement by a minor is void ab initio, not merely voidable.
Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of an acceptance is complete, as against the acceptor, when
athe acceptance is put in a course of transmission to the proposer, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor
bthe acceptor posts the letter of acceptance
cthe proposal is made
dit comes to the knowledge of the proposer
Answer: D
Under Section 4, communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put in course of transmission, but as against the acceptor only when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
An agreement by which a person, on entering employment, agrees with his employer that he will not carry on any similar business anywhere in India for life after leaving service, is, under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
avalid if supported by consideration
bvalid, being a reasonable restraint
cvoid to that extent, as an agreement in restraint of trade
dvoidable at the option of the employee
Answer: C
Section 27 declares every agreement that restrains a person from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business void to that extent, subject only to the statutory exception relating to sale of goodwill.
A agrees to pay B Rs. 1,000 if a certain ship which has gone abroad returns safely within a year. This agreement is best described as
aa void agreement for uncertainty
ba contingent contract, the performance of which depends on a collateral uncertain event
can agreement to do an impossible act
da wagering agreement, and therefore void
Answer: B
Under Section 31 a contingent contract is one to do or not to do something if a collateral uncertain event happens; the safe return of the ship is such an event, distinguishing it from a wager.
A contracts to sing for B at a concert. A falls dangerously ill and is unable to perform on the appointed day. The contract is
avoid ab initio for want of certainty
bvoidable at the option of B for breach by A
cenforceable against A by an award of damages for breach
dvoid on the ground of supervening impossibility under Section 56
Answer: D
A contract to do an act which afterwards becomes impossible or unlawful by an event the promisor could not prevent becomes void under Section 56 (doctrine of frustration), as illustrated by personal incapacity to perform.
The principle that a contract may be discharged by 'supervening impossibility or illegality', tested by whether the changed circumstance strikes at the root of the contract, was authoritatively explained by the Supreme Court in
aKrell v. Henry
bHadley v. Baxendale
cTaylor v. Caldwell
dSatyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co.
Answer: D
In Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. (1954) the Supreme Court held that in India frustration is governed solely by Section 56, applying the test of supervening impossibility striking at the root of the contract.
Under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the liability of the surety is
asecondary and arises only after the creditor exhausts remedies against the principal debtor
bco-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless otherwise provided by the contract
cwholly independent of the liability of the principal debtor
dlimited to one-half of the debt of the principal debtor
Answer: B
Section 128 provides that the liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless the contract otherwise provides; it is immediate and not contingent on exhausting remedies.
Match the following heads of damages with the leading authority:
1. Remoteness of damage in contract
2. Genuine pre-estimate of loss
Select the correct pairing.
The rule on remoteness in contract derives from Hadley v. Baxendale (reflected in Section 73), while a genuine covenanted pre-estimate of loss (liquidated damages) is governed by Section 74.
A, an agent, enters into a contract with C on behalf of his disclosed principal P, without binding himself personally. In the absence of any contract to the contrary, the position under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is that
athe agent A is personally bound by and may personally enforce the contract
bthe contract is void as it is made through an agent
cthe agent A can neither personally enforce nor be personally bound by the contract
donly the agent A, and not the principal P, is bound
Answer: C
Section 230 provides that, in the absence of a contract to that effect, an agent can neither personally enforce contracts entered into on behalf of his principal, nor is he personally bound by them.
An agreement entered into between two parties under a mutual mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement is, under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
avoidable at the option of either party
bvoid
cvalid but unenforceable
dvoidable at the option of the party misled
Answer: B
Section 20 declares that where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
A and B contract that B shall pay A Rs. 1,000 if it should rain on a given day, and that A shall pay B Rs. 1,000 if it should not. This agreement is
aa contingent contract enforceable under Section 31
ba quasi-contract under Section 70
ca valid contract supported by reciprocal consideration
da wagering agreement and void under Section 30
Answer: D
Where neither party has any interest in the event other than the sum to be won or lost, the agreement is a wager and void under Section 30; only the loser stands to lose and only the winner to gain.
Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor is enforceable. The act done must, however, have been done
aat the express request of the promisor
bafter the making of the promise to compensate
cvoluntarily, and for the promisor, or it must be something the promisor was legally compellable to do
dunder a contract that was subsequently rescinded
Answer: C
Section 25(2) validates a promise to compensate wholly or in part a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do.
A proposal may be revoked, under Section 5 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, at any time
abefore the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards
bbefore the acceptor has formed an intention to accept
cat any time, even after acceptance is communicated
dbefore the proposal reaches the acceptor
Answer: A
Section 5 provides that a proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the rule that a confession made to a police officer shall not be proved against an accused person is contained in
aSection 25
bSection 24
cSection 22
dSection 23(1)
Answer: D
Section 23(1) of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to Section 25 of the old Indian Evidence Act, 1872) bars proof of a confession made to a police officer against the accused.
When a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused person in police custody, so much of such information as relates distinctly to the fact discovered may be proved. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this 'discovery of fact' rule is found in
aSection 27
bSection 24
cSection 22(1)
dthe proviso to Section 23(2)
Answer: D
The recovery/discovery exception (old Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act) is now placed in the proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023, which permits proof of so much of the information, whether or not it amounts to a confession, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered.
A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, is relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
aonly when the person making it was under expectation of death
bonly if reduced to writing by a Magistrate
conly in criminal proceedings for murder
dwhether or not the person was under expectation of death, in cases in which the cause of that person's death comes into question
Answer: D
Section 26(a) of the BSA, 2023 makes such statements (dying declarations) relevant whether or not the person was under expectation of death, and in both civil and criminal proceedings where the cause of death is in question.
Where more persons than one are being tried jointly for the same offence, and a confession made by one of them affecting himself and some other of such persons is proved, the court may take such confession into consideration against the other persons as well. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 this provision is
aSection 24
bSection 26
cSection 28
dSection 30
Answer: A
Section 24 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act) deals with consideration of a proved confession affecting the maker and others jointly under trial for the same offence; the Court may take such confession into consideration against the other persons as well as against its maker.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the opinion of an expert upon a point of foreign law, science, art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, is made relevant by
aSection 45
bSection 39
cSection 47
dSection 51
Answer: B
Section 39 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to Section 45 of the old Evidence Act) makes expert opinion relevant.
Facts which, though not in issue, are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction, are relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 by virtue of
aSection 6
bSection 4
cSection 7
dSection 9
Answer: B
The res gestae rule (old Section 6 of the Evidence Act) is now contained in Section 4 of the BSA, 2023.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the principle of estoppel is contained in
aSection 123
bSection 115
cSection 121
dSection 117
Answer: C
Section 121 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 115 of the Evidence Act) embodies the doctrine of estoppel; Chapter VIII (Sections 121 to 123) deals with estoppel.
A 'leading question' is defined under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 as any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive. This definition appears in
aSection 143
bSection 145
cSection 146
dSection 141
Answer: C
Section 146 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 141 of the Evidence Act) defines a leading question.
The fact that a child was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is conclusive proof of legitimacy, unless non-access is shown. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this is provided in
aSection 112
bSection 114
cSection 119
dSection 116
Answer: D
Section 116 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 112 of the Evidence Act) makes birth during marriage conclusive proof of legitimacy subject to proof of non-access.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, secondary evidence of the contents of a document includes certified copies, copies made by a mechanical process, copies compared with the original, counterparts, and oral accounts of the contents given by a person who has himself seen it. The forms of secondary evidence are enumerated in
aSection 58
bSection 63
cSection 57
dSection 60
Answer: A
Section 58 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 63 of the Evidence Act) enumerates the kinds of secondary evidence; Section 57 deals with primary evidence.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the admissibility of electronic or digital records as evidence, supported by the required certificate, is governed by
aSection 61
bSection 63
cSection 62
dSection 65
Answer: B
Section 63 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to Section 65B of the old Evidence Act) governs admissibility of electronic records, with the certificate requirement under Section 63(4).
'Whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist.' Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this general rule on burden of proof is contained in
aSection 104
bSection 101
cSection 102
dSection 103
Answer: A
Section 104 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 101 of the Evidence Act) lays down the general rule of burden of proof.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an admission is defined as a statement, oral or documentary or contained in electronic form, which suggests any inference as to a relevant fact or fact in issue. This definition is contained in
aSection 15
bSection 18
cSection 21
dSection 17
Answer: A
Section 15 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 17 of the Evidence Act) defines 'admission', expressly including statements in electronic form.
