Haryana Judiciary Mock Test 10 — Questions & Solutions
Every question from this prelims mock with the correct answer and a detailed, source-backed solution. Free to read. Want the real exam feel — a timer, instant scoring, and a subject-wise weakness report? Take it as a test.
125
Questions
17
Subjects
+ solutions
Every question
Take this as a timed mock test — instant score + subject-wise analytics. First mock free, then ₹999/year for unlimited.
Where and in so far as a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, Section 144 of the CPC provides for
arestitution to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the reversed decree
ba fresh trial of the suit de novo
can automatic stay of all further proceedings
dreview of the appellate judgment
Answer: A
Section 144 embodies the doctrine of restitution, requiring the Court to place the parties, as far as possible, in the position they would have occupied but for the decree that was subsequently varied or reversed.
Under Order XXIII, Rule 3 of the CPC, a lawful agreement or compromise on which a suit may be adjusted must be
aoral and recorded by the Court
bin writing and signed by the parties
csigned only by the pleaders of the parties
din writing but need not be signed by the parties
Answer: B
Order XXIII, Rule 3 (as amended in 1976) requires that the compromise be a lawful agreement in writing and signed by the parties before the suit can be adjusted on that basis.
An application for amendment of pleadings under the proviso to Order VI, Rule 17 of the CPC, after the trial has commenced, shall be allowed only if the Court concludes that
athe amendment merely corrects a clerical error
bin spite of due diligence the party could not have raised the matter before the commencement of trial
cthe amendment introduces a wholly new cause of action
dthe opposite party consents in writing to the amendment
Answer: B
The proviso added in 2002 bars post-commencement amendments unless the Court is satisfied that, despite due diligence, the party could not have raised the matter before the trial began.
Under Order VII, Rule 11 of the CPC, a plaint shall be rejected where
athe suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
bthe defendant files an application for time
cthe plaintiff is unable to produce his witnesses
dthe written statement raises a counter-claim
Answer: A
Order VII, Rule 11(d) mandates rejection of the plaint where the suit appears from the averments in the plaint itself to be barred by any law (e.g., limitation), among other enumerated grounds.
The provision relating to lodging of a caveat, entitling the caveator to be served notice of any application for which the caveat is lodged, is contained in
aSection 153A of the CPC
bSection 148A of the CPC
cSection 148 of the CPC
dSection 151 of the CPC
Answer: B
Section 148A, inserted in 1976, governs caveats: a person apprehending an application against him may lodge a caveat and is then entitled to notice of such application before any order is made.
The doctrine of res sub judice, requiring the stay of a subsequently instituted suit, is contained in
aSection 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 12 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: A
Section 10 (stay of suit / res sub judice) bars trial of a suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties. Section 11 deals with res judicata.
A second appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure lies to the High Court only
aOn a pure question of fact
bIf the case involves a substantial question of law
cOn a mixed question of law and fact in every case
dAs a matter of unqualified right in every appellate decree
Answer: B
After the 1976 amendment, Section 100 permits a second appeal only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated.
Under the proviso to Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, where a defendant fails to file the written statement within thirty days of service of summons, in an ordinary (non-commercial) suit he may be permitted to file it not later than
a90 days from the date of service of summons
b60 days from the date of service of summons
c150 days from the date of service of summons
d120 days from the date of service of summons
Answer: A
In an ordinary suit, the outer limit under the proviso to Order VIII, Rule 1 is ninety days from service of summons. The 120-day forfeiture limit applies only to commercial suits under the Commercial Courts Act.
The right to lodge a caveat in a suit or proceeding is conferred by
aSection 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 148A of the Code of Civil Procedure
cOrder XLVIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 144A of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: B
Section 148A, inserted by the 1976 amendment, entitles a person apprehending an application against him to lodge a caveat so that he receives notice before any order is made.
Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, in a suit of the nature cognisable by Courts of Small Cause, no appeal lies (except on a question of law) where the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed
aThree thousand rupees
bTwenty-five thousand rupees
cFive thousand rupees
dTen thousand rupees
Answer: D
Section 96(4) bars an appeal, except on a question of law, from a decree in a small-cause-nature suit where the value of the subject-matter does not exceed ten thousand rupees.
All questions arising between the parties to the suit (or their representatives) and relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of a decree shall be determined by the Court executing the decree and not by a separate suit. This bar is contained in
aOrder XXI, Rule 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 47 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: B
Section 47 confers exclusive jurisdiction on the executing Court over all questions relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree, barring a separate suit on such matters.
Under Order I, Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court may order that the name of a party improperly joined be struck out, or that a necessary party be added,
aOnly on the application of the plaintiff
bOnly before the framing of issues
cOnly with the written consent of all parties
dAt any stage of the proceedings, with or without an application of either party
Answer: D
Order I, Rule 10(2) empowers the Court, at any stage and either upon or without application of a party, to strike out or add parties to enable it to effectually adjudicate the suit.
An application by a defendant to set aside an ex parte decree passed against him, on the ground that summons was not duly served or he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, lies under
aOrder IX, Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bOrder XXIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cOrder XLVII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dOrder IX, Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: D
Order IX, Rule 13 enables a defendant against whom an ex parte decree is passed to apply for setting it aside on proof of non-service of summons or sufficient cause for non-appearance. Rule 9 deals with restoration of a suit dismissed for plaintiff's default.
The grounds on which a plaint shall be rejected — such as where it does not disclose a cause of action or is undervalued and the defect is not cured — are enumerated in
aOrder VII, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bOrder VII, Rule 14 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cOrder VI, Rule 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dOrder VIII, Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: A
Order VII, Rule 11 lists the grounds for rejection of a plaint, including want of cause of action, undervaluation, insufficient stamp, and bar by law. A rejection under this rule is deemed a decree under Section 2(2).
