Haryana Judiciary Mock Test 5 — Questions & Solutions
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The power of the High Court to call for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where the subordinate court has exercised jurisdiction not vested in it or failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested, is contained in
aSection 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: B
Section 115 confers revisional jurisdiction on the High Court to correct jurisdictional errors of subordinate courts in cases where no appeal lies.
The inherent powers of a civil court saved by Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure are
ain addition to, and not in derogation of, the powers expressly conferred by the Code
bexercisable only with the prior sanction of the High Court
cavailable only in execution proceedings
dconferred for the first time by that section
Answer: A
Section 151 does not create new powers; it merely saves the court's pre-existing inherent power to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of process, in addition to express provisions.
A plaint is liable to be rejected under the Code of Civil Procedure under
aOrder VI, Rule 16
bOrder IX, Rule 8
cOrder VII, Rule 11
dOrder VIII, Rule 1
Answer: C
Order VII, Rule 11 enumerates the grounds for rejection of a plaint, such as no cause of action, undervaluation, insufficient court fee or being barred by law.
Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Civil Courts have jurisdiction to try
aAll suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
bOnly suits in which a right to property or to an office is contested
cAll suits whether of a civil or criminal nature unless barred by limitation
dOnly such suits of a civil nature as are expressly conferred upon them by a special statute
Answer: A
Section 9 CPC vests the civil courts with jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those whose cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred. The bar must be made out by the party asserting it.
Explanation IV to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, which embodies the principle of constructive res judicata, provides that any matter which
aWas actually decided in the former suit shall not be reagitated
bMight and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit shall be deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue
cWas abandoned by the plaintiff with the leave of the Court shall be deemed to be res judicata
dCould have been pleaded in a subsequent suit shall be barred in the former suit
Answer: B
Explanation IV to Section 11 codifies constructive res judicata: a matter that might and ought to have been raised as a ground of attack or defence in a former suit is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue, and cannot be reagitated.
Under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, the expression 'decree' does NOT include
aThe rejection of a plaint
bAny order of dismissal for default
cA determination of any question within Section 144
dA preliminary as well as a final adjudication
Answer: B
Section 2(2) expressly excludes from the definition of 'decree' any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order, and any order of dismissal for default, while including rejection of a plaint and determinations under Section 144.
Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit is to be instituted in the Court of
aThe highest grade competent to try it
bAny grade chosen by the plaintiff at his discretion
cThe lowest grade competent to try it
dThe District Judge having territorial jurisdiction
Answer: C
Section 15 lays down the rule of pecuniary jurisdiction that a suit must be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it, valuation being determined by the plaintiff's valuation in the plaint.
A decree passed by a Court which lacks pecuniary jurisdiction over the suit is, as held by the Supreme Court in Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan,
aVoidable only at the instance of the defendant
bMerely irregular and curable under Section 99
cA nullity and its invalidity can be set up even in execution or in collateral proceedings
dValid and binding until set aside in appeal
Answer: C
In Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan, AIR 1954 SC 340, it was held that a decree passed by a court without pecuniary (or subject-matter) jurisdiction is a nullity, and its invalidity may be set up whenever it is sought to be enforced, including in collateral proceedings.
Under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no suit shall be instituted against the Government until the expiration of
aTwo months next after notice in writing has been delivered
bThree months next after notice in writing has been delivered
cFifteen days next after notice in writing has been delivered
dOne month next after notice in writing has been delivered
Answer: A
Section 80(1) requires a written notice to be served and a suit against the Government or a public officer cannot be instituted until the expiration of two months after such notice; Section 80(2) permits a suit with leave of the court without notice in urgent cases.
Under Section 47 of the Code of Civil Procedure, all questions arising between the parties to the suit relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree shall be determined
aBy the High Court in exercise of its revisional jurisdiction
bBy the appellate Court alone
cBy a separate suit instituted for that purpose
dBy the Court executing the decree and not by a separate suit
Answer: D
Section 47 confers exclusive jurisdiction on the executing court to decide all questions relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree between the parties, and bars a separate suit for that purpose.
Under Section 96(3) of the Code of Civil Procedure, no appeal lies from
aA decree passed by the Court with the consent of the parties
bA preliminary decree
cAn ex parte decree
dA decree passed in a suit of small cause nature exceeding ten thousand rupees
Answer: A
Section 96(3) bars any appeal from a decree passed by the court with the consent of the parties (a consent or compromise decree), since the parties are bound by the terms they agreed upon.
Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, in a suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes where the value of the subject-matter does not exceed ten thousand rupees, an appeal from the decree lies
aOn a question of fact only
bOn both questions of law and fact
cOn a question of law only
dNot at all under any circumstances
Answer: C
Section 96(4) restricts appeals in small-cause-nature suits valued at not more than ten thousand rupees to questions of law only; no appeal lies on questions of fact.
Revisional jurisdiction under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure can be exercised by the High Court in a case decided by a subordinate Court in which no appeal lies, where the subordinate Court appears to have
aPassed an appealable order against the petitioner
bExercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity in the exercise of its jurisdiction
cErred on a pure question of fact
dDecided the suit on merits after a full trial
Answer: B
Section 115 permits revision only on the three jurisdictional grounds: where the subordinate court exercised jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity in exercise of its jurisdiction. Mere error of fact or law is not enough.
