Jharkhand Judiciary Mock Test 6 — Questions & Solutions
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Under the BNSS, 2023, the power of the High Court or the Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail, i.e. a direction for release on bail to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence, is contained in
aSection 484
bSection 480
cSection 438
dSection 482
Answer: D
Section 482 BNSS (corresponding to Section 438 CrPC) confers power on the High Court and the Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail.
Under the BNSS, 2023, where an offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term of seven years or more, the officer in charge of the police station is required to cause a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and collect forensic evidence. This provision is found in
aSection 175
bSection 176
cSection 184
dSection 178
Answer: B
Section 176(3) BNSS makes it mandatory, for offences punishable with seven years or more, for forensic experts to visit the crime scene and collect evidence, videographing the process.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the process of conducting a search and seizure, including the preparation and signing of the list of things seized, shall be recorded through audio-video electronic means. This requirement is laid down in
aSection 103
bSection 185
cSection 105
dSection 100
Answer: C
Section 105 BNSS introduces mandatory audio-video recording (preferably by cell phone) of the search and seizure process, with the recording forwarded to the District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial may be proceeded with by the Court only after the lapse of
aninety days from the date of framing of the charge
bsixty days from the date of arrest warrant
cone hundred eighty days from the date of FIR
dthirty days from the date of proclamation
Answer: A
Section 356 BNSS, a new provision permitting trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, bars commencement of trial unless ninety days have elapsed from the date of framing of the charge.
Under the BNSS, 2023, where a person has, for the first time, undergone detention as an undertrial prisoner for one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence (other than an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment), the provision entitling him to release on bond is
aSection 478
bSection 481
cSection 479
dSection 436A
Answer: C
Section 479 BNSS (corresponding to Section 436A CrPC) provides for release of an undertrial prisoner on bond after detention for the prescribed fraction of the maximum sentence, with relaxed conditions for first-time offenders.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the investigation in relation to an offence of rape and certain other sexual offences against children shall be completed within
asix months from the date of recording of information
bone month from the date of recording of information
ctwo months from the date of recording of information
dthree months from the date of recording of information
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 193(1) BNSS requires investigation of specified sexual offences (including rape and POCSO offences) to be completed within two months from the date on which the information was recorded.
Under the BNSS, 2023, in the case of a person who is sick or infirm or is above sixty years of age and is accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, no arrest shall be made without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of
aInspector of Police
bDeputy Superintendent of Police
cInspector General of Police
dSuperintendent of Police
Answer: B
Section 35(7) BNSS provides that for offences punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall not be arrested without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the report of a police officer on completion of investigation (commonly called the charge-sheet) is forwarded to the Magistrate empowered to take cognizance under
aSection 193
bSection 190
cSection 173
dSection 210
Answer: A
Section 193 BNSS (corresponding to Section 173 CrPC) deals with the report of a police officer on completion of investigation, i.e. the charge-sheet or final report.
Under the BNSS, 2023, while authorising detention of an accused person who is forwarded after the investigation could not be completed within twenty-four hours, a Magistrate may authorise custody (whether police or judicial) for a term not exceeding
atwenty-four hours at a time
bthirty days in the whole
cfifteen days in the whole
dseven days in the whole
Answer: C
Section 187 BNSS permits a Magistrate to authorise custody of the accused for a term not exceeding fifteen days in the whole, which may be in parts during the initial period of investigation.
Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where information relating to a cognizable offence is given to an officer in charge of a police station whose station does not have jurisdiction over the area where the offence was committed, the officer shall
arecord the information irrespective of the area where the offence is committed (a 'Zero FIR') and forward it to the police station having jurisdiction
brefuse to record the information and direct the informant to the police station having territorial jurisdiction
crecord the information only if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life or death
drecord the information only after obtaining the prior permission of the Superintendent of Police
Answer: A
Section 173 BNSS, 2023 statutorily codifies the 'Zero FIR' — information relating to a cognizable offence may be given irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, and is thereafter transferred to the station having jurisdiction.
Under the proviso to Section 173(1) of the BNSS, 2023, in respect of a cognizable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists, and such enquiry must be concluded within
asixty days
bthirty days
cseven days
dfourteen days
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 173(1) BNSS permits a preliminary enquiry (with DySP-rank permission) for offences punishable with 3 years or more but less than 7 years, and requires it to be completed within fourteen days.