From the following words, the correctly spelt word is
aPrivilage
bPrivilege
cPriviledge
dPrivelege
Answer: B
The correct spelling is 'Privilege' — a single 'd' is never present and the second vowel is 'i'.
Q82General English
The word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'Frugal' is
aThrifty
bSparing
cExtravagant
dEconomical
Answer: C
'Frugal' means sparing or economical; its antonym is 'Extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish. The other options are synonyms of frugal.
Q83General English
One who is fluent in many languages is called a
apolyglot
blexicographer
cphilologist
dlinguist
Answer: A
A 'polyglot' is a person who knows and is able to use several languages. A lexicographer compiles dictionaries, and a philologist studies the history of language.
Q84General English
Choose the word most similar in meaning to the word 'Candid'
aDeceitful
bFrank
cReserved
dHesitant
Answer: B
'Candid' means truthful and straightforward; 'Frank' is its closest synonym. The remaining options convey the opposite sense.
Q85General English
Find the odd word out :
aParrot
bSparrow
cSalmon
dPigeon
Answer: C
Sparrow, pigeon and parrot are all birds, whereas 'Salmon' is a fish, making it the odd one out.
Q86General English
Identify the tense of the following sentence : She had finished her work before the guests arrived.
aPast perfect tense
bPast simple tense
cPast continuous tense
dPresent perfect tense
Answer: A
'Had finished' is the past perfect tense, used for an action completed before another past action ('arrived').
Q87General English
Fill in the blank with the correct phrasal verb : The meeting was ____ because of the chairman's illness.
acalled on
bcalled up
ccalled off
dcalled for
Answer: C
'Called off' means cancelled, which fits the context of an illness preventing the meeting.
Q88General English
Which of the following sentences contains a subordinating conjunction?
aWe waited until the rain stopped.
bShe is poor but honest.
cYou can have tea or coffee.
dHe worked hard and he succeeded.
Answer: A
'Until' is a subordinating conjunction joining a dependent clause to the main clause. 'And', 'but' and 'or' are coordinating conjunctions.
Q89General English
Choose the correct meaning of the idiom 'to bury the hatchet'
ato start a quarrel
bto dig a grave
cto hide a weapon
dto make peace
Answer: D
'To bury the hatchet' means to end a quarrel and make peace.
Q90General English
Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence : Neither the judge nor the lawyers ____ present when the verdict was read.
ahas been
bwere
cwas
dis
Answer: B
In 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. 'Lawyers' is plural, so the correct verb is 'were'.
Q91General Knowledge / Current Affairs
On which date was the State of Jharkhand formed as the 28th State of the Indian Union, carved out of Bihar?
a15th November, 2000
b1st November, 2000
c9th November, 2000
d16th November, 2000
Answer: A
Jharkhand came into existence on 15th November 2000 under the Bihar Reorganisation Act, on the birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, becoming the 28th State of India.
Who is the Chief Minister of Jharkhand as of June 2026?
aChampai Soren
bRaghubar Das
cHemant Soren
dArjun Munda
Answer: C
Hemant Soren of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM) is the incumbent Chief Minister of Jharkhand, having assumed office on 4 July 2024 and continuing in 2026.
Santosh Kumar Gangwar, a veteran BJP leader and former Union Minister, was sworn in as Governor of Jharkhand on 31 July 2024 and continues to hold office in 2026.
Which is the only Tiger Reserve situated in the State of Jharkhand?
aHazaribagh Tiger Reserve
bSaranda Tiger Reserve
cDalma Tiger Reserve
dPalamau Tiger Reserve
Answer: D
Palamau Tiger Reserve is the only tiger reserve in Jharkhand and was among the first nine reserves declared under Project Tiger in 1973; Betla National Park lies within it.
'Law Day' (Constitution Day) is observed in India on which date?
a26th December
b26th November
c26th January
d15th August
Answer: B
Law Day, also called Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas), is observed on 26th November, the day the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India in 1949.
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.
