Jharkhand Judiciary Mock Test 2 — Questions & Solutions
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Under Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023, a Court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of fine not exceeding which amount?
aFifty thousand rupees
bTen thousand rupees
cTwenty-five thousand rupees
dOne lakh rupees
Answer: A
Section 23 BNSS, 2023 empowers a Magistrate of the first class to pass imprisonment up to three years, or fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both, or community service.
Under Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023, the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law EXCEPT—
aany sentence of fine exceeding fifty thousand rupees
bimprisonment for a term exceeding three years
ca sentence of community service
da sentence of death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding seven years
Answer: D
Under Section 23 BNSS, a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death, of imprisonment for life, or of imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
Under Section 58 of the BNSS, 2023, a person arrested without warrant must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within twenty-four hours, and in computing this period—
aSundays and public holidays are excluded
bthe time of arrest is wholly included
cno exclusion of any kind is permitted
dthe time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court is excluded
Answer: D
Section 58 BNSS, 2023 requires production before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours, exclusive of the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court, whether having jurisdiction or not.
The recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate during the course of investigation is provided under which Section of the BNSS, 2023?
aSection 180
bSection 164
cSection 161
dSection 183
Answer: D
Section 183 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 164 CrPC) empowers a Magistrate to record confessions and statements during investigation; a police officer, even one on whom magisterial powers are conferred, cannot record a confession.
A statement made to a police officer in the course of an investigation and reduced to writing under Section 180 of the BNSS, 2023—
ashall be signed only if the maker so desires
bshall not be signed by the person making it
cmust be signed and attested by two witnesses
dshall be signed by the person making it
Answer: B
Section 180 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 161 CrPC) provides that a statement made to the police during investigation, if reduced to writing, shall not be signed by the person making it.
Tender of pardon to an accomplice under Section 343 of the BNSS, 2023 may be granted by a Chief Judicial Magistrate or a Magistrate of the first class in respect of an offence—
aexclusively compoundable in nature
btriable exclusively by the Court of Session or by a Special Judge, or punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or more
ctriable summarily by a second class Magistrate
dpunishable only with fine
Answer: B
Section 343 BNSS, 2023 permits a CJM or Magistrate of the first class to tender pardon to an accomplice in an offence triable exclusively by the Court of Session or a Special Judge, or punishable with imprisonment up to seven years or more, on his making a full and true disclosure.
Which of the following is a NEW provision introduced by the BNSS, 2023 that had no direct counterpart in the CrPC, 1973?
aTender of pardon to an accomplice
bOrder for maintenance of wives, children and parents
cRecording of confessions by a Magistrate
dInquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender (Section 356)
Answer: D
Section 356 BNSS, 2023 introduces trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded and has no immediate prospect of arrest, a provision newly inserted in the BNSS with no direct CrPC equivalent.
Under Section 176(3) of the BNSS, 2023, forensic investigation by collecting evidence at the scene of crime through a forensic expert is mandatory for offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of—
aten years or more
bseven years or more
cfive years or more
dthree years or more
Answer: B
Section 176(3) BNSS, 2023 makes forensic investigation mandatory for offences punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, requiring forensic experts to visit the crime scene and record the process electronically.
The concept of a 'Zero FIR'—registration of first information regardless of the territorial jurisdiction of the police station—is now statutorily recognised under which Section of the BNSS, 2023?
aSection 154
bSection 173
cSection 200
dSection 190
Answer: B
Section 173 BNSS, 2023 permits registration of information relating to a cognizable offence irrespective of the area in which the offence is committed, statutorily recognising the Zero FIR, and also allows information by electronic means.
Under the plea bargaining provisions of the BNSS, 2023, an application for plea bargaining must be filed by the accused within—
athirty days from the date of framing of charge
bninety days from the date of arrest
cat any stage before pronouncement of judgment
dsixty days from the date of cognizance
Answer: A
Under Section 290 BNSS, 2023, the accused must file an application for plea bargaining within thirty days from the date of framing of charge—a fixed limitation period newly introduced compared to the CrPC scheme.
Plea bargaining under Chapter XXIII of the BNSS, 2023 is NOT available where the offence—
ais triable by a Magistrate of the first class
bis punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding seven years, or is committed against a woman or a child below eighteen years
cis punishable with imprisonment up to three years
dis compoundable with the permission of the court
Answer: B
Section 289 BNSS, 2023 excludes plea bargaining for offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment exceeding seven years, and for offences committed against a woman or a child below eighteen years, or affecting the socio-economic condition of the country.
Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, a person under a sentence of death may file a mercy petition to the President within what period from the date on which the Superintendent of jail informs him of the dismissal of his appeal or special leave petition by the Supreme Court?
athirty days
bfifteen days
cninety days
dsixty days
Answer: A
Section 472 BNSS, 2023 newly prescribes a time limit—a convict under a death sentence may file a mercy petition within thirty days of being informed of the dismissal of his appeal/SLP, first to the Governor and thereafter to the President.
Under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023, before commencing the trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, the Court must wait for at least—
aone hundred and eighty days after framing of charge
bsixty days after framing of charge
cthirty days after framing of charge
dninety days after framing of charge
Answer: D
Under Section 356 BNSS, 2023, the trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender cannot commence until ninety days have elapsed from the date of framing of charge, alongside other safeguards such as issuing two warrants thirty days apart and newspaper publication.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision granting statutory recognition to a 'Zero FIR'—enabling information of a cognizable offence to be registered irrespective of the territorial jurisdiction of the police station—is contained in
aSection 154
bSection 173
cSection 175
dSection 190
Answer: B
Section 173 BNSS (corresponding to Section 154 CrPC) now expressly provides that information relating to a cognizable offence may be given orally or by electronic communication and registered irrespective of jurisdiction, giving statutory backing to the Zero FIR.
Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age is accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, no arrest shall be made without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of
aDeputy Superintendent of Police
bSuperintendent of Police
cInspector of Police
dthe District Magistrate
Answer: A
Section 35(7) BNSS introduces a new safeguard: for an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, where the accused is infirm or above sixty years of age, arrest requires prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
An application for grant of anticipatory bail (direction for release on bail in anticipation of arrest in a non-bailable offence) is filed under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 482
bSection 484
cSection 480
dSection 438
Answer: A
Section 482 BNSS corresponds to Section 438 CrPC and empowers the High Court or the Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail. Note that Section 482 BNSS is the inherent-powers provision in the CrPC—the section numbers do not carry over.
Under Order XXI Rule 89 of CPC, an application to set aside a sale of immovable property in execution of a decree, on deposit of the requisite amount, must be made within
afifteen days from the date of sale
bthirty days from the date of sale
cninety days from the date of confirmation of sale
dsixty days from the date of sale
Answer: D
By virtue of Article 127 of the Limitation Act read with Order XXI Rule 89, the period for an application to set aside the sale on deposit is sixty days from the date of sale. The applicant must deposit the purchase money plus five per cent for the purchaser and the amount due to the decree-holder.
Restitution, that is, placing the parties in the position they would have occupied but for an erroneous decree which is subsequently varied or reversed, is provided for under which section of CPC?
aSection 144
bSection 141
cSection 151
dSection 47
Answer: A
Section 144 deals with the application for restitution where a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, review or otherwise; the court that passed the decree shall cause restitution to be made so as to place the parties in their former position.
B holds a sum of money to which both A and C lay claim, each asserting a right to it adverse to the other, while B himself claims no interest in it. B wishes the court to decide who is entitled. The appropriate suit for B to institute is
aa suit for specific performance
ba representative suit on behalf of A and C
can interpleader suit against A and C both
da suit for declaration against A and C
Answer: C
Section 88 read with Order XXXV provides that where two or more persons claim adversely the same property from a person who claims no interest other than charges or costs, that person may institute an interpleader suit against all the claimants.
The provision for summary procedure in suits upon bills of exchange, hundies and promissory notes, and certain other suits for recovery of debt or liquidated demand, is contained in
aOrder XXXVI of CPC
bOrder XXXIX of CPC
cOrder XXXVII of CPC
dOrder XXXVIII of CPC
Answer: C
Order XXXVII of CPC lays down the summary procedure, under which the defendant must obtain leave to defend; Order XXXVIII deals with arrest and attachment before judgment and Order XXXIX with temporary injunctions.
In execution of a decree other than a decree for maintenance, the portion of the salary or allowances of a public servant or any other employee that is exempt from attachment is, after the first one thousand rupees,
atwo-thirds of the remainder
bthe whole of the remainder
cone-third of the remainder
done-half of the remainder
Answer: A
Under the proviso to Section 60(1)(i), the first one thousand rupees and two-thirds of the remainder of salary are exempt, so only one-third of the salary beyond the first thousand rupees is attachable in an ordinary money decree.