Under Section 176(3) of the BNSS, 2023, where an offence is punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, the police officer in charge of the police station shall
acause a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and videograph the process on a mobile phone or other electronic device
bforward the accused to a Magistrate within twenty-four hours irrespective of the place of arrest
cobtain sanction of the State Government before commencing investigation
dcomplete the investigation within thirty days from the date of the first information report
Answer: A
Section 176(3) BNSS makes forensic investigation mandatory for offences punishable with 7 years or more — a forensic expert must visit the scene of crime to collect evidence and the process is to be videographed.
Under Section 193 of the BNSS, 2023, the police officer in charge is required to inform the informant or the victim of the progress of the investigation, including by electronic communication, within
athirty days from the date of registration of the first information report
bfifteen days from the date of registration of the first information report
cninety days from the date of registration of the first information report
dsixty days from the date of registration of the first information report
Answer: C
Section 193 BNSS introduces a victim-centric duty: the investigating officer must inform the informant or victim of the progress of investigation, including by electronic means, within ninety days.
Under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023, a Court may proceed with the trial and pronounce judgment in the absence of a proclaimed offender, but only after a period has elapsed from the date of framing of the charge. That period is
asixty days
bthirty days
cone hundred and eighty days
dninety days
Answer: D
Section 356 BNSS for the first time permits a full trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, but mandates a waiting period of ninety days from the date of framing of the charge before the trial commences.
Under the first proviso to Section 35(1) of the BNSS, 2023, no person who is infirm or above the age of sixty years and accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years shall be arrested except with the prior permission of
athe Superintendent of Police
bthe Director General of Police
can officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
dthe Magistrate having jurisdiction
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 35(1) BNSS protects the infirm and persons above sixty accused of offences punishable with less than three years' imprisonment — arrest requires prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DySP.
Under the first proviso to Section 187(3) of the BNSS, 2023, in an investigation relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of less than ten years, the total period of detention of an accused otherwise than in police custody shall not exceed
athirty days
bninety days
csixty days
dfifteen days
Answer: C
Section 187(3) BNSS retains the default-bail scheme — 90 days for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of ten years or more, and sixty days for any other offence.
A sues B for possession of a house. The suit is dismissed. A then files a second suit against B for the same house claiming mesne profits, a ground which he might and ought to have raised in the earlier suit. The bar to the second suit on this ground arises from
aExplanation IV to Section 11 (constructive res judicata)
bSection 12 (bar to further suit)
cSection 10 (stay of suit)
dOrder 2 Rule 1 (frame of suit)
Answer: A
Explanation IV to Section 11 CPC embodies constructive res judicata: a matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack in the former suit is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue.
The summary procedure under Order 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is applicable to suits upon
aall suits for recovery of immovable property
bbills of exchange, hundis and promissory notes, and certain suits for a liquidated demand in money
csuits for partition of joint family property
dsuits for specific performance of contracts
Answer: B
Order 37 CPC provides a summary procedure for suits on negotiable instruments (bills of exchange, hundis, promissory notes) and for certain suits to recover a liquidated demand in money arising on a written contract, enactment or guarantee.
An application for review of a judgment under Order 47 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may be entertained, inter alia, on the ground of
aan erroneous decision on a question of law alone
ba change in the subsequent law declared by the Supreme Court
cmere inadequacy of the relief granted
ddiscovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence, was not within the applicant's knowledge
Answer: D
Order 47 Rule 1 CPC permits review on discovery of new and important matter or evidence not earlier within knowledge despite due diligence, on an error apparent on the face of the record, or for any other sufficient reason.
The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court over subordinate courts that have decided a case in which no appeal lies is conferred by which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSection 114
bSection 113
cSection 115
dSection 100
Answer: C
Section 115 CPC empowers the High Court to call for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where such court has exercised jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested, or acted with material irregularity.
Where the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 contains no specific provision applicable to a situation, the civil court may pass such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court by exercising
aits power of reference under Section 113
bits inherent powers saved by Section 151
cits revisional powers under Section 115
dits appellate powers under Section 96
Answer: B
Section 151 CPC saves the inherent powers of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court, where no express provision otherwise governs the situation.