Under Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the defendant shall present a written statement of his defence within thirty days from the date of service of summons, and the Court may, for reasons recorded in writing, extend this period but not later than
aSixty days from the date of service of summons
bNinety days from the date of service of summons
cOne hundred and twenty days from the date of service of summons
dSix months from the date of institution of the suit
Answer: B
Order VIII Rule 1 (general provision) requires the written statement within thirty days; the court may extend the time for recorded reasons but not beyond ninety days from the date of service of summons.
Where a sole defendant dies and the right to sue survives, but no application to bring the legal representatives of the deceased on record is made within the time limited by law, the consequence under Order XXII, Rule 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure is that
aThe plaintiff must institute a fresh suit within thirty days
bThe suit continues against the surviving heirs automatically
cThe Court is bound to decree the suit ex parte
dThe suit abates as against the deceased defendant
Answer: D
Under Order XXII Rule 4, if no application for substitution of the legal representatives is made within the limitation period (90 days under Article 120 of the Limitation Act), the suit abates as against the deceased defendant.
The newly introduced offence of 'snatching' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is dealt with in;
aSection 304
bSection 379
cSection 305
dSection 303
Answer: A
Section 304 BNS creates the distinct offence of snatching, punishable with imprisonment up to three years and fine; there was no corresponding provision in the IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence commonly described as 'mob lynching' — murder by a group of five or more persons on grounds such as race, caste, sex or language — is punishable under;
aSection 103(2)
bSection 101
cSection 302
dSection 117
Answer: A
Section 103(2) BNS punishes murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth or language, with death or life imprisonment or a minimum term of seven years.
A new offence of sexual intercourse by employing deceitful means or by a false promise of marriage has been introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in;
aSection 63
bSection 69
cSection 375
dSection 64
Answer: B
Section 69 BNS makes deceitful sexual intercourse (including false promise of marriage or employment) punishable with imprisonment up to ten years and fine; there was no exact equivalent in the IPC.
Z gives grave and sudden provocation to A. A, intending to kill Z but by mistake kills Y, Z's child, who is standing nearby. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A is guilty of;
aMurder
bGrievous hurt only
cNo offence, as he acted under grave and sudden provocation
dCulpable homicide not amounting to murder
Answer: D
The benefit of grave and sudden provocation (Exception 1 to Section 101 BNS) extends even where the death of another is caused by mistake, so the offence is reduced from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
The general provision for punishment of attempts to commit offences for which no express provision is made, under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is;
aSection 62
bSection 511
cSection 59
dSection 61
Answer: A
Section 62 BNS is the residuary attempt provision, corresponding to Section 511 IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death where the offence is robbery. This is provided in;
aSection 100 IPC
bSection 38
cSection 41
dSection 103 IPC
Answer: B
Section 38 BNS specifies the offences (including robbery, house-breaking by night, mischief by fire on a dwelling, and theft/mischief/house-trespass causing apprehension of death) where private defence of property may extend to causing death; it replaces Section 103 IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where five or more persons assemble with a common object of committing dacoity, the offence of being one of an assembly for committing dacoity is punishable even at the stage of;
aAssembly/preparation
bAttempt only
cCompleted commission only
dMere intention
Answer: A
Section 310(4) BNS (assembling for the purpose of committing dacoity, corresponding to Section 402 IPC) punishes the mere assembly, so liability attaches at the preparatory stage.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, sedition as an offence has been;
aDecriminalised altogether with no replacement
bRetained verbatim as Section 124A
cRetained as Section 150 in identical terms
dOmitted, and replaced by an offence of acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India under Section 152
Answer: D
The colonial offence of sedition (Section 124A IPC) has been dropped; Section 152 BNS instead penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the substantive provision dealing with murder by a group of five or more persons on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief (commonly described as mob lynching) is contained in:
aSection 103(2)
bSection 117(4)
cSection 101(2)
dSection 111
Answer: A
Section 103(2) of the BNS introduces a distinct punishment for murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex or language, prescribing death or imprisonment for life or a term not less than seven years.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of murder is defined in which section, the punishment for which is provided separately in Section 103?
aSection 104
bSection 101
cSection 100
dSection 102
Answer: B
Section 101 of the BNS defines murder (corresponding to Section 300 IPC), while Section 103 prescribes the punishment for murder.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching'—where the offender suddenly, quickly or forcibly seizes, secures, grabs or takes away movable property—is, for the first time, made a distinct offence under:
aSection 303
bSection 311
cSection 309
dSection 304
Answer: D
Section 304 of the BNS creates the new offence of snatching, a form of theft involving sudden or forcible seizure, punishable with imprisonment up to three years and fine. It had no direct counterpart in the IPC.
The newly introduced offence of 'organised crime' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, finds place in:
aSection 109
bSection 112
cSection 111
dSection 113
Answer: C
Section 111 of the BNS introduces the offence of organised crime, covering continuing unlawful activity by crime syndicates such as kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, cyber-crime and trafficking. Section 112 covers petty organised crime.
Under Section 6 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the conduct of a party or his agent in reference to a suit or proceeding is relevant;
aOnly if such conduct precedes the fact in issue
bWhether such conduct is previous or subsequent to the fact in issue
cOnly if such conduct follows the fact in issue
dOnly if such conduct is contemporaneous with the fact in issue
Answer: B
Section 6 of the BSA expressly makes relevant the conduct of any party or agent, 'previous or subsequent', which influences or is influenced by any fact in issue or relevant fact.
