Haryana Judiciary Mock Test 6 — Questions & Solutions
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Under Order XXXIX, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a temporary injunction may be granted where it is proved by affidavit or otherwise that
aAny property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by any party to the suit, or wrongfully sold in execution of a decree
bThe plaintiff has an unimpeachable title to the property in dispute
cThe suit has been valued at more than one lakh rupees
dThe defendant has failed to appear after service of summons
Answer: A
Order XXXIX Rule 1 empowers the court to grant a temporary injunction where the disputed property is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated, or where the defendant threatens to remove or dispose of his property to defraud creditors, or threatens to dispossess or injure the plaintiff.
Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Civil Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature
aonly where cognizance is expressly conferred by a statute
bexcepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
conly with the prior sanction of the High Court
din every case without any exception
Answer: B
Section 9 provides that Civil Courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those whose cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred.
A second appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies to the High Court only
aon a mixed question of law and fact
bon a substantial question of law
con a question of fact
don any ground the appellant chooses
Answer: B
Section 100, as amended in 1976, permits a second appeal only where the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated by the High Court.
The doctrine of res judicata is embodied in which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSection 10
bSection 13
cSection 11
dSection 12
Answer: C
Section 11 bars a Court from trying any suit or issue which has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties and finally decided by a competent Court.
Under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, before instituting a suit against the Government, notice must ordinarily be given of
afifteen days
bninety days
ctwo months
dthirty days
Answer: C
Section 80 requires a notice of two months to be served on the Government before instituting a suit against it or a public officer in respect of an act done in official capacity.
An application to set aside an ex parte decree against a defendant is governed by
aOrder IX Rule 9 of CPC
bOrder IX Rule 13 of CPC
cOrder XXIII Rule 1 of CPC
dOrder IX Rule 7 of CPC
Answer: B
Order IX Rule 13 allows a defendant to apply for setting aside an ex parte decree on showing that summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing.
Power of the Court to refer parties to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement or mediation, where elements of a settlement exist, is contained in
aSection 80 of CPC
bSection 151 of CPC
cSection 96 of CPC
dSection 89 of CPC
Answer: D
Section 89, inserted by the 1999 amendment and upheld in Salem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India, empowers the Court to refer disputes to ADR mechanisms.
Under the proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the outer limit within which a defendant may be permitted to file his written statement, recorded with reasons, is
aninety days from the date of service of summons
bthirty days from the date of service of summons
csixty days from the date of service of summons
done hundred twenty days from the date of service of summons
Answer: A
Order VIII Rule 1 requires the written statement within thirty days, extendable for reasons to be recorded but not later than ninety days from the date of service of summons.
The saving of the inherent powers of the Court to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of process is found in
aSection 148 of CPC
bSection 151 of CPC
cSection 152 of CPC
dSection 153 of CPC
Answer: B
Section 151 preserves the inherent powers of the Civil Court; such powers are in addition to, and not in derogation of, the express provisions of the Code.
The right to lodge a caveat in a suit or proceeding in which an application is expected to be made is conferred by
aSection 144 of CPC
bSection 148A of CPC
cSection 148 of CPC
dSection 149 of CPC
Answer: B
Section 148A entitles a person apprehending an application to lodge a caveat so that he receives notice before any order is passed on such application.
Restitution, that is, placing the parties in the position they would have occupied but for a decree which is later varied or reversed, is provided for in
aSection 144 of CPC
bSection 151 of CPC
cSection 114 of CPC
dSection 47 of CPC
Answer: A
Section 144 empowers the Court of first instance to grant restitution where a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, revision or other proceeding.
Permission to a plaintiff to withdraw a suit with liberty to file a fresh suit on the same subject-matter is governed by
aOrder XXIII Rule 3 of CPC
bOrder XXIII Rule 1 of CPC
cOrder XXII Rule 1 of CPC
dOrder IX Rule 8 of CPC
Answer: B
Order XXIII Rule 1 allows withdrawal of a suit, and the Court may grant liberty to institute a fresh suit where there is a formal defect or other sufficient ground.