A judgment of a foreign court is conclusive under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 as to any matter directly adjudicated upon, EXCEPT, among other grounds, where the judgment
ahas been pronounced after a contested trial
bis supported by a certified copy
chas been delivered by a court of record
dhas not been given on the merits of the case
Answer: D
Section 13 CPC makes a foreign judgment conclusive, but not where (among other exceptions in clauses (a) to (f)) it has not been given on the merits of the case or was pronounced by a court of incompetent jurisdiction.
Where a judgment-debtor wilfully disobeys a decree for an injunction granted against him, the court may, under Order 21 Rule 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, enforce the decree by
atransferring the decree to the High Court only
bdismissing the suit
cdetention in civil prison or attachment of his property, or both
ddirecting the police to arrest him for a cognizable offence
Answer: C
Order 21 Rule 32 CPC permits enforcement of a decree for an injunction (or specific performance) against a wilfully disobedient judgment-debtor by his detention in civil prison, by attachment of his property, or by both.
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a court shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. This principle is contained in
aSection 15
bSection 9
cSection 16
dSection 11
Answer: B
Section 9 CPC, headed 'Courts to try all civil suits unless barred', confers jurisdiction on civil courts to try all suits of a civil nature unless their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred.
The doctrine of res judicata, which bars the trial of a suit or issue already finally decided between the same parties, is embodied in which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSection 10
bSection 13
cSection 11
dSection 47
Answer: C
Section 11 CPC, headed 'Res judicata', precludes a court from trying any suit or issue directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties that has been heard and finally decided.
Where a suit is pending in a court in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, the subsequent suit is liable to be
aconsolidated under Section 24
brejected under Order VII Rule 11
cstayed under Section 10
ddismissed under Section 11
Answer: C
Section 10 CPC ('Stay of suit'), embodying the doctrine of res sub judice, requires the later-instituted suit to be stayed (not dismissed) while the earlier suit on the same matter between the same parties is pending.
Suits for the recovery of immovable property, or for the determination of any right to or interest in immovable property, shall ordinarily be instituted in the court within whose local limits the property is situate. This is provided in
aSection 16
bSection 15
cSection 20
dSection 19
Answer: A
Section 16 CPC, 'Suits to be instituted where subject-matter situate', requires suits relating to immovable property to be filed where the property is located.
The general power of the court to transfer and withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before it to any subordinate court competent to try the same is conferred by
aSection 22
bSection 25
cSection 23
dSection 24
Answer: D
Section 24 CPC, headed 'General power of transfer and withdrawal', empowers the High Court or District Court to transfer or withdraw cases on application or suo motu.
All questions arising between the parties to the suit in which the decree was passed and relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree shall be determined by
aa separate suit instituted for that purpose
bthe High Court in its revisional jurisdiction
cthe court executing the decree, and not by a separate suit
dan appellate court only
Answer: C
Section 47 CPC requires all questions relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of a decree to be decided by the executing court itself, barring a separate suit.
A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies only
aif the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law
bon a question of fact
cwhere the value of the suit exceeds Rs. 10,000
dwith the leave of the Supreme Court
Answer: A
Section 100 CPC ('Second appeal') permits a second appeal only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated.
The summary procedure for speedy disposal of suits upon bills of exchange, hundis and promissory notes is provided under which Order of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aOrder XXXIX
bOrder XXXVII
cOrder XXXV
dOrder XLI
Answer: B
Order XXXVII CPC lays down the summary procedure, which applies inter alia to suits upon bills of exchange, hundis and promissory notes, and certain suits for recovery of debt or liquidated demand.
Under Section 63 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife is not rape if the wife is:
aof any age, in all circumstances
bnot below fifteen years of age
cnot below sixteen years of age
dnot below eighteen years of age
Answer: D
The marital exception under Section 63 BNS applies only where the wife is not under eighteen years of age, raising the earlier threshold and aligning it with the age of majority.
Under Section 70(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the minimum punishment prescribed for gang rape is rigorous imprisonment for a term not less than:
aTen years
bTwenty years
cFourteen years
dSeven years
Answer: B
Section 70(1) BNS prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than twenty years for gang rape, extendable to imprisonment for the remainder of the offender's natural life, and fine.