A confession made by an accused person becomes irrelevant under Section 22 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) when it appears to have been caused by an inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from;
aA private complainant having no authority
bA person having authority over the accused
cA fellow accused person
dAny person whatsoever
Answer: B
Under Section 22 of the BSA a confession is irrelevant only if the inducement, threat, coercion or promise has reference to the charge and proceeds from a person in authority, giving the accused reasonable grounds to suppose an advantage or to avoid an evil.
Which one of the following is the correct position under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) regarding information received from a person accused while in custody of a police officer?
aThe whole of the information may be proved
bOnly the part amounting to a confession may be proved
cOnly so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved
dNo part of the information can ever be proved
Answer: C
Section 23(2) of the BSA is a proviso to the bar in Section 23(1); it allows only that portion of the information which relates distinctly to the fact discovered, whether or not it amounts to a confession, to be proved.
Section 26 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) makes statements of relevant facts by certain persons relevant. Which of the following persons is NOT covered by Section 26?
aA person who is dead
bA person who cannot be found
cA person who has become incapable of giving evidence
dA person who is merely unwilling to depose
Answer: D
Section 26 BSA covers persons who are dead, who cannot be found, who have become incapable of giving evidence, or whose attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expense; mere unwillingness to depose is not a ground.
Under Section 39 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the opinion of an expert is NOT relevant on a point of;
aIdentity of handwriting or finger impressions
bForeign law
cScience or art
dDomestic law of India
Answer: D
Section 39 BSA confines expert opinion to foreign law, science, art, and identity of handwriting or finger impressions; the domestic law of India is for the court itself to determine and is not a matter of expert opinion.
Under Section 92 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the court may presume that the signature and every other part of a document is genuine where the document is proved or purports to be at least;
aForty years old
bTwelve years old
cThirty years old
dTwenty years old
Answer: C
Section 92 BSA allows a presumption as to genuineness of execution and attestation where a document thirty years old is produced from proper custody.
Under Section 108 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), when a person accused of an offence pleads that his case falls within a General Exception of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the burden of proving the existence of those circumstances lies;
aOn the court suo motu
bOn the prosecution throughout
cOn the accused, and the court presumes the absence of such circumstances
dOn the complainant who set the law in motion
Answer: C
Section 108 BSA places the burden of proving a General Exception on the accused, and directs the court to presume the absence of such circumstances unless proved.
A child born during the continuance of a valid marriage, or within how many days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is conclusive proof of legitimacy under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?
aNinety days
bTwo hundred and seventy days
cTwo hundred and eighty days
dThree hundred days
Answer: C
Section 116 BSA treats birth during marriage, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution with the mother unmarried, as conclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access is shown.
The presumption that 'evidence which could be and is not produced would, if produced, be unfavourable to the person who withholds it' is contained in which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?
aSection 120
bIllustration (a) to Section 119
cIllustration (b) to Section 119
dIllustration (g) to Section 119
Answer: D
This adverse-inference presumption is set out in Illustration (g) to Section 119 BSA, which empowers the court to presume facts having regard to the common course of natural events and human conduct.
Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), which of the following statements regarding competency to testify is correct?
aOnly persons above eighteen years of age are competent
bAll persons are competent unless prevented from understanding questions or giving rational answers by tender years, extreme old age, disease or the like
cA convict is incompetent to testify
dA lunatic is never competent to testify
Answer: B
Section 124 BSA lays down a general rule of competency for all persons, the only bar being inability to understand questions or give rational answers due to tender years, extreme old age, disease of body or mind, or any other cause of the same kind.
With respect to an accomplice, the correct position under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) is that;
aAn accomplice is not a competent witness against the accused
bAn accomplice can testify only after obtaining a pardon
cAn accomplice is wholly incompetent and his testimony can never support a conviction
dAn accomplice is a competent witness, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon his corroborated testimony
Answer: D
Section 138 BSA declares an accomplice a competent witness and provides that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon his corroborated testimony, reinforced by Illustration (b) to Section 119 BSA which treats an accomplice as unworthy of credit unless corroborated in material particulars.
Under Section 142 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the examination of a witness by the adverse party is termed;
aExamination-in-chief
bCross-examination
cRecall examination
dRe-examination
Answer: B
Section 142 BSA defines examination-in-chief as examination by the party calling the witness, cross-examination as examination by the adverse party, and re-examination as examination subsequent to cross-examination by the party who called him.
No confession made to a police officer can be proved against a person accused of any offence. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), this bar is contained in;
aSection 22
bSection 24
cSection 23(1)
dSection 23(2)
Answer: C
Section 23(1) BSA absolutely bars proof of a confession made to a police officer against the accused; Section 23(2) deals with confessions in police custody and its proviso is the discovery rule (old IEA s.27).
A is charged with the murder of B. A claims he acted in private defence. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), who bears the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within the right of private defence?
aA, the accused, under Section 108
bThe prosecution, beyond reasonable doubt
cThe court must investigate it on its own
dThe informant who lodged the FIR
Answer: A
Private defence is a General Exception under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, so by Section 108 BSA the burden of proving its existence lies on the accused, and the court presumes its absence until proved.
An expert is called to depose on the genuineness of a disputed signature on a promissory note. His opinion is rendered relevant by which limb of Section 39 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?
aPoint of science
bPoint of art
cIdentity of handwriting
dPoint of foreign law
Answer: C
Section 39 BSA makes the opinion of a person specially skilled in identity of handwriting relevant; a disputed signature falls within the 'identity of handwriting' limb.