A compromise or adjustment of a suit recorded under Order XXIII, Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure must be
aIn writing and signed by the parties (and proved to the satisfaction of the Court)
bIn writing but need not be lawful
cIn writing but need not be signed by the parties
dOral, provided it is recorded in the order sheet
Answer: A
After the 1976 amendment, Order XXIII, Rule 3 requires the lawful agreement or compromise to be in writing and signed by the parties before the Court records it and passes a decree in accordance with it.
The general power of the High Court or District Court to transfer or withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before a subordinate Court is contained in
aSection 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure
bSection 24 of the Code of Civil Procedure
cSection 39 of the Code of Civil Procedure
dSection 22 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Answer: B
Section 24 confers the general power of transfer and withdrawal on the High Court and the District Court. Section 25 empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases from one State to another; Section 39 deals with transfer of decrees for execution.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the term 'movable property' as defined in Section 2 includes property of every description, EXCEPT;
aAnimals and corporeal property
bDocuments of title
cMoney and valuable securities
dLand and things attached to the earth
Answer: D
Section 2 of the BNS defines 'movable property' to include property of every description except land and things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth.
The offence of criminal trespass and house-trespass under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is contained in Section;
aSection 137
bSection 441
cSection 329
dSection 447
Answer: C
Section 329 of the BNS deals with criminal trespass and house-trespass, with criminal trespass punishable by imprisonment up to three months or fine up to five thousand rupees, or both.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of dowry death is dealt with in which Section;
aSection 85
bSection 79
cSection 80
dSection 304B
Answer: C
Section 80 of the BNS deals with dowry death, corresponding to the former Section 304B IPC; cruelty by husband or relatives is dealt with in Section 85.
The general provision relating to 'abetment of a thing' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is contained in Section;
aSection 45
bSection 107
cSection 61
dSection 62
Answer: A
Section 45 of the BNS defines abetment of a thing; criminal conspiracy is in Section 61 and punishment for attempt in Section 62, all within Chapter IV.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching' — where the offender suddenly or quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property in order to commit theft — is dealt with in;
aSection 309
bSection 308
cSection 304
dSection 303
Answer: C
Snatching is a new, distinct offence introduced for the first time by Section 304 of the BNS, 2023; Section 303 defines theft generally and Section 309 covers robbery.
A mob of seven persons, acting in concert, beats Z to death on the ground of his caste. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, each member of the group is liable to be punished for 'mob lynching' under;
aSection 103(1)
bSection 101
cSection 103(2)
dSection 105
Answer: C
Section 103(2) of the BNS, 2023 newly punishes murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, prescribing death or life imprisonment for each member.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the substantive offence of 'organised crime' — committed by a person on behalf of a crime syndicate by use of violence, intimidation, coercion or other unlawful means to obtain pecuniary or other benefit — has, for the first time, been codified in;
aSection 109
bSection 113
cSection 112
dSection 111
Answer: D
Section 111 of the BNS, 2023 introduces 'organised crime' as a distinct offence; Section 112 deals with petty organised crime and Section 113 with terrorist act.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general punishment for murder is provided in;
aSection 102
bSection 105
cSection 103
dSection 101
Answer: C
Section 101 of the BNS defines murder, while Section 103 prescribes the punishment for murder (death or imprisonment for life and fine); Section 105 deals with culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
A child aged ten years, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct, picks up and carries away a neighbour's mobile phone. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the act is protected by the general exception contained in;
aSection 20
bSection 23
cSection 21
dSection 22
Answer: C
Section 21 of the BNS exempts an act of a child above seven and under twelve years who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding; Section 20 gives absolute immunity to a child under seven years.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'criminal conspiracy' is defined and dealt with in;
aSection 48
bSection 61
cSection 62
dSection 45
Answer: B
Section 61 of the BNS defines criminal conspiracy as an agreement of two or more persons to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means; Section 45 defines abetment of a thing.
Robbery is 'dacoity' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, only when the robbery is committed or attempted conjointly by;
afour or more persons
bthree or more persons
cfive or more persons
dtwo or more persons
Answer: C
Under Section 310 of the BNS, robbery becomes dacoity where five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt the robbery, counting those present and aiding — the same numerical threshold as under the erstwhile IPC.
A, intending to take dishonest possession of Z's wristwatch, intentionally puts Z in fear of instant hurt and thereby induces Z to hand over the watch then and there. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A has committed;
aSnatching under Section 304
bExtortion only under Section 308
cTheft under Section 303
dRobbery under Section 309
Answer: D
Where extortion is committed by putting the victim in fear of instant hurt in his presence and the property is delivered then and there, it amounts to robbery under Section 309 of the BNS.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'abetment of suicide of a child or person of unsound mind' is dealt with separately from the general abetment of suicide. The former is contained in;
aSection 106
bSection 109
cSection 108
dSection 107
Answer: D
Section 107 of the BNS punishes abetment of suicide of a child or a person of unsound mind, while Section 108 covers abetment of suicide generally.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death of the assailant, subject to the restrictions in Section 37, by virtue of;
aSection 44
bSection 35
cSection 34
dSection 38
Answer: D
Section 38 of the BNS enumerates the situations (such as assault reasonably causing apprehension of death or grievous hurt) in which the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death.
A police officer recovers a blood-stained knife from a field after the accused, while in police custody, says, "I will show you where I have hidden the weapon." Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), how much of this information is admissible in evidence?
aNothing, because it is a confession made in police custody
bThe entire statement, as it leads to recovery
cOnly the portion admitting guilt for the offence
dOnly so much of the information as distinctly relates to the fact thereby discovered
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA permits proof of only so much of the information received from a person in police custody as distinctly relates to the fact thereby discovered, not the inculpatory portion (Section 23 BSA consolidates the former Sections 25, 26 and 27 IEA).
Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a confession made to a police officer:
aMay be proved against the accused if made voluntarily
bShall not be proved as against a person accused of any offence
cMay be proved if corroborated by independent evidence
dMay be proved only if recorded in the case diary
Answer: B
Section 23(1) of the BSA imposes an absolute bar: no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence, irrespective of its voluntariness (corresponding to the former Section 25 IEA).