Which of the following offences has been newly introduced as a distinct offence under Section 111 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aAffray
bSedition
cOrganised crime
dAdultery
Answer: C
Section 111 BNS introduces 'organised crime' as a distinct offence covering activities such as kidnapping, extortion and land-grabbing carried on by a crime syndicate; petty organised crime is dealt with separately under Section 112.
Under Section 226 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a person who attempts to commit suicide with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty may be punished with:
aNo punishment, as attempt to suicide is wholly decriminalised
bSimple imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both, or community service
cImprisonment up to seven years and fine
dRigorous imprisonment up to three years
Answer: B
Section 226 BNS is a new provision punishing attempt to commit suicide as a means to compel or restrain a public servant; the punishment is simple imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both, or community service.
Z attempts, with the intention of committing rape, to assault A. Under Section 38 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A's right of private defence of the body:
aextends only to causing simple hurt
bis available only after seeking help from public authorities
cdoes not extend to causing death
dextends to voluntarily causing the death of Z
Answer: D
Section 38 BNS enumerates the situations in which the right of private defence of body extends to causing death, expressly including an assault with the intention of committing rape.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt (Section 117) may extend to imprisonment for a term of:
aFive years
bSeven years
cThree years
dTen years
Answer: B
Section 117 BNS punishes voluntarily causing grievous hurt with imprisonment of either description up to seven years and fine, corresponding to the former Section 325 IPC.
Under Section 79 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, whoever, intending to insult the modesty of a woman, utters any word or makes any gesture intended to be heard or seen by her, is punishable with:
aFine only
bSimple imprisonment up to three years and fine
cSimple imprisonment up to one year and fine
dRigorous imprisonment up to five years and fine
Answer: B
Section 79 BNS punishes word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman (and intrusion upon her privacy) with simple imprisonment up to three years and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which provision codifies the principle that when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if he had done it alone?
aSection 3(5)
bSection 61
cSection 34
dSection 190
Answer: A
The common intention rule (erstwhile Section 34 IPC) is now contained in Section 3(5) of the BNS, 2023, which retains the same language imposing joint liability on each participant.
A throws acid at B, and the circumstances reasonably cause B to apprehend that grievous hurt will otherwise result. In defending himself, B causes the death of A. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, B's act is:
aCulpable homicide not amounting to murder
bProtected, as the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death under Section 38
cMurder, since causing death is never justified
dAn offence, but only of voluntarily causing hurt
Answer: B
Section 38 BNS expressly lists 'an act of throwing or administering acid' creating apprehension of grievous hurt among the situations in which the right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death of the assailant.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is provided under:
aSection 101
bSection 103
cSection 302
dSection 105
Answer: B
Section 101 BNS defines murder, while Section 103(1) prescribes its punishment of death or imprisonment for life, and fine. The erstwhile Section 302 IPC is now Section 103 BNS.
A group of seven persons, acting in concert, kills V solely on the ground of his caste. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, each member of the group:
aIs liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 105
bIs liable only for rioting
cShall be punished with death, or imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of not less than seven years, and fine, under Section 103(2)
dCannot be punished as no individual blow can be proved fatal
Answer: C
Section 103(2) BNS is a new provision targeting mob lynching: where five or more persons acting in concert commit murder on grounds such as caste, race, sex, language or personal belief, each is punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment not less than seven years, plus fine.
Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, commits theft. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this is defined in:
aSection 378
bSection 309
cSection 303
dSection 304
Answer: C
Theft (erstwhile Section 378 IPC) is now defined under Section 303 BNS, retaining the same essential ingredients of dishonest intention and moving movable property out of possession without consent.
An offender, riding a motorcycle, suddenly snatches a chain from a pedestrian's neck and speeds away. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which offence has been newly created to specifically cover such 'snatching'?
aSection 304 (snatching)
bSection 310 (dacoity)
cSection 303 (theft)
dSection 309 (robbery)
Answer: A
Section 304 BNS is a new offence introduced by the Sanhita: theft becomes snatching where the offender suddenly, quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property from a person or his possession; it is punishable with imprisonment up to three years and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of dacoity requires the conjoint commission or attempt of robbery by:
aFive or more persons
bThree or more persons
cFour or more persons
dTwo or more persons
Answer: A
Section 310 BNS retains the rule that when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt robbery (counting those present and aiding), the offence is dacoity.