Under Section 223 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, before a Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence upon a complaint, the new procedural safeguard introduced is that;
aThe complaint must be verified by a notary
bNo cognizance shall be taken without giving the accused an opportunity of being heard
cCognizance can be taken only after framing of charge
dThe Magistrate must order a police investigation in every case
Answer: B
Section 223 BNSS, while retaining examination of the complainant and witnesses on oath, newly mandates that the accused be given an opportunity of being heard before the Magistrate takes cognizance on a complaint.
The Chapter dealing with plea bargaining in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 comprises;
aSections 289 to 300
bSections 265A to 265L
cSections 283 to 288
dSections 478 to 496
Answer: A
Plea bargaining is dealt with in Chapter XXIII of the BNSS, 2023, comprising Sections 289 to 300 (corresponding to the erstwhile Chapter XXIA, Sections 265A-265L CrPC).
Under the definition clause of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the expression 'victim' includes;
aAny member of the general public affected by the offence
bOnly the person who personally suffered the loss or injury
cThe person who suffered loss or injury and also his guardian or legal heir
dOnly the de facto complainant who lodged the FIR
Answer: C
Under the BNSS definition, 'victim' means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by the act or omission for which the accused has been charged, and includes the guardian or legal heir of such victim.
The Chapter of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 dealing with security for keeping the peace and for good behaviour (corresponding to the erstwhile Chapter VIII CrPC) comprises;
aSections 125 to 143
bSections 107 to 124
cSections 144 to 147
dSections 148 to 172
Answer: A
Chapter IX of the BNSS, 2023 (Sections 125 to 143) deals with security for keeping the peace and for good behaviour, corresponding to the old Chapter VIII (Sections 107-124) of the CrPC.
Under Section 35(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant or an order of a Magistrate where a cognizable offence is committed in his presence and is punishable with imprisonment for a term which is;
aLess than seven years or extending to seven years, with or without fine
bMore than seven years only
cDeath or imprisonment for life only
dLess than three years only
Answer: A
Section 35(1)(b) BNSS deals with the lower category of cognizable offences punishable with imprisonment less than seven years or up to seven years (corresponding to old Section 41 CrPC), arrest being subject to recorded satisfaction of necessity.
Under the proviso to Section 187(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, the total period of detention pending investigation beyond which the accused becomes entitled to default bail is;
aOne hundred and eighty days
bOne hundred and twenty days
cNinety days
dSixty days
Answer: C
Section 187(3) BNSS (corresponding to Section 167 CrPC) fixes ninety days for the graver category and sixty days for other offences, after which the accused is entitled to be released on bail on furnishing bond.
A noteworthy change introduced by Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, relating to police custody is that the fifteen days of police custody;
aMust be taken continuously within the first fifteen days of arrest
bHas been completely abolished
cCan extend up to thirty days at a stretch
dMay be sought in whole or in part at any time during the initial forty or sixty days of the period of detention
Answer: D
Section 187 BNSS retains the fifteen-day cap on police custody but permits it to be availed in parts spread over the first forty or sixty days, departing from the CBI v. Anupam J. Kulkarni rule.
Under Section 144 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following relatives is NOT entitled to claim maintenance from a person having sufficient means;
aA father or mother unable to maintain himself or herself
bA married daughter, who has attained majority and is able to maintain herself
cA legitimate or illegitimate minor child unable to maintain itself
dA wife unable to maintain herself
Answer: B
Section 144 BNSS (corresponding to Section 125 CrPC) covers wife, minor children, certain major children unable to maintain themselves due to abnormality, and parents; a major married daughter able to maintain herself is not entitled.
Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender (against whom no proceeding for any other offence is pending) shall be released on bond by the Court where he has undergone detention up to;
aTwo-thirds of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
bOne-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
cThe whole of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
dOne-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
Answer: D
Section 479(1) BNSS introduces a benefit for first-time offenders: release after detention of one-third of the maximum sentence, as against one-half for other undertrial prisoners.
Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether there exists a prima facie case (with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police) may be conducted, in cognizable offences punishable with imprisonment for;
aLess than one year
bSeven years or more
cThree years or more but less than seven years
dDeath or imprisonment for life
Answer: C
Section 173(3) BNSS permits a 14-day preliminary enquiry, with DSP-level approval, only for cognizable offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years.
Under Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may be given to an officer in charge of a police station;
aOnly at the police station within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed
bIrrespective of the area where the offence is committed (Zero FIR), and orally or by electronic communication
cOnly in writing and in person
dOnly after obtaining prior permission of the Magistrate
Answer: B
Section 173(1) BNSS statutorily recognises the Zero FIR and permits information to be given electronically, regardless of the territorial jurisdiction in which the offence took place.
Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, it is mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and collect forensic evidence in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for;
aSeven years or more
bTen years or more
cThree years or more
dOne year or more
Answer: A
Section 176(3) BNSS makes forensic investigation by a designated expert at the scene of crime mandatory for offences punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more.
Under Section 2(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a 'warrant-case' means a case relating to an offence punishable with;
aImprisonment for a term exceeding six months
bDeath, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
cImprisonment for a term exceeding one year
dImprisonment for a term exceeding three years
Answer: B
Under Section 2(1) BNSS a warrant-case is one punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment exceeding two years; every other case is a summons-case (the same threshold as old CrPC).
Under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Court shall NOT commence the trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender unless a period of how many days has lapsed from the date of framing of the charge;
aThirty days
bNinety days
cOne hundred and eighty days
dSixty days
Answer: B
Section 356 BNSS, a new provision for trial in absentia of proclaimed offenders, bars commencement of trial until ninety days have elapsed from the framing of charge.