The statement of a deceased person as to the cause of his death, in a case in which the cause of his death comes into question, is made relevant by which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?
aSection 4
bSection 23
cSection 39
dSection 26(a)
Answer: D
Section 26(a) of the BSA makes relevant the statement of a person who is dead as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in death; this is the dying declaration, an exception to the hearsay rule (corresponding to the former Section 32(1) IEA).
A is being tried with B jointly for the same offence under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA). B makes a confession affecting himself and also implicating A. Regarding this confession against A, the court:
aIs bound to convict A on the strength of the confession
bMust wholly disregard the confession as against A
cMay take the confession into consideration as against A under Section 24
dMay use it only if A was present when it was made
Answer: C
Under Section 24 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 30 IEA), where persons are tried jointly for the same offence, a confession by one affecting himself and a co-accused may be taken into consideration against the co-accused; it is, however, weak evidence requiring corroboration.
A confession made by an accused person is irrelevant under Section 22 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) if it appears to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise. Which of the following is NOT one of the grounds expressly mentioned in Section 22?
aDeceit
bInducement
cPromise
dThreat
Answer: A
Section 22 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 24 IEA) renders a confession irrelevant when caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from a person in authority; deceit is not one of the grounds enumerated in Section 22.
When a person is accused of an offence, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within a General Exception of the Penal Code lies, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), on:
aThe accused, and the court shall presume the absence of such circumstances
bNeither party, as it is a question of law
cThe court, which must investigate suo motu
dThe prosecution, beyond reasonable doubt
Answer: A
Under Section 108 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 105 IEA), the burden of proving circumstances bringing the case within a General Exception lies on the accused, and the court shall presume the absence of such circumstances.
The presumption that a person has caused a dowry death, where it is shown that soon before her death the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with a demand for dowry, is contained in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) in:
aSection 117
bSection 116
cSection 119
dSection 118
Answer: A
Section 117 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 113B IEA) creates a mandatory ('shall presume') presumption as to dowry death where the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment for dowry soon before her death.
Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), which of the following is the correct legal position regarding the evidence of an accomplice?
aAn accomplice is a competent witness, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon his corroborated testimony
bAn accomplice is not a competent witness against an accused
cA conviction on accomplice evidence is illegal unless there is documentary corroboration
dAn accomplice can testify only after being granted a pardon
Answer: A
Section 138 of the BSA declares an accomplice a competent witness and, in its enacted text, provides that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice (this BSA wording departs from the repealed Section 133 IEA, which referred to uncorroborated testimony). Illustration (b) to Section 119 BSA likewise counsels corroboration.
Section 57 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) defines 'primary evidence' as:
aA certified copy of the document
bA photograph of the original document
cThe document itself produced for the inspection of the court
dOral accounts of the contents of the document
Answer: C
Section 57 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 62 IEA) defines primary evidence as the document itself produced for the inspection of the court; copies and photographs fall under secondary evidence under Section 58 BSA.
The general rule under Section 55 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) regarding oral evidence is that it:
aNeed not be direct where the witness is an expert
bMust in all cases be direct
cMay be hearsay if recorded on oath
dIs always inferior to documentary evidence
Answer: B
Section 55 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 60 IEA) lays down that oral evidence must in all cases be direct, i.e. the witness must have personally seen, heard or perceived the fact deposed to.
Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a person is NOT competent to testify if he is prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers by:
aRefusing to take an oath
bBeing a party interested in the suit
cTender years, extreme old age, or disease of body or mind
dBeing convicted of a criminal offence
Answer: C
Section 124 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 118 IEA) makes all persons competent to testify unless prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers by tender years, extreme old age, disease of body or mind, or any other cause of the same kind.
A witness is sought to be contradicted in cross-examination by a previous statement made by him in writing, without the writing being shown to him. Under Section 148 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), before the writing can be proved for contradiction:
aThe court's prior permission under Section 168 is required
bThe witness must be re-examined first
cThe opposite party must consent in writing
dHis attention must be called to those parts of it which are to be used to contradict him
Answer: D
Section 148 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 145 IEA) permits cross-examination as to a previous written statement without showing the writing, but if it is intended to contradict the witness by the writing, his attention must first be called to the relevant parts before the writing can be proved.
Under Section 142 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the examination of a witness by the adverse party is called:
aRe-examination
bExamination-in-chief
cCross-examination
dLeading examination
Answer: C
Section 142 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 137 IEA) defines cross-examination as the examination of a witness by the adverse party; examination by the party calling him is examination-in-chief, and the subsequent examination by that party is re-examination.
Under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the fact that a child was born during the continuance of a valid marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy unless:
aA blood-group test discloses a discrepancy
bThe husband denies paternity on oath
cThe child is born within 280 days of dissolution
dIt is shown that the parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when the child could have been begotten
Answer: D
Under Section 116 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 112 IEA), birth during a valid marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access between the parties at the time the child could have been begotten is established; non-access is the sole statutory exception.
The opinion of a person specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, or in questions of identity of handwriting or finger impressions, is made a relevant fact by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) in:
aSection 119
bSection 26
cSection 55
dSection 39
Answer: D
Section 39 of the BSA (corresponding to old Section 45 IEA) makes relevant the opinions of experts (persons specially skilled) upon points of foreign law, science, art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions.
Under the proviso to Section 173(3) of the BNSS, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists may be conducted, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, within;
aThirty days
bSeven days
cTwenty-one days
dFourteen days
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 173(3) BNSS permits a preliminary enquiry, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP, to be conducted within fourteen days for offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years.
Under Section 187(3) of the BNSS, 2023, the maximum period of detention during investigation beyond which an accused becomes entitled to default bail, in respect of an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, is;
aNinety days
bSeventy-five days
cOne hundred and twenty days
dSixty days
Answer: A
Section 187(3) BNSS (corresponding to old Section 167(2) CrPC) prescribes ninety days for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment for not less than ten years, and sixty days for other offences.