X intentionally puts Y in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly induces Y to deliver his valuable security. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, X has committed:
aRobbery under Section 309
bCheating under Section 318
cTheft under Section 303
dExtortion under Section 308
Answer: D
Extortion (erstwhile Section 383 IPC) is now Section 308 BNS: intentionally putting a person in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly inducing delivery of property or valuable security.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, kidnapping is dealt with under Section 137, which recognises kidnapping from India and kidnapping from lawful guardianship. For kidnapping from lawful guardianship, a 'child' means a person below:
aSixteen years (boys) and eighteen years (girls)
bTwelve years of age
cEighteen years of age
dTwenty-one years of age
Answer: C
Section 137 BNS sets a uniform age of below eighteen years for any child taken or enticed out of the keeping of a lawful guardian, removing the earlier gender-based distinction in Section 361 IPC.
The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
awhen it is put in a course of transmission to the proposer, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor
bwhen it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
cwhen the proposal is communicated to the acceptor
dwhen the acceptor signs the acceptance
Answer: A
Under Section 4, communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put in a course of transmission so as to be out of the acceptor's power, and as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, who among the following is NOT competent to contract?
aA person of the age of majority of sound mind
bA minor
cA person not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject
dAn insolvent who has obtained an order of discharge
Answer: B
Section 11 requires a party to be of the age of majority, of sound mind and not disqualified by law; a minor fails the first requirement and is therefore not competent to contract.
If the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, the original contract under Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
abecomes voidable at the option of either party
bremains enforceable until the new contract is performed
cmust still be performed alongside the new contract
dneed not be performed
Answer: D
Section 62 provides that where parties agree to substitute, rescind or alter a contract, the original contract need not be performed; novation, rescission and alteration must be bilateral.
The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called
aa contract of guarantee
ba contract of indemnity
can agency coupled with interest
da pledge under Section 172
Answer: D
Section 172 defines pledge as the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise; the bailor is the pawnor and the bailee is the pawnee.
A contracts to sing for B at a concert for Rs. 1,000, paid in advance. A is too ill to sing. Under Section 65 read with Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, A is
anot liable to make compensation as the contract becomes void by his illness
bliable to refund the Rs. 1,000 in addition to damages
cliable for the difference between the contract price and the cost of a substitute singer
dbound to pay B damages for breach of contract
Answer: A
A's illness renders performance impossible and the contract becomes void under Section 56; this is the illustration to Section 56, and A is not liable to make compensation for not singing.
Under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, compensation is NOT to be given for any loss or damage sustained by reason of breach which is
awhich the parties knew, when they made the contract, to be likely to result from the breach
bremote and indirect
carising in the usual course of things from the non-performance
dsuch as naturally arose in the usual course of things from the breach
Answer: B
Section 73 expressly excludes compensation for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach; only losses naturally arising or within the parties' contemplation are recoverable.
Where a contract contains a sum named as the amount to be paid in case of breach, the party complaining of breach is entitled under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to receive
adouble the sum named where the breach is wilful
bonly such compensation as is actually proved, the named sum being wholly disregarded
creasonable compensation not exceeding the sum named, whether or not actual damage is proved
dthe whole sum named, irrespective of actual loss
Answer: C
Section 74 entitles the aggrieved party to reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named or stipulated, regardless of whether actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused.
An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is dealt with under which Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
aSection 30
bSection 26
cSection 27
dSection 28
Answer: D
Section 28 renders void agreements that restrict a party absolutely from enforcing his rights through legal proceedings or that limit the time within which he may do so.
A agrees to sell to B a hundred tons of oil. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, this agreement is
avoid for uncertainty, the kind of oil being unascertained
bvoid as an agreement to do an impossible act
cvoidable at the option of B
dalways valid as the quantity is certain
Answer: A
This is the illustration to Section 29: where A and B deal in several kinds of oil and nothing shows which kind was intended, the agreement is void for uncertainty.