That a writ petition dismissed on merits under Article 226 by a High Court operates as res judicata so as to bar a subsequent petition on the same matter under Article 32 was held in;
aBandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
bA.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
cRupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
dDaryao v. State of U.P.
Answer: D
In Daryao v. State of U.P., AIR 1961 SC 1457, the Supreme Court held that a petition dismissed on merits under Article 226 bars a fresh petition under Article 32 on the principle of res judicata.
The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact of public importance is the Court's advisory jurisdiction under;
aArticle 145
bArticle 143
cArticle 136
dArticle 131
Answer: B
Article 143 confers the advisory jurisdiction, under which the President may refer questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its opinion.
Under Article 16(4), the State may make any provision for reservation of appointments in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in its opinion, is not adequately represented in the services. The percentage ceiling of fifty percent on reservations was laid down in;
aState of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
bIndra Sawhney v. Union of India
cM.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore
dBoth (b) and (c)
Answer: D
The 50% ceiling on reservations was indicated in M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore (1963) and authoritatively settled by the nine-Judge Bench in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992).
Under Article 22, the protection against arrest and detention does NOT extend to a person who is;
aA foreigner lawfully residing in India
bAn enemy alien or a person detained under a law providing for preventive detention
cArrested for a non-bailable offence
dArrested without a warrant
Answer: B
Clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 do not apply to an enemy alien or to a person arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention, as expressly stated in Article 22(3).
When a Bill is certified by the Speaker of the House of the People to be a Money Bill, the Council of States may, after receiving it, retain it for a period not exceeding;
aSix months
bOne month
cFourteen days
dThree months
Answer: C
Under Article 109, the Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill with its recommendations within fourteen days; otherwise it is deemed passed in the form sent by the Lok Sabha.
If any question arises as to the age of a Judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with;
aThe Chief Justice of India
bThe Governor of the State
cThe Council of Ministers
dThe Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
Answer: A
The proviso to Article 217(3) provides that any question as to the age of a High Court Judge shall be decided by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, and his decision shall be final.
The definition of 'law' in Article 13 of the Constitution, for the purpose of testing inconsistency with Fundamental Rights, includes;
aOrdinances only
bStatutes only
cConstitutional amendments under Article 368
dAny Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having the force of law
Answer: D
Article 13(3)(a) gives 'law' an inclusive meaning covering ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs and usages having the force of law in India.
The right to free legal aid as a part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, ensuring legal services to an accused unable to engage a lawyer, was recognised by the Supreme Court in;
aSunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
bHussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
cKharak Singh v. State of U.P.
dManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: B
In Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979), the Supreme Court held that free legal aid to an indigent accused is an essential ingredient of 'reasonable, fair and just procedure' under Article 21.
Under Article 13 of the Constitution, the expression 'law' includes which of the following?
aOrdinance only
bJudicial precedents only
cStatutes passed by Parliament only
dOrder, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having the force of law
Answer: D
Article 13(3)(a) defines 'law' to include any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
Which one of the following is NOT a ground specified under Article 19(2) for imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression?
aContempt of court
bSovereignty and integrity of India
cDefamation
dPublic policy
Answer: D
Article 19(2) lists sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation and incitement to an offence. 'Public policy' is not among them.
Article 21A, which provides for free and compulsory education to children, was inserted into the Constitution by which Amendment?
aThe 44th Amendment, 1978
bThe 73rd Amendment, 1992
cThe 86th Amendment, 2002
dThe 42nd Amendment, 1976
Answer: C
The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A making the right to free and compulsory education for children of the age of six to fourteen years a fundamental right.
The writ of Quo Warranto can be issued by a court to:
aCommand a public authority to perform a public duty
bQuash an order passed without jurisdiction
cRelease a person from illegal detention
dInquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office
Answer: D
Quo Warranto literally means 'by what authority' and is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office; release from detention is habeas corpus and commanding a duty is mandamus.
Under Section 15(2)(a) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, property inherited by a female Hindu from her father or mother, where she dies intestate leaving no son or daughter (or children of any predeceased son or daughter), devolves upon;
aThe heirs of the husband
bThe general heirs in the order under Section 15(1)
cThe heirs of the mother
dThe heirs of the father
Answer: D
Section 15(2)(a) provides that such property, in the absence of issue, reverts to the heirs of the father rather than devolving in the general order of Section 15(1).
Under Section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the minimum age prescribed for a valid marriage is;
aEighteen years for both the bridegroom and the bride
bEighteen years for the bridegroom and sixteen years for the bride
cTwenty-one years for both the bridegroom and the bride
dTwenty-one years for the bridegroom and eighteen years for the bride
Answer: D
Section 5(iii) requires the bridegroom to have completed 21 years and the bride 18 years at the time of marriage. A breach does not by itself make the marriage void but is punishable under Section 18.
Where the rites of a Hindu marriage include the saptapadi, the marriage becomes complete and binding under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955;
aWhen the seventh step is taken before the sacred fire
bWhen the kanyadan is performed
cWhen the first step is taken before the sacred fire
dOn registration of the marriage
Answer: A
Section 7(2) provides that where saptapadi (the taking of seven steps jointly before the sacred fire) is included, the marriage is complete and binding on the taking of the seventh step.
On the father's (paternal) side, the limit of sapinda relationship under Section 3(f) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 extends to;
aThe third generation, the person concerned being counted as the first
bThe fourth generation, the person concerned being counted as the first
cThe seventh generation, the person concerned being counted as the first
dThe fifth generation, the person concerned being counted as the first
Answer: D
Section 3(f) fixes sapinda limits at the fifth generation (inclusive) on the line of ascent through the father and the third generation (inclusive) through the mother.