Order for maintenance of wives, children and parents, requiring a person of sufficient means to provide a monthly allowance to those unable to maintain themselves, is now contained in the BNSS, 2023 in;
aSection 144
bSection 133
cSection 152
dSection 125
Answer: A
Section 144 BNSS, 2023 corresponds to the old Section 125 CrPC and empowers a Magistrate to order maintenance to a neglected wife, child or parent unable to maintain themselves.
Under the proviso to Section 223(1) of the BNSS, 2023, a significant departure from the old Section 200 CrPC is that a Magistrate, before taking cognizance of an offence on a complaint, must;
aRefer the matter for police investigation in every case
bGive the accused an opportunity of being heard
cRecord the statement of the accused on oath
dObtain the sanction of the District Magistrate
Answer: B
The proviso to Section 223(1) BNSS introduces a new safeguard requiring that no cognizance of an offence be taken on a complaint without first giving the accused an opportunity of being heard.
The provision for inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender, which provides that the trial shall not commence until at least ninety days have elapsed from the date of framing of the charge, is contained in the BNSS, 2023 in;
aSection 364
bSection 84
cSection 356
dSection 299
Answer: C
Section 356 BNSS is a new provision permitting trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender and bars commencement of trial until ninety days have elapsed from the framing of the charge.
Under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023, a first-time offender (in respect of an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life) shall be released on bond if he has, during investigation, inquiry or trial, undergone detention extending up to;
aOne-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
bOne-fourth of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
cOne-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
dThe whole of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
Answer: A
Under the first proviso to Section 479(1) BNSS, a first-time offender is to be released on bond after detention extending up to one-third of the maximum sentence, whereas the general rule is one-half.
The power to grant anticipatory bail, that is, a direction for release on bail in the event of arrest, is conferred upon the High Court and the Court of Session under the BNSS, 2023 by;
aSection 438
bSection 528
cSection 482
dSection 480
Answer: C
Section 482 BNSS corresponds to old Section 438 CrPC and empowers the High Court and Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail; it omits the guiding factors that earlier appeared in Section 438.
The saving of the inherent powers of the High Court, to make orders necessary to give effect to any order under the Sanhita, to prevent abuse of the process of any Court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice, is now contained in the BNSS, 2023 in;
aSection 528
bSection 531
cSection 482
dSection 398
Answer: A
Section 528 BNSS is pari materia with the old Section 482 CrPC and preserves the inherent powers of the High Court to secure the ends of justice and prevent abuse of process.
Under Section 193(3) of the BNSS, 2023, on completion of the investigation, the report (charge-sheet) forwarded by the officer in charge of the police station is to be submitted to;
aThe Court of Session directly in every case
bThe Director of Prosecution for scrutiny
cThe Superintendent of Police for sanction
dA Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the offence
Answer: D
Section 193 BNSS (corresponding to old Section 173 CrPC) requires the police report on completion of investigation to be forwarded to a Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the offence on a police report.
Under Section 35(7) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall be arrested in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of;
aInspector of Police
bSuperintendent of Police
cDeputy Superintendent of Police
dSub-Divisional Magistrate
Answer: C
Section 35(7) BNSS bars arrest of a person who is infirm or above sixty years for an offence punishable with imprisonment less than three years without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
The statutory recognition of the 'Zero FIR' in Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is achieved through which expression in the provision;
a"in such form as the State Government may prescribe"
b"irrespective of the area where the offence is committed"
c"within the local jurisdiction of such police station"
d"on receipt of a complaint by a Magistrate"
Answer: B
Section 173(1) BNSS provides for registration of an FIR 'irrespective of the area where the offence is committed,' thereby codifying the Zero FIR by removing jurisdictional limitations on registration.
Under Section 144 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following statements regarding an order for maintenance of wives, children and parents is correct;
aA Magistrate of the second class may order maintenance subject to a statutory ceiling of ten thousand rupees per month
bOnly a Sessions Judge may order maintenance, and the allowance cannot exceed five hundred rupees per month
cA Magistrate of the first class may order maintenance, and no monetary ceiling is prescribed on the monthly allowance
dOnly an Executive Magistrate may order maintenance at a rate not exceeding three thousand rupees per month
Answer: C
Section 144 BNSS empowers a Magistrate of the first class to order a monthly allowance at such rate as he thinks fit; unlike the old proviso to Section 125 CrPC, no monetary ceiling on the amount is prescribed.
Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a person who has never been previously convicted of any offence (a first-time offender), and who is undergoing detention during investigation, inquiry or trial, shall be released on bond by the Court once he has undergone detention for a period extending up to;
aTwo-thirds of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
bOne-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
cOne-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
dOne-fourth of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
Answer: B
The first proviso to Section 479(1) BNSS provides that a first-time offender shall be released on bond once he has undergone detention up to one-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence (the general rule for others being one-half).
Under Section 187(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention beyond which an accused acquires the indefeasible right to default bail (the investigation being incomplete) is ninety days where the offence is punishable with;
aImprisonment for any term, irrespective of the gravity of the offence
bImprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years
cDeath, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years
dImprisonment of less than three years or with fine only
Answer: C
Under Section 187(3) BNSS the detention limit is ninety days where the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, and sixty days for any other offence; on default thereafter the accused is entitled to bail.
Under Article 143, when the President refers a question of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion, the Court;
aCan entertain the reference only with the prior consent of Parliament
bMay, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report its opinion to the President
cIs bound in every case to report its opinion to the President
dMust refer the question to a Constitution Bench before reporting
Answer: B
Under Article 143(1), the Supreme Court 'may' after such hearing as it thinks fit report its opinion to the President; the advisory jurisdiction is discretionary and the opinion is not binding.
Which of the following grounds for discrimination by the State is mentioned in Article 16 but NOT in Article 15;
aReligion
bRace
cPlace of birth
dDescent
Answer: D
Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth; Article 16(2) adds 'descent' and 'residence', so 'descent' appears only in Article 16.