Where the local limits of the jurisdiction of two or more courts are uncertain as to which of them any immovable property is situate, the procedure to be followed for institution of the suit is laid down in
aSection 16 of CPC
bSection 20 of CPC
cSection 18 of CPC
dSection 17 of CPC
Answer: C
Section 18 provides that where it is uncertain within whose local jurisdiction immovable property is situate, any one of those courts may, after recording a statement of the uncertainty, proceed to entertain and dispose of the suit.
Which one of the following is a ground on which a plaint shall be rejected under Order VII Rule 11 of CPC?
aWhere the plaintiff has impleaded an unnecessary party
bWhere the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
cWhere the plaintiff fails to appear on the first date of hearing
dWhere the written statement is not filed by the defendant
Answer: B
Order VII Rule 11(d) requires rejection of a plaint where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law. Misjoinder of parties or non-appearance is dealt with under other provisions, not by rejection of the plaint.
The doctrine that a question once finally decided between the same parties (or those claiming under them) by a competent court cannot be re-agitated in a subsequent suit, including a matter which ought to have been but was not made a ground of attack or defence, is embodied in
aSection 12 of CPC
bSection 10 and constructive res judicata
cSection 11 read with Explanation IV (constructive res judicata)
dOrder II Rule 2 of CPC
Answer: C
Section 11 enacts res judicata; Explanation IV makes a matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack in the former suit deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue, giving rise to constructive res judicata.
An appeal shall lie to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any court subordinate to the High Court only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves
aa substantial question of law
ba substantial error of fact
ca question of mixed law and fact of general importance
dany error apparent on the face of the record
Answer: A
Section 100, as amended in 1976, restricts the second appeal to cases involving a substantial question of law, which the High Court must formulate at the time of admitting the appeal.
Under Order VI Rule 17 of CPC, an amendment of pleadings after the trial has commenced shall not be allowed unless the court concludes that
ain spite of due diligence the party could not have raised the matter before the commencement of trial
bthe amendment does not change the valuation of the suit
cthe amendment merely corrects a clerical error
dthe opposite party consents to the amendment
Answer: A
The proviso to Order VI Rule 17 (inserted in 2002) bars amendment of pleadings after the trial has commenced unless the court concludes that, in spite of due diligence, the party could not have raised the matter before the commencement of trial.
No suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiration of how many months after a notice in writing under Section 80 of CPC has been delivered?
aTwo months
bThree months
cFifteen days
dOne month
Answer: A
Section 80(1) requires that no such suit be instituted until the expiration of two months after notice in writing has been delivered to or left at the office of the prescribed authority, stating the cause of action, name, description and place of residence of the plaintiff and the relief claimed.
A obtains a money decree against B in a court at Ranchi. B owns no property within the local limits of the Ranchi court but holds substantial immovable property at Dhanbad. To execute the decree against that property, A should
afile a fresh suit before the Dhanbad court
bapply to the High Court for a writ of execution
capply to the Ranchi court to transfer the decree to the Dhanbad court for execution
dwait for B to move the property within Ranchi jurisdiction
Answer: C
Sections 39 and 40 of CPC permit the court which passed the decree, on the decree-holder's application, to transfer the decree for execution to another court within whose jurisdiction the judgment-debtor's property is situate.
The inherent power of a civil court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court is saved by
aSection 94 of CPC
bSection 153 of CPC
cSection 148 of CPC
dSection 151 of CPC
Answer: D
Section 151 declares that nothing in the Code shall be deemed to limit or otherwise affect the inherent power of the court to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court.
Under Section 96(4) of CPC, no appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties; and no appeal lies, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit cognizable by Courts of Small Causes when the value of the subject-matter does not exceed
aone lakh rupees
bten thousand rupees
ctwenty-five thousand rupees
dthree thousand rupees
Answer: B
Section 96(4) bars an appeal, except on a question of law, from a decree in a suit cognizable by Courts of Small Causes where the value of the subject-matter does not exceed ten thousand rupees.
Where any period is fixed or granted by the court for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, the court may, in its discretion, enlarge such period under Section 148 by a total period not exceeding
aninety days
bsixty days
cfifteen days
dthirty days
Answer: D
Section 148 CPC, as amended in 1999, permits the court to enlarge a period fixed by it for doing any act under the Code, but the total enlargement cannot exceed thirty days.