A, by a fraud, induces B to enter into a contract. On discovering the fraud, B may, under the Indian Contract Act, 1872,
atreat the contract as void from the beginning
bonly claim damages but cannot rescind
cneither rescind nor claim damages
daffirm the contract or rescind it, the contract being voidable at his option
Answer: D
Under Section 19, when consent is caused by fraud or misrepresentation the contract is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused, who may either affirm or rescind it.
A contract of guarantee under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a contract to perform the promise, or discharge the liability, of a third person
aonly where the surety has received consideration
bin all events
conly upon a fresh demand by the creditor
din case of his default
Answer: D
Section 126 defines a contract of guarantee as a contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of a third person in case of his default, involving the surety, principal debtor and creditor.
Under Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything with a view to obtaining the assent of that other, the person is said to make
aa promise
ba proposal
can agreement
dan acceptance
Answer: B
Section 2(a) defines a 'proposal' as signifying to another one's willingness to do or abstain from doing anything with a view to obtaining that other's assent. A proposal when accepted becomes a promise under Section 2(b).
The communication of an acceptance, as against the proposer, is complete under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
awhen it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
bwhen the acceptor decides to accept the proposal
cwhen it is put in a course of transmission to the proposer, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor
donly when the acceptance is received and read by the proposer
Answer: C
Under Section 4, communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put in a course of transmission so as to be out of the acceptor's power; as against the acceptor, it is complete when it comes to the proposer's knowledge.
A offers a reward by public advertisement to anyone who finds and returns his lost dog. B, knowing of the offer, finds and returns the dog. Under Section 8 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the performance of the condition of the proposal amounts to
aa contingent contract only
ban acceptance of the proposal
ca counter-offer
da mere invitation to offer
Answer: B
Section 8 provides that performance of the conditions of a proposal is an acceptance of the proposal; thus, finding and returning the dog in performance of the advertised condition constitutes acceptance.
Dharmodas, a minor, mortgages his property to obtain a loan. In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, the Privy Council held that an agreement entered into by a minor is
avoid ab initio
bvalid and binding once he attains majority
cenforceable to the extent of necessaries supplied
dvoidable at the option of the minor
Answer: A
In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), the Privy Council held that a minor's agreement is void ab initio, as a minor is not competent to contract under Section 11. Section 65 does not apply since there was never a valid agreement.
A tenant is, during the continuance of the tenancy, precluded from denying that the landlord had a title to the immovable property at the beginning of the tenancy. Under the BSA, 2023, this estoppel of a tenant is contained in—
aSection 122
bSection 123
cSection 121
dSection 115
Answer: A
Section 122 of the BSA, 2023 provides for estoppel of a tenant (and of a licensee of a person in possession), while general estoppel is in Section 121; these correspond to old Sections 116 and 115.
When more persons than one are being tried jointly for the same offence, and a confession made by one of them affecting himself and some other of them is proved, the court—
acannot use such confession against the maker himself
bmay take such confession into consideration against such other person as well as the maker
cmay use it only if the makers are tried for different offences
dmust convict the other person solely on such confession
Answer: B
Section 24 of the BSA, 2023 allows the court to take into consideration a confession of a co-accused, jointly tried for the same offence, against the other accused as well, corresponding to old Section 30 IEA.
Under Section 23(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a confession made to a police officer
ais admissible only against a co-accused
bshall not be proved against a person accused of any offence
cis admissible if made in the presence of two independent witnesses
dmay be proved if it is reduced into writing
Answer: B
Section 23(1) of the BSA (successor to Section 25 IEA) imposes an absolute bar: no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence, irrespective of whether it is in writing or witnessed.
A, accused of an offence and in police custody, states that he has hidden the stolen ornaments in his cattle-shed, and the ornaments are recovered from there. How much of this information is admissible under the proviso to Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?
aThe whole statement, but only against a co-accused
bOnly so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered
cThe entire statement, since it amounts to a confession
dNothing, because the accused was in police custody
Answer: B
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA (successor to Section 27 IEA) admits, whether or not it amounts to a confession, only so much of the information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered.