Under Article 61 of the Constitution, a resolution to prefer a charge for impeachment of the President must be passed by a majority of;
aNot less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House
bA simple majority of the members present and voting
cThree-fourths of the total membership of the House
dNot less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
Answer: A
Article 61(3) requires the resolution preferring the charge to be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House, after at least fourteen days' notice signed by not less than one-fourth of the total members.
Under Article 110 of the Constitution, the decision whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not rests finally with;
aThe President of India
bThe Finance Minister of the Union
cThe Chairman of the Council of States
dThe Speaker of the House of the People
Answer: D
Article 110(3) provides that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.
Which one of the following correctly distinguishes the writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 from that of the Supreme Court under Article 32;
aArticle 226 writs run throughout the territory of India irrespective of cause of action
bArticle 226 is itself a fundamental right while Article 32 is not
cArticle 226 permits writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and also 'for any other purpose', making it wider than Article 32
dArticle 226 can be invoked only for enforcement of fundamental rights
Answer: C
Article 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', i.e. for enforcement of ordinary legal rights too; Article 32 is confined to fundamental rights, so the High Court's jurisdiction is wider in this respect.
Under Article 233 of the Constitution, a person not already in the service of the Union or of the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than;
aTen years
bFive years
cSeven years
dThree years
Answer: C
Article 233(2) provides that such a person must have been for not less than seven years an advocate or a pleader and be recommended by the High Court for appointment.
Where the President refers a matter for the opinion of the Supreme Court under Article 143(1), the Court;
aMay, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report its opinion or decline to do so
bIs bound in every case to report its opinion to the President
cMust decide the reference as if it were an appeal
dCan refer the matter back to Parliament for decision
Answer: A
Under Article 143(1) the Supreme Court has discretion to either report its opinion to the President or decline; only references under clause (2) relating to pre-Constitution instruments fall outside the proviso making an opinion obligatory.
In the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, the subjects 'Public order' and 'Police' fall within;
aThe residuary powers of Parliament
bThe Concurrent List (List III)
cThe Union List (List I)
dThe State List (List II)
Answer: D
Entries 1 ('Public order') and 2 ('Police') of the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule place these subjects within the legislative competence of the State Legislatures.
An Ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State under Article 213 shall cease to operate at the expiration of;
aSix months from the date of promulgation
bSix weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature
cFour weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature
dTwo months from the reassembly of the Legislature
Answer: B
Article 213(2)(a) provides that the Ordinance shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature, or earlier if a disapproving resolution is passed.
Under Article 124 of the Constitution, a Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of;
aSixty-two years
bSeventy years
cSixty years
dSixty-five years
Answer: D
Article 124(2) provides that every Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years; for High Court Judges under Article 217 the age is sixty-two years.
The doctrine of 'basic structure', limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, was propounded by the Supreme Court in;
aGolak Nath v. State of Punjab
bShankari Prasad v. Union of India
cKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
dMinerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
Answer: C
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-Judge Bench held by a 7:6 majority that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 does not extend to altering the basic structure of the Constitution.
Under Article 169 of the Constitution, Parliament may by law create or abolish a State Legislative Council only if the Legislative Assembly of the State first passes a resolution to that effect by which majority?
aA majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
bA majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the Assembly
cA simple majority of the members of the Assembly present and voting
dA majority of three-fourths of the members of the Assembly present and voting
Answer: A
Article 169(1) requires the Legislative Assembly to pass the resolution by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting; a law so made is not deemed an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a male adopts a female child, the adoptive father must be older than the child to be adopted by at least;
aFifteen years
bTwenty-four years
cTwenty-one years
dEighteen years
Answer: C
Section 11(iii) requires that where the adoption is of a child of the opposite sex, the adoptive father (or mother) must be at least twenty-one years older than the person to be adopted.
Under Section 8 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu female who is married may take a child in adoption;
aIf her marriage has been dissolved or her husband is dead, has renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu or been declared of unsound mind
bFreely, without any further condition
cOnly with the consent of her father-in-law
dOnly after obtaining permission of the District Court
Answer: A
Following the 2010 amendment, a married Hindu female of sound mind and majority may adopt; but the section originally permitted a married woman to adopt in her own right only where the marriage was dissolved or the husband was dead, had renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu, or was of unsound mind.
Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardian of an illegitimate minor boy is;
aThe father, and after him the mother
bThe maternal grandfather
cThe mother, and after her the father
dThe person appointed by the court
Answer: C
While for a legitimate minor boy or unmarried girl the natural guardian is the father and after him the mother, Section 6(b) provides that for an illegitimate boy or illegitimate unmarried girl the natural guardian is the mother and after her the father.
Children born of a marriage which is null and void are, under Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955;
aLegitimate only if the decree of nullity is not passed
bLegitimate and entitled to inherit from all relations of their parents
cAlways illegitimate and entitled to nothing
dLegitimate, but entitled to share only in the property of their parents
Answer: D
Section 16 deems children of void and voidable marriages to be legitimate, but Section 16(3) restricts their rights to the property of their parents alone and confers no right in the property of any other person.
In a Mitakshara coparcenary, interest in the coparcenary property is, as a general rule, acquired by a coparcener by virtue of;
aA registered partition deed
bInheritance from the last male holder
cMarriage into the family
dBirth in the family
Answer: D
Under the Mitakshara school every coparcener takes an interest in the joint family property by birth (the doctrine of survivorship), unlike inheritance which operates under the Dayabhaga school only on the death of the last holder.
After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, a daughter of a coparcener in a Mitakshara joint family:
aHas no coparcenary right but is entitled merely to maintenance out of the joint family property
bAcquires coparcenary rights only if she is unmarried on the date of commencement of the Amendment Act
cBecomes a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son, with the same rights and liabilities
dAcquires a right in coparcenary property only by way of a notional partition on her father's death
Answer: C
Substituted Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes the daughter of a coparcener a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son, with the same rights and liabilities; Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020) held this right is by birth and not contingent on the father being alive on 09.09.2005.
Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage between parties who are within the degrees of prohibited relationship is:
aMerely irregular and curable by subsequent cohabitation
bVoidable at the option of the wife only
cValid in all cases
dVoid, unless the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two
Answer: D
Section 5(iv) requires that the parties be not within the degrees of prohibited relationship unless the custom or usage governing each of them permits such a marriage; a marriage in contravention of this condition is void under Section 11.
Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a male Hindu adopts a female child, the adoptive father must be:
aAt least fifteen years older than the person to be adopted
bAt least eighteen years older than the person to be adopted
cAt least twenty-one years older than the person to be adopted
dOf any age, no difference being prescribed
Answer: C
Section 11(iii) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 requires that where the adoption is by a male and the person adopted is a female, the adoptive father must be at least twenty-one years older than the child.
Under Section 13-B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition for divorce by mutual consent shall be moved by both parties not earlier than six months and not later than:
aThree years after the date of presentation of the petition
bEighteen months after the date of presentation of the petition
cOne year after the date of presentation of the petition
dTwo years after the date of presentation of the petition
Answer: B
Section 13-B(2) requires the motion to be made not earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months after presentation of the petition; the six-month period, though directory, may be waived by the Supreme Court under Article 142.
Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardian of an illegitimate Hindu minor boy is:
aThe father, and after him, the mother
bThe mother, and after her, the father
cThe father alone, the mother having no guardianship right
dThe paternal grandfather
Answer: B
Under Section 6(b) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, in the case of an illegitimate boy or illegitimate unmarried girl, the natural guardian is the mother, and after her, the father (in contrast to a legitimate child, where the father is the first natural guardian).
Under the proviso to Section 12 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, what is the effect of an adoption on an estate which had already vested in another person before the adoption took place?
aThe adopted child shall not divest any person of any estate which vested in him or her before the adoption
bThe adopted child divests such person of the vested estate from the date of adoption
cThe adopted child divests such person only to the extent of one-half of the vested estate
dThe adopted child divests such person retrospectively from the date of death of the adoptive father
Answer: A
Clause (c) of the proviso to Section 12 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 expressly provides that the adopted child shall not divest any person of any estate which vested in him or her before the adoption, thereby abrogating the old 'doctrine of relation back' to that extent.
Who, as on June 2026, holds the office of Governor of Haryana, having been appointed by the President in July 2025?
aKaptan Singh Solanki
bBandaru Dattatreya
cProf. Ashim Kumar Ghosh
dSatyadeo Narain Arya
Answer: C
Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh was appointed the 19th Governor of Haryana on 21 July 2025, succeeding Bandaru Dattatreya. He assumed charge at Raj Bhavan, Chandigarh.
The State of Haryana came into existence as a separate State on 1 November 1966 by virtue of which enactment?
aThe Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
bThe States Reorganisation Act, 1956
cThe Haryana Formation Act, 1966
dThe North-Western States Act, 1966
Answer: A
The Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 bifurcated the erstwhile State of Punjab, carving out the predominantly Hindi-speaking areas into the new State of Haryana with effect from 1 November 1966.
Which city serves as the common capital of the States of Punjab and Haryana, while itself being a Union Territory belonging to neither State?
aPanchkula
bAmbala
cChandigarh
dKarnal
Answer: C
Chandigarh is a Union Territory that functions as the shared capital of both Punjab and Haryana, though it forms part of neither State. The Punjab and Haryana High Court is also seated there.
As on June 2026, who is the Chief Minister of Haryana, having taken oath afresh after the 2024 Vidhan Sabha elections?
aDushyant Chautala
bManohar Lal Khattar
cNayab Singh Saini
dBhupinder Singh Hooda
Answer: C
Nayab Singh Saini is the Chief Minister of Haryana; after the BJP's win in the October 2024 Assembly polls he was sworn in for a fresh term in October 2024.
India won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 by defeating which team in the final played at Dubai on 9 March 2025?
aEngland
bAustralia
cSouth Africa
dNew Zealand
Answer: D
India defeated New Zealand by four wickets in the Champions Trophy 2025 final at the Dubai International Cricket Stadium, claiming the title undefeated.
Sumit Antil of Sonipat, Haryana, who successfully defended his Paralympic gold at Paris 2024, competes in which athletics discipline?
aShot put (F35)
bJavelin throw (F64)
cHigh jump (T47)
dDiscus throw (F56)
Answer: B
Sumit Antil retained his men's javelin throw F64 gold at the Paris 2024 Paralympics with a Games-record throw of 70.59 m, becoming the first Indian man to defend a Paralympic title.
Which river, entering Haryana near Kalesar and flowing along its eastern boundary through Yamunanagar, Karnal, Panipat and Sonipat, is the principal perennial river of the State?
aYamuna
bSaraswati
cGhaggar
dMarkanda
Answer: A
The Yamuna forms Haryana's eastern boundary, entering near Kalesar and passing through Yamunanagar, Karnal, Panipat and Sonipat, and is the State's main perennial river for irrigation.
Hansi, which the Haryana Government notified in December 2025, was declared as the State's:
a22nd district
b24th district
c21st district
d23rd district
Answer: D
In December 2025 the Haryana Government announced that Hansi would be carved out as the State's 23rd district, with the formal notification to follow shortly.
The High Court having jurisdiction over the State of Haryana is the:
aHigh Court of Punjab and Haryana at Chandigarh
bHimachal Pradesh High Court at Shimla
cHaryana High Court at Panchkula
dDelhi High Court
Answer: A
Haryana is served by the common High Court of Punjab and Haryana, seated at Chandigarh, which also exercises jurisdiction over Punjab and the Union Territory of Chandigarh.
Where a contract contains a stipulation for a sum to be paid in case of breach, by way of penalty, Section 74 entitles the party complaining of breach to receive;
aReasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named
bThe entire sum named in the contract
cDouble the amount named
dOnly nominal damages
Answer: A
Section 74 provides that whether or not actual damage is proved, the aggrieved party is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding the sum named (or the penalty stipulated) in the contract.
A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person is;
aA contract of guarantee
bA contract of indemnity
cA quasi-contract
dA contract of bailment
Answer: B
Section 124 defines a contract of indemnity as a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor himself or of any other person.
A bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called;
aLien
bMortgage
cPledge
dHypothecation
Answer: C
Section 172 defines pledge (pawn) as the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise; the bailor is the pawnor and bailee the pawnee.
An agent's authority to do all such things as are necessary to protect his principal from loss in an emergency, exercising the diligence of a person of ordinary prudence, is termed;
aOstensible authority
bAuthority in an emergency
cExpress authority
dImplied authority
Answer: B
Section 189 confers on an agent authority, in an emergency, to do all such acts for protecting his principal from loss as would be done by a person of ordinary prudence in his own case under similar circumstances.
Where two or more persons make a joint promise, the promisee may, in the absence of express agreement to the contrary, compel performance from;
aAll the joint promisors jointly only
bAny one or more of such joint promisors
cOnly the promisor named first
dThe promisors only in proportion to their respective shares
Answer: B
Section 43 provides that when persons make a joint promise, the promisee may, absent a contrary agreement, compel any one or more of such joint promisors to perform the whole of the promise.
On dissolution, in settling the accounts of a firm under Section 48 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the assets of the firm shall be applied first in;
apaying to each partner rateably what is due to him on account of capital
bdividing the residue among the partners in their profit-sharing ratio
cpaying to each partner rateably what is due to him from the firm for advances as distinguished from capital
dpaying the debts of the firm to third parties
Answer: D
Section 48(b) provides that the assets are applied first in paying the debts of the firm to third parties, then in repaying partners' advances, then capital, and finally the residue is divided in the profit-sharing ratio.
Which of the following is correct regarding the effect of non-registration of a firm under Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
aNon-registration bars a suit for the recovery of any sum not exceeding one hundred rupees
bRegistration of a firm is compulsory at the time of its constitution
cAn unregistered firm cannot be wound up or have its property realised on dissolution
dA suit by an unregistered firm against a third party to enforce a right arising from a contract cannot be instituted
Answer: D
Section 69(2) bars a suit by or on behalf of an unregistered firm against a third party to enforce a right arising from a contract; however, Section 69(3) saves the right to sue for dissolution, accounts and realisation of the property of a dissolved firm.
Under Section 18 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a partner is, for the purpose of the business of the firm;
athe bailee of the firm's property
bthe agent of the firm
ca mere servant of the firm
dthe trustee of the firm
Answer: B
Section 18 declares that, subject to the provisions of the Act, a partner is the agent of the firm for the purposes of the business of the firm, reflecting the principle of mutual agency underlying partnership.
On the death of a partner, the surviving partners continue the firm's business with its property without any final settlement of accounts with the deceased partner's estate. In the absence of a contract to the contrary, under Section 37 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the estate of the deceased partner is entitled, at its option, to claim:
aA share of subsequent profits together with interest at 12 per cent per annum on his share
bSuch share of subsequent profits as is attributable to the use of his share of the property, OR interest at 6 per cent per annum on the amount of his share in the property
cOnly its share of the property of the firm with no claim to subsequent profits
dInterest at 9 per cent per annum on his share in the property of the firm
Answer: B
Section 37 entitles the outgoing partner or his estate, in the absence of a contrary contract, to elect between such share of subsequent profits as is attributable to the use of his share of the firm's property OR interest at six per cent per annum on the amount of his share in the property. The proviso bars further profits where a duly-exercised option to purchase his interest exists.
Under Section 50 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the right of stoppage in transit can be exercised by the unpaid seller who has parted with possession of the goods;
aWhenever any part of the price remains unpaid
bOnly when the goods are of a perishable nature
cOnly after giving notice of resale to the buyer
dOnly when the buyer becomes insolvent
Answer: D
Section 50 permits stoppage in transit only when the buyer becomes insolvent; the unpaid seller may resume possession while the goods are in transit and retain them until payment or tender.
Under Section 54 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, where the goods are not of a perishable nature, an unpaid seller who has exercised his right of lien or stoppage in transit may resell the goods after;
aResale without any notice, the contract standing automatically rescinded
bObtaining the leave of the court in every case
cGiving notice to the buyer of his intention to resell and the buyer failing to pay within a reasonable time
dThe expiry of three years from the date of the contract
Answer: C
Under Section 54, for non-perishable goods the unpaid seller must give notice of intention to resell; only if the buyer then fails to pay within a reasonable time may he resell and recover the loss.
At a sale by auction where the right to bid has NOT been notified to be subject to a right to bid on behalf of the seller, the seller secretly employs a person to bid on his behalf. Under Section 64 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, such a sale:
aIs voidable only at the option of the auctioneer
bMay be treated as fraudulent by the buyer
cIs valid, the seller being free to protect his interest
dIs void ab initio
Answer: B
Section 64(4) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides that where a sale is not notified to be subject to a right to bid on the seller's behalf, it is unlawful for the seller to bid or employ a person to bid, and any sale contravening this rule may be treated as fraudulent by the buyer.
Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for possession of immovable property based on title must be brought within twelve years, the limitation being reckoned from the date
athe possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff
bthe plaintiff first demanded possession from the defendant
cthe plaintiff acquired title to the property
dthe property was purchased by the defendant
Answer: A
For Article 65 the twelve-year period runs not from when the plaintiff's title arose but from when the defendant's possession became adverse to the plaintiff.
The period of limitation prescribed by Article 61(a) of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 for a suit by a mortgagor to redeem or recover possession of immovable property mortgaged is
a12 years
b60 years
c3 years
d30 years
Answer: D
Article 61(a) prescribes a period of thirty years for a suit by a mortgagor to redeem or recover possession of the mortgaged immovable property.
A suit for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 is governed by the residuary Article 113, which prescribes a period of
athree years from the date the right to sue accrues
btwelve years from the date the right to sue accrues
cone year from the date the right to sue accrues
dsix years from the date of the cause of action
Answer: A
Article 113 is the residuary article for suits and prescribes three years from the time when the right to sue accrues where no other article applies.