A defendant is required to present a written statement of his defence under Order VIII, Rule 1. If he fails to file it within thirty days, the court may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, allow him to file it on a day not later than
aone hundred twenty days from the date of service of summons
bninety days from the date of service of summons
cone hundred fifty days from the date of service of summons
dsixty days from the date of service of summons
Answer: B
Under the proviso to Order VIII, Rule 1, where the written statement is not filed within 30 days, the court may permit filing on a later day, but not beyond 90 days from the date of service of summons.
Five or more persons acting in concert commit the murder of a man on the ground of his caste. Under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is this group murder (commonly called 'mob lynching') punishable?
aSection 103(2)
bSection 117(4)
cSection 302
dSection 111
Answer: A
Section 103(2) of the BNS specifically punishes murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, with death or life imprisonment and fine.
Z, while travelling on a crowded street, suddenly seizes a gold chain from W's neck and runs away with it. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this newly created offence of 'snatching' is dealt with under—
aSection 378
bSection 304
cSection 303
dSection 309
Answer: B
Snatching is a distinct offence introduced by Section 304 of the BNS, where theft is committed by suddenly or quickly or forcibly seizing or grabbing movable property. The IPC had no separate snatching offence.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, robbery becomes dacoity when committed conjointly by—
afour or more persons
btwo or more persons
cfive or more persons
dthree or more persons
Answer: C
Section 310(1) of the BNS provides that when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery, the offence is dacoity. This retains the IPC threshold of five.
The offence of 'organised crime', newly introduced into substantive criminal law, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 113
bSection 152
cSection 112
dSection 111
Answer: D
Section 111 of the BNS introduces 'organised crime' (continuing unlawful activity by a crime syndicate, e.g. kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, cyber-crime), an offence not present in the IPC.
Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines the offence of 'terrorist act', a provision drawn from the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967?
aSection 113
bSection 124A
cSection 121
dSection 111
Answer: A
Section 113 of the BNS defines 'terrorist act' — acts intended to threaten the unity, integrity, sovereignty, security or economic security of India, or to strike terror in the people. This is a fresh inclusion in the general penal code.
The offence that replaced 'sedition' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, namely acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, is contained in—
aSection 150
bSection 113
cSection 152
dSection 124A
Answer: C
Section 152 of the BNS penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (inciting secession, armed rebellion or subversive activities), punishable with life imprisonment or up to seven years and fine. The IPC offence of sedition (Section 124A) has been omitted.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'culpable homicide not amounting to murder' is made punishable under—
aSection 105
bSection 100
cSection 304
dSection 103
Answer: A
Section 100 of the BNS defines culpable homicide, and Section 105 prescribes the punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder, corresponding to the old Section 304 IPC.
A is attacked in such a manner as to give him reasonable apprehension that grievous hurt will otherwise be the consequence of the assault, and he causes the death of the assailant. Under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is his right of private defence of the body extended to causing death?
aSection 100
bSection 38
cSection 34
dSection 96
Answer: B
Section 38 of the BNS enumerates the assaults (including those causing reasonable apprehension of death, grievous hurt, rape, acid attack, kidnapping or wrongful confinement) in which the right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death. It corresponds to the old Section 100 IPC.
Inducing a person, by putting him in fear of injury, dishonestly to deliver property amounts, under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, to the offence of extortion defined in—
aSection 308
bSection 383
cSection 303
dSection 316
Answer: A
Section 308 of the BNS defines and punishes extortion — dishonestly inducing delivery of property by putting a person in fear of injury. This replaces Section 383 of the IPC.
P, a debtor, in order to compel a revenue official to refrain from attaching his property in lawful execution, attempts to take his own life in the official's presence. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which section penalises an attempt to commit suicide to compel or restrain the exercise of lawful power by a public servant?
aSection 224
bSection 115
cSection 309
dSection 226
Answer: D
Section 226 of the BNS punishes an attempt to commit suicide with intent to compel or restrain any public servant from discharging his official duty, with simple imprisonment up to one year, fine, community service, or a combination.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'defamation' is dealt with under—
aSection 499
bSection 354
cSection 500
dSection 356
Answer: D
Section 356 of the BNS defines defamation and prescribes its punishment (simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both, or community service), corresponding to Sections 499 and 500 of the IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery, the offence committed is dacoity. This is provided under
aSection 313
bSection 310
cSection 309
dSection 311
Answer: B
Section 310 BNS defines dacoity, retaining the requirement that the total number of persons conjointly committing or attempting the robbery, including those present and aiding, must amount to five or more. Robbery is the lesser offence under Section 309.