When the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) provides that the Court 'shall presume' a fact, the Court
ashall regard the fact as proved unless and until it is disproved
bmust regard the fact as proved and shall not allow any evidence to the contrary
cshall presume the fact only if both parties consent
dmay either regard the fact as proved or call for proof of it
Answer: A
Under Section 2(1) of the BSA (the definitions clause, successor to Section 4 IEA), where the Court 'shall presume' a fact it must regard it as proved unless and until it is disproved; a 'may presume' leaves discretion, while 'conclusive proof' bars contrary evidence.
A is found in possession of goods soon after they were stolen and is unable to account for his possession. Under illustration (a) to Section 119 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the Court may presume that
aA is an innocent bailee of the goods
bA is necessarily the thief and nothing else
cA is either the thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen
dA had no connection with the theft
Answer: C
Illustration (a) to Section 119 of the BSA permits the Court to presume that a man in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft is either the thief or a receiver knowing them to be stolen, unless he accounts for his possession.
When the accused claims the benefit of a General Exception of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within that exception
adoes not arise until the prosecution closes its case
bremains on the prosecution throughout
cis on the accused, and the Court shall presume the absence of such circumstances
dis on the accused only in cases triable by the Court of Session
Answer: C
Section 108 of the BSA places on the accused the burden of proving circumstances bringing his case within a general or special exception, and the Court shall presume the absence of such circumstances.
An accomplice, under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
ais an incompetent witness against the accused
bis a competent witness, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice
ccan testify only after he has been granted pardon
dis incompetent unless the conviction is confirmed by the High Court
Answer: B
Section 138 of the BSA declares an accomplice a competent witness and provides that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. This is the enacted BSA wording, which differs from the repealed IEA s.133 ('uncorroborated').
A person makes a statement as to the cause of his death, and later dies of the injuries. Under Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), such a dying declaration is relevant
aonly if recorded by a Magistrate
bwhether or not the person was under expectation of death when the statement was made
conly if the declarant was under expectation of death at the time of making it
donly in cases of murder and not of suicide
Answer: B
Under Section 26(a) of the BSA a statement as to the cause of death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in death is relevant whether or not the person was under expectation of death when he made it; that requirement exists in English, not Indian, law.
Oral evidence, under Section 55 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), must in all cases be
areduced into writing
bgiven on oath before a Magistrate
ccorroborated by documentary evidence
ddirect
Answer: D
Section 55 of the BSA embodies the rule that oral evidence must in all cases be direct, that is, given by the person who saw, heard or perceived the fact, thereby excluding hearsay.
A certified copy of a thirty-year-old document is produced from proper custody and fulfils all the conditions of Section 92 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA). The age of the document is computed from
athe date borne on the document
bthe date of the cause of action
cthe date of its registration
dthe date of its production in court
Answer: D
For the thirty-year presumption under Section 92 of the BSA, the relevant date for reckoning the age of the document is the date of its production in court, not the date the document bears.
When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant under
aSection 39 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
bSection 119 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
cSection 55 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
dSection 26 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)
Answer: A
Section 39 of the BSA makes relevant the opinions of experts on points of foreign law, science, art, and as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions; opinion on a point of domestic law is outside its scope.
A confession made by an accused while in the custody of a police officer is, under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), provable against him only if it is made
ain the immediate presence of a Magistrate
bafter the accused has been informed of his right to a lawyer
cin writing and signed by the accused
din the presence of two witnesses of the locality
Answer: A
Section 23(2) of the BSA bars proof of a confession made by an accused while in the custody of a police officer unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. (Section 23(1) bars a confession made TO a police officer; the custody rule is in s.23(2).)
The examination of a witness by the party who calls him is called
are-examination
ba leading examination
ccross-examination
dexamination-in-chief
Answer: D
Under Section 142 of the BSA, the examination of a witness by the party who calls him is the examination-in-chief; examination by the adverse party is cross-examination, and subsequent examination by the party who called him is re-examination.
Facts which need not be proved by formal testimony because the Court may rely on entries in public records and the opinions of persons likely to know, under Sections 29, 42 and 43 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), relate to proof of
athe existence of general customs or rights and usages
bthe conduct of the accused
cthe genuineness of a thirty-year-old document
dthe contents of an electronic record
Answer: A
Existence of general customs, rights and usages is proved through entries in public records (Section 29 of the BSA) and the opinions of persons likely to know of their existence (Sections 42 and 43 of the BSA).