Suits by indigent persons (paupers), allowing institution of a suit without payment of court-fee subject to leave of the Court, are dealt with under
aOrder XXXII of CPC
bOrder XXXIII of CPC
cOrder XXX of CPC
dOrder XXXVII of CPC
Answer: B
Order XXXIII permits an indigent person to institute a suit without paying the prescribed court-fee, subject to the Court being satisfied as to his indigency.
Under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where it appears to the Court that there exist elements of a settlement, it may refer the dispute for any of the modes specified therein. Which of the following is NOT one of the modes enumerated in Section 89?
aJudicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat
bPlea bargaining
cConciliation
dArbitration
Answer: B
Section 89 CPC (inserted by the Amendment Act, 1999) lists four modes: arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, and mediation. Plea bargaining is a criminal-law concept and finds no place in Section 89.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence which replaced sedition (Section 124A IPC) and penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is:
aSection 152
bSection 150
cSection 147
dSection 197
Answer: A
Section 152 of the BNS penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, replacing the offence of sedition; the word 'sedition' itself has been dropped from the new code.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of dowry death is dealt with under:
aSection 78
bSection 80
cSection 85
dSection 84
Answer: B
Section 80 of the BNS contains the offence of dowry death (corresponding to Section 304B IPC), punishable with imprisonment of not less than seven years which may extend to imprisonment for life.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, abetment of suicide is punishable under which section, with imprisonment that may extend to ten years and fine?
aSection 106
bSection 107
cSection 110
dSection 108
Answer: D
Section 108 of the BNS penalises abetment of suicide (corresponding to Section 306 IPC) with imprisonment up to ten years and fine.
Under Section 106(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, whoever causes death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide (other than by a registered medical practitioner in the course of a medical procedure) is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
aFive years
bTen years
cSeven years
dTwo years
Answer: C
Section 106(1) of the BNS enhanced the punishment for causing death by negligence from two years (under Section 304A IPC) to up to five years generally; however a separate higher term up to seven years applies in specified cases. The general maximum under the principal limb is seven years for rash/negligent acts, with a registered medical practitioner liable up to two years.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, criminal breach of trust is provided for under which section, the punishment having been enhanced to five years?
aSection 320
bSection 316
cSection 318
dSection 314
Answer: B
Section 316 of the BNS consolidates the provisions on criminal breach of trust (Sections 405–409 IPC); the general punishment was raised from three years to five years.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of cheating is contained in:
aSection 319
bSection 316
cSection 318
dSection 415
Answer: C
Section 318 of the BNS contains the offence of cheating (corresponding to Sections 415 and 417 IPC), while Section 319 deals with cheating by personation. The general punishment for cheating was raised to three years.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, dacoity is defined under Section 310, which requires that the offence be committed conjointly by:
aTwo or more persons
bThree or more persons
cFive or more persons
dFour or more persons
Answer: C
Section 310 of the BNS defines dacoity, which (like Section 391 IPC) requires that five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit robbery, counting also those present and aiding.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a newly inserted offence penalises sexual intercourse with a woman by 'deceitful means' or a false promise of marriage. This offence is found in:
aSection 69
bSection 70
cSection 67
dSection 68
Answer: A
Section 69 of the BNS is a new provision penalising sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means (including a false promise of marriage), punishable with imprisonment up to ten years and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, kidnapping (kidnapping from India and from lawful guardianship) is dealt with under:
aSection 135
bSection 139
cSection 137
dSection 141
Answer: C
Section 137 of the BNS deals with kidnapping, covering both kidnapping from India and kidnapping from lawful guardianship (corresponding to Sections 359–361 IPC), while Section 138 deals with abduction.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the substantive offence of murder is defined and made punishable, respectively, by which of the following sections?
aSection 101 defines murder and Section 103 prescribes the punishment
bSection 103 defines murder and Section 105 prescribes the punishment
cSection 100 defines murder and Section 101 prescribes the punishment
dSection 302 defines murder and Section 304 prescribes the punishment
Answer: A
In the BNS, culpable homicide amounting to murder is defined in Section 101 (corresponding to the old Section 300 IPC), while Section 103 prescribes the punishment of death or imprisonment for life.
Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, introduces a distinct provision for which of the following situations?
aMurder by a group of five or more persons on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief
bAttempt to murder by a life-convict
cMurder committed by a public servant
dMurder committed during the commission of dacoity
Answer: A
Section 103(2) BNS specifically criminalises murder (mob lynching) committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, with each member liable to death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment of not less than seven years.
Which of the following is a new form of punishment introduced for the first time in Indian criminal law under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aForfeiture of property
bSolitary confinement
cCommunity service
dRigorous imprisonment with hard labour
Answer: C
Section 4(f) BNS introduces community service as a punishment for the first time in Indian criminal law; the other punishments listed already existed under the IPC.
Under Section 310 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, robbery becomes 'dacoity' when conjointly committed or attempted by:
aTwo or more persons
bFive or more persons
cFour or more persons
dThree or more persons
Answer: B
Section 310 BNS (corresponding to old Section 391 IPC) provides that when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt a robbery, including persons present and aiding, the offence is dacoity.
The offence of 'snatching', introduced as a distinct offence for the first time under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is dealt with under:
aSection 303
bSection 309
cSection 318
dSection 304
Answer: D
Section 304 BNS creates the new offence of snatching, punishable with imprisonment up to three years and fine; it has no counterpart in the old IPC, which treated such acts as theft.
A confession made by a person while he is in the custody of a police officer shall, as a general rule, not be proved against him; however, under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), such a confession becomes provable if it is made;
aIn the immediate presence of a senior police officer
bIn the immediate presence of a Magistrate
cIn the presence of two independent witnesses
dAfter the accused has been produced before a court
Answer: B
Section 23(2) of the BSA bars proof of a confession made in police custody unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate, who is treated as a neutral authority able to ensure its voluntariness.
Where a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from a person accused of any offence in the custody of a police officer, the portion of the information that may be proved under the proviso to Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) is;
aOnly so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered
bOnly the part recorded in the presence of a Magistrate
cThe whole of the information, whether or not it amounts to a confession
dOnly that part which amounts to a confession
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA admits only so much of the information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered (old IEA s.27).
Under Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a statement as to the cause of his death made by a person who is dead (a dying declaration) is relevant;
aOnly if the maker was under expectation of imminent death
bOnly if it is corroborated by independent evidence
cOnly if reduced to writing and signed by the deponent
dIn cases in which the cause of that person's death comes into question
Answer: D
Section 26(a) of the BSA makes such a statement relevant in cases in which the cause of the deponent's death comes into question; unlike English law, expectation of death is not a condition under the BSA.
A child is born 270 days after the dissolution of a valid marriage, the mother having remained unmarried throughout. Under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the birth is conclusive proof of legitimacy because the period prescribed is;
aWithin 270 days after dissolution
bWithin 300 days after dissolution
cWithin 280 days after dissolution
dWithin one year after dissolution
Answer: C
Section 116 of the BSA treats birth within 280 days after dissolution of a valid marriage (the mother remaining unmarried) as conclusive proof of legitimacy, rebuttable only by proof of non-access.
When a person accused of murder pleads that he was of unsound mind and did not know the nature of his act, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within the General Exceptions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, under Section 108 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), lies;
aOn neither party, as the Court must investigate suo motu
bOn the accused, and the Court shall presume the absence of such circumstances
cOn the prosecution, which must disprove the exception beyond reasonable doubt
dOn the accused, who must establish it beyond reasonable doubt
Answer: B
Section 108 of the BSA places the burden of proving a General Exception on the accused and directs the Court to presume the absence of such circumstances; the accused discharges it on a preponderance of probabilities, not beyond reasonable doubt.