A petition for divorce by mutual consent under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 requires that the parties have been living separately for a period of;
aSix months or more before presenting the petition
bOne year or more before presenting the petition
cTwo years or more before presenting the petition
dThree years or more before presenting the petition
Answer: B
Section 13B(1) requires the spouses to have been living separately for one year or more and to be unable to live together before they can jointly seek divorce by mutual consent.
Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the motion for a decree of divorce by mutual consent must be made by both parties;
aNot earlier than one year and not later than two years after presentation of the petition
bAt any time after presentation of the petition
cNot earlier than three months and not later than one year after presentation of the petition
dNot earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months after presentation of the petition
Answer: D
Section 13B(2) requires the second motion to be made not earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months after the petition; the Supreme Court in Amardeep Singh v. Harveen Kaur held the six-month period is directory and may be waived.
Under Section 13(1A) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, either party may seek divorce where there has been no restitution of conjugal rights after the passing of such a decree for a period of;
aOne year or upwards
bEighteen months or upwards
cTwo years or upwards
dSix months or upwards
Answer: A
Section 13(1A)(ii) permits a divorce petition where there has been no restitution of conjugal rights for one year or upwards after the decree for restitution.
Non-consummation of marriage owing to the impotence of the respondent renders a Hindu marriage;
aVoid under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
bVoidable under Section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
cValid but liable to judicial separation only
dVoid ab initio without any decree
Answer: B
Section 12(1)(a) makes a marriage voidable where it has not been consummated owing to the impotence of the respondent; such a marriage subsists until annulled by a decree of nullity.
Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a male Hindu adopts a daughter, the adoptive father must be older than the girl to be adopted by at least;
aTwenty-five years
bTwenty-one years
cEighteen years
dFifteen years
Answer: B
Section 11(iii) requires that where the adoptive parent is male and the child a female, the adoptive father must be at least 21 years older than the person adopted.
Under Section 7 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a male Hindu having a wife living can take a child in adoption;
aOnly with the consent of his wife, unless she has renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu or been declared of unsound mind
bOnly after obtaining the consent of his eldest son
cOnly with the prior permission of the District Court
dWithout any consent, the right being absolute in the husband
Answer: A
Section 7 proviso requires the consent of the wife living at the time of adoption, dispensed with only where she has finally renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu or been judicially declared of unsound mind.
Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with;
aThe father
bThe paternal grandfather
cThe guardian appointed by the court
dThe mother
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 6(a) directs that the custody of a minor below five years shall ordinarily be with the mother, though the father remains the natural guardian.
A sum of money is to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If C receives Rs. 1,500 more than A, the total sum of money is
aRs. 4,000
bRs. 6,000
cRs. 7,500
dRs. 5,000
Answer: D
C's share minus A's share equals (5 - 2) = 3 parts = Rs. 1,500, so one part = Rs. 500; the total of 10 parts = Rs. 5,000.
Q88General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'EXONERATE'.
aIncriminate
bPardon
cAbsolve
dAcquit
Answer: A
'Exonerate' means to clear or free from blame; its antonym is 'incriminate', meaning to make someone appear guilty. Acquit, pardon and absolve are synonyms of exonerate.
Q89General Knowledge / Current Affairs
If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', then how is 'JUDGE' written in the same code?
aKVEHF
bKWEHF
cIVEHF
dKVFHF
Answer: A
Each letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet (C->D, O->P, etc.). Applying the same rule to JUDGE gives K, V, E, H, F = 'KVEHF'.
Q90General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Pointing to a photograph, a man said, 'She is the daughter of the only son of my father.' How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?
aNiece
bDaughter
cCousin
dSister
Answer: B
The only son of the man's father is the man himself; therefore the woman, being the daughter of that son, is the man's own daughter.
Q91General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Find the next term in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?
a40
b38
c36
d42
Answer: B
The successive differences are 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 (increasing odd numbers); adding 11 to 27 gives 38.
Q92General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Who, having earlier served as the Advocate General for Haryana, was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025?
aJustice Surya Kant
bJustice D.Y. Chandrachud
cJustice B.R. Gavai
dJustice Sanjiv Khanna
Answer: A
Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai; before his elevation to the Bench he had served as Advocate General for Haryana.
Nayab Singh Saini, the Chief Minister of Haryana, belongs to which political party?
aIndian National Congress
bBharatiya Janata Party
cIndian National Lok Dal
dJannayak Janta Party
Answer: B
Nayab Singh Saini, who first became Chief Minister of Haryana in March 2024 and continued after the 2024 Assembly elections, is a leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party.
The International Gita Mahotsav, an annual festival of national and international prominence, is celebrated on the banks of the Brahma Sarovar in which Haryana city?
aThanesar township of Ambala
bKarnal
cKurukshetra
dPanipat
Answer: C
The International Gita Mahotsav is held every year at Brahma Sarovar in Kurukshetra, the land associated with the recitation of the Bhagavad Gita; the 2025 edition ran from 15 November to 5 December.
In the absence of a contract to the contrary, an agent who enters into a contract on behalf of his principal CANNOT be held personally bound EXCEPT, inter alia, where;
aThe principal is fully disclosed and can be sued
bThe agent acts gratuitously
cThe contract is reduced to writing
dThe agent does not disclose the name of his principal
Answer: D
Section 230 presumes a contract to the contrary (making the agent personally bound) where, among other cases, the agent does not disclose the name of his principal.