A bat is a mammal, whereas a sparrow, eagle and parrot are birds. Hence 'bat' is the odd one out.
Q82General English
Identify the tense of the verb in : "By next June, she will have completed her training."
aFuture Perfect Continuous
bFuture Perfect
cFuture Continuous
dPresent Perfect
Answer: B
'Will have completed' is the future perfect tense, expressing an action that will be finished before a stated future point of time.
Q83General English
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct ?
aEach of the candidates are submitting their form.
bEach of the candidates has submitted his form.
cEach of the candidates have submitted their forms.
dEach of the candidate have submitted his form.
Answer: B
'Each' is singular and takes a singular verb and singular pronoun; hence 'Each of the candidates has submitted his form.' is correct.
Q84General English
The word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to "Candid" is
aReserved
bCautious
cDeceptive
dFrank
Answer: D
'Candid' means truthful and straightforward; its synonym is 'frank'. 'Deceptive', 'cautious' and 'reserved' carry contrary or unrelated senses.
Q85General English
"Alas ! He has lost everything." The sentence is
aan imperative sentence
ban optative sentence
can assertive sentence
dan exclamatory sentence
Answer: D
A sentence expressing a sudden strong feeling, marked by an interjection like 'Alas!' and an exclamation mark, is an exclamatory sentence.
Q86General English
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word : Neither the petitioner nor the respondents ____ present in the court.
ahas been
bis
cwas
dwere
Answer: D
With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. Here the nearer subject 'respondents' is plural, so the plural verb 'were' is correct.
Q87General English
The one-word substitution for "a statement that is so widely accepted that it is considered without question" is
aVerdict
bParadox
cAxiom
dHypothesis
Answer: C
An 'axiom' is a self-evident truth accepted without proof. A 'hypothesis' requires testing, a 'paradox' is a seemingly contradictory statement, and a 'verdict' is a decision of a jury or court.
Q88General English
Which of the following is a correctly formed passive sentence?
aThe letter was being wrote by him.
bThe letter is been written by him.
cThe letter has been written by him.
dThe letter was wrote by him.
Answer: C
The passive of the present perfect 'he has written' is 'has been written' (have/has + been + past participle 'written'). 'Wrote' is a past tense form, not a past participle, so it is wrong in the passive.
Q89General English
A person who does not believe in the existence of God is called
aheretic
bagnostic
catheist
dtheist
Answer: C
An 'atheist' denies the existence of God. An 'agnostic' holds that the existence of God is unknown or unknowable, while a 'theist' believes in God.
Q90General English
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: The judgment was delivered ____ the absence of the accused.
aon
bwith
cat
din
Answer: D
The idiomatic expression is 'in the absence of', meaning 'when someone is not present'. The other prepositions are not used with 'absence' in this sense.
Q91General Knowledge / Current Affairs
'Joule' is the SI unit of which physical quantity?
aPower
bTemperature
cPressure
dEnergy
Answer: D
The joule is the SI unit of energy (and work); power is measured in watts, temperature in kelvin, and pressure in pascals.
If in a certain code 'RANCHI' is written as 'SBODIJ', then how will 'DUMKA' be written in the same code?
aEVNKB
bEVMLB
cEVNLB
dEWNLB
Answer: C
Each letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet (R to S, A to B, N to O, ...). Applying the same shift to DUMKA gives E, V, N, L, B, i.e. EVNLB.
Q95General Knowledge / Current Affairs
A clock shows the time as 3:00. Through what angle, in degrees, do the hour and minute hands form at that moment?
a60
b75
c120
d90
Answer: D
At 3:00 the minute hand points at 12 and the hour hand at 3; each hour mark is 30 degrees, so 3 x 30 = 90 degrees between the hands.
Q96General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025?
aJustice Surya Kant
bJustice B. R. Gavai
cJustice Sanjiv Khanna
dJustice D. Y. Chandrachud
Answer: A
Justice Surya Kant was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B. R. Gavai (the 52nd CJI).
The Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2025 was awarded to
aMaria Corina Machado
bVolodymyr Zelenskyy
cNihon Hidankyo
dNarges Mohammadi
Answer: A
Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado won the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize for her work promoting democratic rights and a peaceful transition to democracy in Venezuela.
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