A snatches a mobile phone from B's hand by suddenly and forcibly seizing it and runs away. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the specific offence of 'snatching' has been newly carved out and is punishable under
aSection 303
bSection 304
cSection 305
dSection 309
Answer: B
Section 304 BNS newly defines and punishes snatching as a form of theft where the offender suddenly, quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property; the basic offence of theft is in Section 303.
An agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, under Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is
avalid
bvoid only if the restraint is total
cvoid to that extent
dvoidable at the option of the party restrained
Answer: C
Section 26 declares that every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void. The restraint may be partial or total; in either case the agreement is void.
A sells the goodwill of his business to B and agrees with B that he will not carry on a similar business within specified local limits so long as B carries on a like business there. The agreement is
avalid, being the statutory exception to Section 27, provided the limits appear reasonable to the court
bvoid because no time limit is fixed
cwholly void as it is in restraint of trade
dvoidable at the option of A
Answer: A
The exception to Section 27 permits a seller of goodwill to agree not to carry on a similar business within specified local limits, so long as the buyer carries on a like business there, provided the limits appear reasonable to the court.
An agreement which restricts a party absolutely from enforcing his rights under a contract by the usual legal proceedings in ordinary tribunals is governed by
aSection 28 and is void to that extent
bSection 27 and is voidable
cSection 26 and is valid
dSection 25 and is fully enforceable
Answer: A
Section 28 declares void every agreement which absolutely restricts a party from enforcing his rights through ordinary legal proceedings or which limits the time within which he may enforce them.
A agrees to pay B Rs. 1,000 if B's house is destroyed by fire, B paying A a premium. This agreement is
avoid as opposed to public policy under Section 23
bvoid for uncertainty under Section 29
ca wagering agreement and void under Section 30
da contingent contract and valid under Sections 31 to 36
Answer: D
An agreement of insurance against a real risk (destruction of B's house by fire) is a contingent contract under Sections 31 to 36, not a wager, because B has an insurable interest and the event is not within the control of the parties.
A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, this agreement is
avalid if A is paid in advance
bvoid for want of consideration under Section 25
cvoidable at the option of B
dvoid, being an agreement to do an act impossible in itself under Section 56
Answer: D
Section 56 provides that an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void; the illustration of discovering treasure by magic is the standard example of initial impossibility.
When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, a person who has received any advantage under it is, under Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, bound to
aretain the advantage without any obligation
bforfeit the advantage to the State
crestore it, or to make compensation for it, to the person from whom he received it
dpay double the value as penalty
Answer: C
Section 65 imposes a quasi-contractual obligation: any person who has received an advantage under an agreement discovered to be void, or a contract that becomes void, must restore it or compensate the person from whom he received it.
Under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract is NOT to be given for
aany remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach
bloss which the parties knew, when they made the contract, to be likely to result from the breach
closs arising naturally in the usual course of things from the breach
dloss caused by failure to discharge an obligation resembling a contractual one
Answer: A
Section 73 expressly provides that compensation is not to be given for any remote or indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach, codifying the rule in Hadley v. Baxendale.
Where a contract names a sum to be paid in case of breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 entitles the aggrieved party to
areasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named, whether or not actual damage is proved to have been caused
bonly the actual loss proved, the named sum being wholly disregarded
cthe entire named sum as a matter of right whether or not actual loss is proved
ddouble the named sum where the breach is wilful
Answer: A
Section 74 entitles the party complaining of breach to reasonable compensation not exceeding the sum named (or penalty stipulated), irrespective of proof of actual damage; it does not award the named sum automatically.
A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is defined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as a contract of
aindemnity under Section 124
bpledge under Section 172
cbailment under Section 148
dguarantee under Section 126
Answer: A
Section 124 defines a contract of indemnity as a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor himself or of any other person.
The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is, under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, called
aa lien
ba hypothecation
ca pledge
dan indemnity
Answer: C
Section 172 defines a pledge as the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise; the bailor is the pawnor and the bailee the pawnee.