Competency to contract under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act requires that the person;
aIs a citizen of India and has attained majority
bHas attained the age of majority only
cHas attained majority, is of sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject
dIs of sound mind only
Answer: C
Section 11 requires three things: majority according to the law to which the person is subject, soundness of mind, and not being disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.
A promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor is, under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act;
aA valid contract notwithstanding the absence of fresh consideration
bVoidable at the option of the promisor
cVoid for want of consideration
dEnforceable only if registered
Answer: A
The second exception to Section 25 makes a promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor a valid contract even though it is without consideration.
Where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is, under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act;
aValid but unenforceable
bVoidable at the option of the party prejudiced
cVoidable at the option of either party
dVoid
Answer: D
Section 20 declares that where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
An agreement the consideration or object of which is forbidden by law, or is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law, is, under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act;
aVoidable at the option of the innocent party
bEnforceable to the extent it is lawful
cUnlawful and the agreement is void
dValid if both parties consent
Answer: C
Under Section 23, where the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful, the consideration or object is unlawful and every agreement of which it forms part is void.
A contract of guarantee, as defined in Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, involves;
aAn indemnifier and an indemnity-holder
bTwo parties only, the creditor and the surety
cThree parties, namely the principal debtor, the creditor and the surety
dOnly the principal debtor and the creditor
Answer: C
Section 126 defines a contract of guarantee as a contract to perform the promise, or discharge the liability, of a third person in case of his default; the three parties are the person who gives the guarantee (surety), the person in respect of whose default it is given (principal debtor) and the person to whom it is given (creditor).
A and B receive a fixed monthly salary plus a share in the net profits of a business but have no right to a share in its surplus assets on winding up and take no part in carrying it on. Under Section 6 of the Partnership Act, the receipt of a share of profits;
aConclusively makes them partners
bMakes them partners only if the firm is registered
cAutomatically makes them partners by holding out
dIs not by itself conclusive evidence that they are partners
Answer: D
Section 6 provides that the sharing of profits is a relevant but not conclusive test of partnership; the real relation must be determined from all the circumstances, the dominant element being mutual agency.
Where no provision is made by contract between the partners for the duration or for the determination of their partnership, such partnership is known as;
aA partnership at will
bA partnership for a fixed term
cA particular partnership
dA limited partnership
Answer: A
Section 7 of the Partnership Act provides that where the contract makes no provision for the duration or determination of the partnership, it is a 'partnership at will'.
Under Section 54 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, an unpaid seller who has exercised his right of lien or stoppage in transit may resell the goods without giving notice of the resale to the buyer where the goods are;
aSold by description
bSold by sample
cFuture goods
dOf a perishable nature
Answer: D
Section 54(2) allows resale without notice where the goods are of a perishable nature; for non-perishable goods notice of the intention to resell must be given before the seller can recover the loss and retain the surplus.
Under Section 64 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, in a sale by auction where goods are put up for sale in lots, a sale of a lot is complete;
aWhen the auctioneer announces its completion by the fall of the hammer or in other customary manner
bWhen the buyer pays the full price
cWhen the reserved price is communicated
dWhen the goods are delivered to the highest bidder
Answer: A
Section 64(2) provides that a sale by auction is complete when the auctioneer announces its completion by the fall of the hammer or in any other customary manner, and until then any bidder may retract his bid.
Where goods are delivered to the buyer on approval or 'on sale or return', the property in the goods passes to the buyer, under Section 24 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, when he;
aSignifies his approval or acceptance, or does any act adopting the transaction, or retains the goods beyond the fixed or reasonable time without rejecting them
bResells the goods to a third person only
cTakes physical possession of the goods
dPays the agreed price in full
Answer: A
Section 24 provides that in 'sale or return' transactions property passes when the buyer signifies approval or does an act adopting the transaction, or fails to return the goods within the fixed time (or a reasonable time, if none is fixed).
Under the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for a suit to obtain any declaration for which no other period is provided (Article 58) is three years from;
aWhen the defendant denies the plaintiff's title
bThe date of the decree sought to be declared void
cWhen the right to sue first accrues
dWhen the plaintiff attains majority
Answer: C
Article 58 of the Schedule prescribes three years for a suit to obtain any other declaration, the period running from when the right to sue first accrues.
The residuary Article 137 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, governing any application for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere, prescribes a period of;
aSix years from when the right to apply accrues
bOne year from when the right to apply accrues
cTwelve years from when the right to apply accrues
dThree years from when the right to apply accrues
Answer: D
Article 137 is the residuary article for applications and prescribes three years from when the right to apply accrues, where no other period is specifically provided.
Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963 embodies the principle that;
aTime begins to run only after all disabilities have ceased
bA minor's disability suspends the running of time already commenced
cTime once it has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit can stop it
dTime begins to run afresh each time a new disability supervenes
Answer: C
Section 9 lays down that where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it, the only statutory exception being for an extension under Section 9's proviso relating to the right to sue accruing during disability.
Cancellation of a written instrument by the court is governed by which provision of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
aSection 34
bSection 27
cSection 31
dSection 26
Answer: C
Section 31 provides that a person against whom a written instrument is void or voidable, and who has reasonable apprehension of serious injury, may sue to have it adjudged void or voidable and ordered to be cancelled.