A person interested in a written contract, who has reasonable apprehension that the instrument, if left outstanding, may cause him serious injury, may sue to have it adjudged void or voidable and ordered to be delivered up and cancelled under;
aSection 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
bSection 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
cSection 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
dSection 27 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
Answer: B
Section 31 deals with cancellation of instruments where a written instrument is void or voidable and the plaintiff has reasonable apprehension of serious injury if it is left outstanding.
Under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it;
aonly by a summary application to the Collector
bonly within six months of dispossession
cwithout proving any title to the property
din the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: D
Section 5 provides that a person entitled to possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, i.e., on the basis of title.
Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when an aggrieved party seeks to avail 'substituted performance' of a contract under Section 20 (as inserted by the 2018 Amendment), what is the minimum period of notice he must give to the party in breach calling upon him to perform the contract?
aNot less than 30 days
bNot less than 60 days
cNot less than 90 days
dNot less than 15 days
Answer: A
Section 20(1) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (substituted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018) requires the aggrieved party, before availing substituted performance through a third party or his own agency, to give a notice in writing of not less than thirty days to the party in breach calling upon him to perform the contract within the time specified.
Under the Punjab Customary Law, as it applied to agricultural tribes, a male holder's power to alienate ancestral immovable property could be challenged by;
aFemale heirs alone
bOnly the State Government
cThe male agnatic reversioners within the prescribed degrees
dAny member of the public
Answer: C
Under Punjab Customary Law the male agnatic descendants (reversioners) within the prescribed degrees alone could contest an alienation of ancestral land by the male holder.
The Punjab Limitation (Custom) Act, 1920 applies to suits;
aGoverned wholly by Hindu Law
bBy reversioners contesting alienations invalid under Punjab Customary Law
cBy Muslims claiming dower
dFor recovery of bequests under a will
Answer: B
The Punjab Limitation (Custom) Act, 1920 applies exclusively to suits by reversioners contesting alienations invalid under Punjab Customary Law; it does not apply where parties are governed by Hindu Law.
Which of the following is a valid statement regarding a custom sought to be established as law in India?
aA custom is valid even if opposed to public policy
bA custom must be ancient, certain, reasonable and continuous, but need not date back to a fixed point of legal memory
cA custom prevails over an express statutory provision
dA custom must be shown to have existed since the year 1189 A.D. as in England
Answer: B
In India a valid custom must be ancient, certain, reasonable, continuous and not opposed to public policy or statute; the English rule of legal memory since 1189 A.D. does not apply.
Under Section 47 of the Registration Act, 1908, a registered document shall operate;
aFrom the time from which it would have commenced to operate if no registration had been required or made
bFrom the date the registering officer makes the endorsement under Section 60
cFrom the date it is admitted as evidence in court
dFrom the date of its registration
Answer: A
Section 47 provides that a registered document operates from the time it would have commenced to operate if no registration thereof had been required or made, and not from the time of its registration.
A non-testamentary instrument which purports to create, declare, assign, limit or extinguish a right, title or interest in immovable property is compulsorily registrable under Section 17 of the Registration Act, 1908 only where the value of such property is;
aRupees one hundred and upwards
bRupees fifty and upwards
cRupees five hundred and upwards
dRupees one thousand and upwards
Answer: A
Section 17(1)(b) makes registration compulsory for non-testamentary instruments creating, declaring, assigning, limiting or extinguishing any right, title or interest in immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards.
Under Section 13 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, a landlord may seek eviction of a tenant on the ground that the tenant has, without reasonable cause, ceased to occupy the building (situated other than at a hill station) for a continuous period of;
aSix months
bTwo months
cFour months
dTwelve months
Answer: C
Section 13(2) makes it a ground of eviction that, where the building is in a place other than a hill station, the tenant has ceased to occupy it for a continuous period of four months without reasonable cause.
Under Section 4 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, the fair rent fixed by the Controller on the application of the landlord or tenant shall be operative from;
aThe date of the application
bThe date of commencement of the tenancy
cThe first day of the month following the order
dThe date on which the Controller passes the order fixing fair rent
Answer: A
Section 4(1) expressly provides that the Controller shall fix the fair rent after such enquiry as he thinks fit, and such fair rent shall be operative from the date of application.
The maxim 'Ubi jus ibi remedium', which forms the foundational basis of the law of torts and was applied in Ashby v. White, means;
aThe thing speaks for itself
bWhere there is a right, there is a remedy
cAn act of the court shall prejudice no man
dNo man can be a judge in his own cause
Answer: B
'Ubi jus ibi remedium' means that where there is a right there is a remedy; in Ashby v. White (1703) a qualified voter wrongfully prevented from voting was held entitled to a remedy even though he suffered no actual pecuniary loss (injuria sine damno).
In an action for the tort of negligence, the maxim 'Res ipsa loquitur' operates to;
aBar the suit where the plaintiff has voluntarily assumed the risk
bShift the burden of proof to the plaintiff to establish absence of contributory negligence
cConvert the defendant's liability from fault-based to absolute liability
dRaise an inference of negligence against the defendant from the very nature of the accident, where the thing causing harm was under the defendant's control and the accident is such as ordinarily does not happen without negligence
Answer: D
'Res ipsa loquitur' means 'the thing speaks for itself'; where the cause of the accident is within the defendant's exclusive control and the occurrence is one which would not ordinarily happen without negligence, the maxim raises a presumption of negligence, shifting the evidential burden onto the defendant.
Under Section 44 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918 (revision), the High Court may interfere with a case decided by a subordinate Court on which of the following grounds?
aThat the subordinate Court awarded inadequate costs to the successful party
bThat the subordinate Court exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity in the exercise of its jurisdiction
cThat the subordinate Court misappreciated the credibility of witnesses
dThat the subordinate Court reached a finding of fact against the weight of the evidence
Answer: B
Section 44 confines the High Court's revisional power to the three jurisdictional errors: exercise of a jurisdiction not vested by law, failure to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acting illegally or with material irregularity in the exercise of jurisdiction.
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.