In the absence of any contract to that effect, an agent, under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, cannot personally enforce or be bound by contracts made on behalf of his principal. A contract to the contrary is, however, presumed where
athe agent acts gratuitously
bthe agent does not disclose the name of his principal
cthe principal is a minor
dthe agency is created by ratification
Answer: B
Section 230 presumes a contract that the agent is personally bound in three cases, including where the agent does not disclose the name of his principal, where the principal cannot be sued, and where goods are bought/sold for a foreign merchant.
In Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co., the court held that the advertisement promising a reward to anyone contracting influenza after using the smoke ball as directed constituted
aa mere invitation to offer, incapable of acceptance
ban agreement void for uncertainty of terms
ca wagering agreement and hence void
da general offer which ripened into a contract on performance of the conditions
Answer: D
Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. is the leading authority that an offer made to the public at large (a general offer) becomes a binding contract when a person fulfils its conditions; notification of acceptance is not required for such offers.
A promises, in writing and signed by him, to pay B a sum of Rs. 5,000 which is barred by the law of limitation. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, this promise is
avoidable at the option of A
bvoid as opposed to public policy
cvoid for want of fresh consideration
da valid contract under the exception in Section 25(3), being a written, signed promise to pay a time-barred debt
Answer: D
Section 25(3) makes a promise to pay wholly or in part a debt barred by the law of limitation a valid contract, provided it is in writing and signed by the person to be charged, despite the absence of fresh consideration.
A promises, in writing and registered, to give his younger brother Rs. 1,000 out of natural love and affection. No consideration moves from the brother. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the agreement is
avalid only if the brother accepts within a reasonable time
bvoidable at the option of the promisor
cvoid for want of consideration
dvalid and enforceable as an exception under Section 25
Answer: D
Section 25(1) provides that an agreement made without consideration is valid if it is in writing, registered, and made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other. All three conditions being satisfied, the promise is enforceable.
D, a minor, mortgages his house to secure a loan and later seeks to avoid the mortgage. On the authority of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, an agreement entered into by a minor is
avoidable at the option of the minor
bvalid but unenforceable against the minor
cvalid if the minor has misrepresented his age
dvoid ab initio
Answer: D
In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), the Privy Council held that since a minor is not competent to contract under Section 11, an agreement by a minor is void ab initio (void from the very beginning), not merely voidable.
A contracts to deliver goods to B on a fixed date. Before performance, the supply of those goods is rendered unlawful by a government notification which the promisor could not prevent. Under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the contract
ais merely suspended until the notification is withdrawn
bis voidable at the option of B alone
cremains binding and A must pay damages for non-delivery
dbecomes void when the act becomes unlawful
Answer: D
The second paragraph of Section 56 provides that a contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible or, by reason of some event the promisor could not prevent, unlawful, becomes void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a confession made by an accused person while in the custody of a police officer is generally inadmissible. Such confession is barred from being proved against the accused by virtue of
aSection 23(1), confession in police custody limb
bSection 23(1), confession to a police officer limb
cSection 23(2)
dSection 22
Answer: C
Section 23(2) of the BSA bars proof of a confession made by any person while in police custody unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. (Section 23(1) separately bars a confession made to a police officer; the custodial-confession bar, old IEA s.26, is in s.23(2).)
A is accused of culpable homicide and pleads the right of private defence. Under Section 108 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within a General Exception of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita lies
aupon the prosecution throughout
bupon neither party, as the court must investigate suo motu
cupon the accused, and the court shall presume the absence of such circumstances
dupon the accused only if the prosecution first leads evidence negativing the exception
Answer: C
Section 108 of the BSA places the burden of proving that the case falls within a General Exception, special exception or proviso upon the accused, and the court shall presume the absence of such circumstances.
Where a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused person in the custody of a police officer, so much of such information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) this rule is contained in
aSection 22
bSection 23(1)
cSection 23(2)
dSection 24
Answer: C
The discovery-of-fact rule is contained in the proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA; it permits proof of so much of the information, whether or not it amounts to a confession, as relates distinctly to the fact discovered in consequence of it.
In Pakala Narayana Swami v. King Emperor, AIR 1939 PC 47, the Privy Council interpreted the expression 'circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death', a concept now carried into Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA). The Court held that the statement of the deceased was
ainadmissible, as it was not made under expectation of death
badmissible only as a confession of the accused
cadmissible as a dying declaration relating to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death
dinadmissible, as a dying declaration must always be made to a Magistrate
Answer: C
Under Section 26(a) of the BSA, a statement as to the cause of death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in death is relevant, and need not be made under expectation of death; the declarant's statement was held admissible.