Under Section 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018), a person seeking specific performance of a contract must, with regard to readiness and willingness to perform the essential terms of the contract:
aNeither aver nor prove it
bProve it, though he need not specifically aver it in the pleadings in the earlier form
cOnly aver it but need not prove it
dEstablish it only if the defendant raises the plea
Answer: B
The 2018 amendment to Section 16(c) replaced the earlier 'aver and prove' formulation; the party must prove that he has performed or has always been ready and willing to perform the essential terms of the contract.
Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as substituted in 2018, lists contracts which cannot be specifically enforced. Which of the following is among them?
aA contract for the sale of immovable property of a unique character
bA contract the breach of which can be compensated only by specific relief
cA contract where a party has obtained substituted performance of the contract under Section 20
dA contract for the transfer of shares not freely available in the market
Answer: C
Substituted Section 14(a) provides that a contract cannot be specifically enforced where a party has obtained substituted performance of the contract in accordance with Section 20.
Under Sunni (Hanafi) law of inheritance, where after allotting the prescribed shares to the sharers a residue is left and there is no residuary heir, the surplus, by the doctrine of Radd (Return), goes to;
aEqually between the husband or wife and the distant kindred
bThe State by escheat
cThe sharers in proportion to their shares, excluding the husband or wife so long as another heir exists
dThe distant kindred to the exclusion of sharers
Answer: C
By the doctrine of Radd the residue returns to the sharers in proportion to their shares; the spouse (husband or wife) does not share in the return so long as any other heir exists.
In the customary law of the Punjab (applicable to the territory now forming Haryana), the Riwaj-i-am is best described as;
aA conclusive and irrebuttable statutory code of custom
bA private compilation having no evidentiary value
cA record of general custom prepared by a public officer, which is a strong piece of evidence of custom but rebuttable
dA central legislation governing agricultural tenancies
Answer: C
The Riwaj-i-am is a public record of general custom prepared by a revenue officer; it is admissible and strong evidence of custom but the presumption attaching to it is rebuttable, especially where it adversely affects females or absent classes.
Under the customary law of the Punjab, in a suit by a reversioner challenging an alienation by the holder of agricultural land, the restriction on a male proprietor's power of alienation under custom is generally confined to;
aSelf-acquired property only
bAncestral property only
cBoth ancestral and self-acquired property equally
dProperty gifted to charity
Answer: B
Under Punjab customary law the customary restrictions on alienation operate in respect of ancestral property; a holder generally has full power to alienate his self-acquired property, and entries in the customary law are taken to refer to ancestral property unless self-acquired property is expressly mentioned.
Under Section 28 of the Registration Act, 1908, a document affecting immovable property (such as a sale deed of land) must be presented for registration in the office of the Sub-Registrar within whose sub-district;
aThe executant ordinarily resides
bThe document was actually executed
cThe whole or some portion of the property to which the document relates is situate
dThe claimant under the document resides
Answer: C
Section 28 requires documents relating to immovable property to be presented in the office of the Sub-Registrar within whose sub-district the whole or some portion of the property is situate.
Under Section 20 of the Registration Act, 1908, the registering officer may in his discretion refuse to accept for registration a document containing any interlineation, blank, erasure or alteration unless the same is attested by;
aA notary public
bThe Sub-Registrar himself
cTwo independent witnesses
dThe persons executing the document with their signatures or initials
Answer: D
Under Section 20(1) the registering officer may refuse a document containing interlineations, blanks, erasures or alterations unless the persons executing the document attest such changes with their signatures or initials.
Under Section 15(6) of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, the revisional authority that may call for and examine the record to satisfy itself as to the legality or propriety of an order passed under the Act is;
aThe High Court
bThe Financial Commissioner
cThe District Judge
dThe State Government
Answer: A
Section 15(6) vests revisional power in the High Court, which may act on its own motion or on an application made within ninety days to examine the legality or propriety of an order or proceedings under the Act.
Where the Controller is satisfied that an application made by a landlord for eviction of a tenant is frivolous or vexatious, Section 13(7) of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 empowers him to direct the landlord to pay the tenant compensation not exceeding;
aRupees two thousand
bRupees two hundred
cRupees five hundred
dRupees one thousand
Answer: C
Section 13(7) authorises the Controller to award the tenant compensation not exceeding five hundred rupees, payable by the landlord, where the eviction application is found to be frivolous or vexatious.
Under the maxim 'Res ipsa loquitur', the effect in an action for negligence is that;
aNo claim for negligence can succeed without direct evidence
bThe defendant is automatically held vicariously liable
cThe plaintiff must always prove the specific act of negligence
dThe burden shifts to the defendant to disprove negligence as the accident speaks for itself
Answer: D
'Res ipsa loquitur' means 'the thing speaks for itself'. Where the accident is of a kind that ordinarily does not happen without negligence and the thing was under the defendant's control, the burden of explanation shifts to the defendant.
aTotal restraint of the liberty of a person without lawful justification
bA partial obstruction of one's path with an alternative route available
cMere apprehension of harm without any restraint
dPublication of a defamatory statement to a third person
Answer: A
False imprisonment is the total restraint of the liberty of a person, however short, without lawful justification. A mere partial obstruction with a reasonable means of escape is not enough (Bird v. Jones).
Under Section 24 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918, the Court of the District Judge shall be deemed to be the:
aCourt subordinate to the Court of the Senior Subordinate Judge
bDistrict Court or principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction in the district
cHighest court of appeal in the district
dCourt of exclusive revisional jurisdiction in the district
Answer: B
Section 24 declares that the Court of the District Judge shall be deemed to be the District Court or principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction in the district.
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