Under Section 92 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the Court may presume that the signature and execution of a document are genuine where the document is produced from proper custody and purports or is proved to be;
aThirty years old
bSixty years old
cTwenty years old
dTwelve years old
Answer: A
Section 92 of the BSA permits a presumption as to the genuineness of signature, handwriting, execution and attestation of a document that is thirty years old and is produced from custody the Court considers proper.
Under Section 39 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the opinion of a person specially skilled is a relevant fact when the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of;
aThe interpretation of a statute
bForeign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting or finger impressions
cIndian law
dThe credibility of an ordinary witness
Answer: B
Section 39 of the BSA makes expert opinion relevant on points of foreign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting or finger impressions; opinion on Indian law is for the Court itself.
Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), an accomplice;
aIs an incompetent witness against an accused person
bMust always be corroborated, failing which the conviction is illegal
cCan testify only after being granted pardon by the court
dIs a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice
Answer: D
As enacted, Section 138 of the BSA provides that an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, and that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. (This is the literal BSA wording, which differs from the repealed IEA s.133 that spoke of conviction not being illegal 'merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice'.) The rule of prudence favouring corroboration is reflected in Illustration (b) to Section 119 BSA.
The rule of prudence that the Court may presume an accomplice to be unworthy of credit unless corroborated in material particulars is contained in;
aSection 119, Illustration (a)
bSection 139, Illustration
cSection 138, proviso
dSection 119, Illustration (b)
Answer: D
Illustration (b) to Section 119 of the BSA embodies the rule of caution that the Court may presume an accomplice to be unworthy of credit unless corroborated in material particulars; read with Section 138 this has hardened into settled practice requiring corroboration.
Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a person may be held incompetent to testify if the Court considers that he is prevented from understanding the questions put to him, or from giving rational answers, by;
aHis conviction in a previous criminal case
bTender years, extreme old age, or disease of body or mind
cHis relationship to a party to the suit
dMere interest in the outcome of the proceeding
Answer: B
Section 124 of the BSA makes all persons competent to testify unless the Court considers them prevented from understanding questions or giving rational answers by tender years, extreme old age, disease of body or mind, or any other cause of the same kind.
A confession made to a police officer is, under Section 23(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA);
aAdmissible only if recorded in writing
bNot to be proved against a person accused of any offence
cAdmissible if voluntarily made
dAdmissible against a co-accused but not the maker
Answer: B
Section 23(1) of the BSA lays down an absolute bar: no confession made to a police officer shall be proved against a person accused of any offence, irrespective of whether it was voluntary.
The presumption of legitimacy raised by Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) can be displaced only by proving;
aA mere balance of probabilities of illegitimacy
bThat the husband suffered from impotency
cThat the parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when the child could have been begotten
dThat the child does not physically resemble the husband
Answer: C
The conclusive presumption under Section 116 of the BSA is rebuttable only by establishing non-access between the spouses at the relevant time, and that too by a strong preponderance of evidence.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the statement of a relevant fact made by a person is admissible not only when the maker is dead, but also when he;
aIs unwilling to give evidence
bCannot be found, has become incapable of giving evidence, or cannot be produced without unreasonable delay or expense
cResides outside the local jurisdiction of the Court
dHas turned hostile to the party calling him
Answer: B
Section 26 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 applies where the maker is dead, cannot be found, has become incapable of giving evidence, or whose attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expense; mere unwillingness to testify is not a ground.
A document is said to be in 'proper custody' for the purposes of the presumption as to thirty year old documents under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) when;
aIt is held by a registered legal practitioner
bIt is deposited in a court record room
cIt is in the custody of a public officer only
dIt is in the place in which, and under the care of the person with whom, it would naturally be
Answer: D
Under the Explanation to Section 80 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (which also governs the thirty-year presumption in Section 92), documents are in proper custody if they are in the place in which, and under the care of the person with whom, they would naturally be; no custody is improper if its origin is legitimate or probable.