When the court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, of science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant facts. Such persons are described in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) as
acompetent witnesses under Section 124
baccomplices under Section 138
cinterested witnesses under Section 55
dexperts under Section 39
Answer: D
Section 39 of the BSA makes relevant the opinions of persons specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, handwriting or finger impressions; such persons are called experts.
Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. The rule of prudence treating an accomplice as unworthy of credit unless corroborated flows from
aSection 119, Illustration (a)
bSection 119, Illustration (b)
cSection 124
dSection 139
Answer: B
Section 138 of the BSA makes an accomplice a competent witness and provides that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. Read with it, Illustration (b) to Section 119 BSA allows the court to presume that an accomplice is unworthy of credit unless corroborated in material particulars.
In Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar, AIR 1966 SC 119, the accused himself lodged the First Information Report containing a confession of the murders. Applying the principle now in Section 23(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the Supreme Court held that
athe FIR was admissible as substantive evidence of the truth of its contents
bthe confessional FIR made to a police officer was inadmissible under Section 23(1), and a confession cannot be split into admissible and inadmissible parts
cthe entire FIR was admissible as it was voluntary
donly the portion identifying the accused was inadmissible
Answer: B
The Court held that a confessional FIR to a police officer is barred (the principle now in Section 23(1) of the BSA) and rejected severability of the confession; with only that inadmissible material, the conviction could not stand.
Section 142 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) defines the examination of a witness by the adverse party as
are-examination
bcross-examination
cleading examination
dexamination-in-chief
Answer: B
Under Section 142 of the BSA, examination by the party who calls the witness is examination-in-chief, examination by the adverse party is cross-examination, and any examination after cross-examination by the party who called him is re-examination.
A is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket. The burden of proving that he had a ticket is on A, because the fact is especially within his knowledge. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) this principle is embodied in
aSection 104
bSection 106
cSection 119
dSection 109
Answer: D
Section 109 of the BSA provides that when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him; the railway-ticket example is its standard illustration.
Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the competency of a person to testify as a witness depends primarily upon whether the person
ahas been administered oath in the prescribed form
bhas attained the age of eighteen years
ccan understand the questions put and give rational answers to them
dis a party interested in the proceeding
Answer: C
Section 124 of the BSA makes all persons competent to testify unless prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers by tender years, extreme old age, disease of body or mind, or any other cause of the same kind.
Under Section 104 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), whoever desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts
amay call upon the opposite party to disprove them
bneed only establish a prima facie probability
cis presumed to have proved them unless rebutted
dmust prove that those facts exist
Answer: D
Section 104 of the BSA lays down the rule of burden of proof: the party who asserts facts on which his claimed right or liability depends must prove that those facts exist.
The facts which are the occasion, cause or effect of a fact in issue, or which constitute the state of things under which it happened, or which afforded an opportunity for its occurrence, are made relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) by
aSection 6
bSection 4
cSection 7
dSection 5
Answer: D
Section 5 of the BSA makes relevant facts that are the occasion, cause or effect of facts in issue, or which constitute the state of things or afford an opportunity for their occurrence or transaction.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), in civil cases, evidence of the fact that the character of any person concerned is such as to render probable or improbable any conduct imputed to him is, as a general rule,
aalways relevant
brelevant only to determine the amount of damages
cirrelevant
drelevant only with the consent of both parties
Answer: C
Section 46 of the BSA lays down that in civil cases the fact that the character of a party is such as to render probable or improbable any conduct imputed to him is generally irrelevant, except in so far as such character appears from facts otherwise relevant.
When a witness is cross-examined as to a previous statement made by him in writing relative to the matter in question, without the writing being shown to him, the procedure to be followed before the writing can be used to contradict him is, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), contained in
aSection 157
bSection 160
cSection 143
dSection 148
Answer: D
Section 148 of the BSA governs cross-examination as to previous statements in writing; if the writing is to be used to contradict the witness, his attention must, before the writing is proved, be called to those parts to be used for contradiction.
Oral evidence must, in all cases whatever, be direct. This requirement, that the witness who deposes to a fact must be one who himself saw, heard or perceived it, is laid down in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) in
aSection 54
bSection 55
cSection 56
dSection 58
Answer: B
Section 55 of the BSA requires oral evidence to be direct: a witness must depose to what he himself saw, heard, perceived or formed an opinion on, thereby excluding hearsay.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to 'Benevolent'
aCharitable
bGenerous
cMalevolent
dKind
Answer: C
'Benevolent' means well-meaning and kindly; its antonym is 'Malevolent', meaning wishing harm to others.
Q82General English
Select the correctly punctuated sentence.
aThe witness, who was nervous answered slowly.
bThe witness who was nervous, answered slowly.
cThe witness who was nervous answered, slowly.
dThe witness, who was nervous, answered slowly.
Answer: D
The non-restrictive relative clause 'who was nervous' must be set off by a pair of commas, as in option (c).
Q83General English
Change the following sentence into the passive voice : The court dismissed the appeal.
aThe appeal has dismissed by the court.
bThe appeal was being dismissed by the court.
cThe appeal was dismissed by the court.
dThe appeal is dismissed by the court.
Answer: C
The active sentence is in the simple past, so its passive form uses 'was' + past participle: 'The appeal was dismissed by the court.'
Q84General English
One word substitution : a remedy for all diseases or difficulties is called a
aantidote
bsedative
cpanacea
dplacebo
Answer: C
A 'panacea' is a supposed cure for all diseases or problems. An antidote counters a specific poison, while a placebo has no active effect.
Q85General English
Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition : The accused was charged ____ theft.
aof
bwith
con
dfor
Answer: B
The correct collocation is 'charged with' an offence; one is charged with theft, not 'charged of' or 'charged for' it.
Q86General English
The word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'Candid' is
aDeceitful
bFrank
cReserved
dCunning
Answer: B
'Candid' means open, honest and straightforward in expression, which is closest in meaning to 'frank'. 'Deceitful' and 'cunning' are antonyms.
Q87General English
One who is unable to read or write is called
aIlliterate
bIllicit
cIgnorant
dIllegible
Answer: A
The single word for a person who cannot read or write is 'illiterate'. 'Illegible' describes handwriting that cannot be read, not a person.
Q88General English
Choose the correct tense form of the following sentence: She has been working here since 2010.
aPresent perfect tense
bPresent perfect continuous tense
cPresent continuous tense
dPast perfect continuous tense
Answer: B
The structure 'has been + verb-ing' denoting an action continuing from a point in the past up to now is the present perfect continuous tense.
Q89General English
The meeting was put ____ because of the chairman's illness. Fill in the blank with the correct phrasal verb particle.
aup
bon
coff
ddown
Answer: C
'Put off' means to postpone or defer, which fits a meeting delayed due to illness. 'Put up', 'put on' and 'put down' carry different meanings.
Q90General English
The idiom 'to bury the hatchet' means
ato hide a weapon
bto dig a grave
cto make peace and end a quarrel
dto plan a secret attack
Answer: C
'To bury the hatchet' is an idiom meaning to settle a dispute and become friendly again; it has no literal connection to weapons.
Q91General Knowledge / Current Affairs
'Parakram Diwas' is observed on 23rd January every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of which national leader?
aSubhas Chandra Bose
bSardar Vallabhbhai Patel
cBhagat Singh
dBirsa Munda
Answer: A
The Government of India declared 23rd January as 'Parakram Diwas' to honour the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, born on 23 January 1897 at Cuttack.
The State of Jharkhand was created on 15 November 2000 on the birth anniversary of which tribal freedom fighter?
aSidho Murmu
bNilambar Pitambar
cBirsa Munda
dTilka Manjhi
Answer: C
Jharkhand was formed on 15 November 2000, the birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, the tribal leader of the Ulgulan (Munda Rebellion) against British rule.
Droupadi Murmu, who took office on 25 July 2022 as India's first tribal woman President and a former Governor of Jharkhand, continues to hold the office in 2026.
Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24th November 2025?
aJustice Sanjiv Khanna
bJustice D. Y. Chandrachud
cJustice Surya Kant
dJustice B. R. Gavai
Answer: C
Justice Surya Kant was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24th November 2025, succeeding Justice B. R. Gavai, and is due to remain in office until February 2027.
Venezuelan opposition leader María Corina Machado was awarded the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize for her work promoting democratic rights and a peaceful transition to democracy in Venezuela.
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