Under Section 108 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the standard of proof which an accused must satisfy in order to bring his case within a General Exception of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita is;
aProof beyond reasonable doubt
bProof on a preponderance of probabilities
cProof to the entire satisfaction of the prosecution
dNo proof is required; a mere plea suffices
Answer: B
Although Section 108 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 casts the burden of proving a General Exception on the accused, he need only establish the exception on a preponderance of probabilities, not beyond reasonable doubt as the prosecution must prove its case.
Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the conduct of a search and the preparation of the list of things seized;
aShall only be recorded in writing in the presence of a Magistrate
bShall be recorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably mobile phone
cNeed not be recorded in any manner
dShall be recorded only if the District Magistrate so directs
Answer: B
Section 105 BNSS introduces mandatory audio-video recording (preferably by mobile phone) of search and seizure, the recording to be forwarded without delay to the concerned Magistrate.
Under Section 230 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Magistrate shall furnish to the accused (and the victim, if represented) a copy of the police report and other documents without delay and in no case beyond;
aSeven days from the date of production or appearance of the accused
bThirty days from the date of production or appearance of the accused
cFourteen days from the date of production or appearance of the accused
dSixty days from the date of production or appearance of the accused
Answer: C
Section 230 BNSS prescribes an outer limit of fourteen days from production or appearance of the accused for supply of the chargesheet and connected documents, which may be in electronic form.
Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir/relative) may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within;
aSixty days from the date of conviction
bThere is no time limit for filing
cNinety days from the date of confirmation by the High Court
dThirty days from the date the jail Superintendent informs him of the relevant dismissal/confirmation
Answer: D
Section 472 BNSS, a new statutory mercy-petition provision, fixes a thirty-day window (running from the jail Superintendent's intimation of dismissal/confirmation) for filing the petition.
Under Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in offences of rape and certain offences against children (under specified sections of BNS/POCSO), the investigation shall ordinarily be completed within;
aOne month from the recording of information
bThree months from the recording of information
cSix months from the recording of information
dTwo months from the recording of information
Answer: D
Section 193 BNSS mandates completion of investigation within two months from recording of information for specified sexual offences against women and children.
Under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a proclaimed offender has been tried in absentia and convicted, no appeal against conviction shall lie;
aUnless the proclaimed offender presents himself before the Court of appeal, and not after expiry of three years from the date of judgment
bIn any circumstances whatsoever
cAfter expiry of ninety days from the judgment
dUnless leave is granted by the Supreme Court
Answer: A
Section 356 BNSS conditions the appeal on the convict's personal appearance before the appellate court and bars an appeal against conviction beyond three years from the date of judgment.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a person arrested without a warrant cannot be detained in custody for a period exceeding twenty-four hours (exclusive of journey time) without the special order of a Magistrate. This safeguard is contained in;
aSection 58
bSection 60
cSection 57
dSection 56
Answer: A
Section 58 BNSS reproduces the 24-hour rule of the former Section 57 CrPC, and now expressly permits production before the nearest Magistrate's Court whether or not it has jurisdiction.
Under Section 35(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend up to seven years, a police officer is required to;
aObtain prior sanction of the Court of Session before any arrest
bIssue a notice of appearance, arrest being the exception to be resorted to only for recorded reasons
cRefer the matter to the Director of Prosecution
dArrest the accused in every case and forward him to the Magistrate
Answer: B
Section 35(3) BNSS makes issuance of a notice of appearance the rule and arrest the exception for offences punishable up to seven years, a position reaffirmed by the Supreme Court in the line of Arnesh Kumar / Satender Kumar Antil guidelines.
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 for the first time statutorily permits the use of handcuffs while effecting an arrest or producing a person before court in certain categories of offences. The provision dealing with the manner of arrest and the use of handcuffs is;
aSection 43
bSection 35
cSection 47
dSection 50
Answer: A
Section 43 BNSS ("Arrest how made") expressly allows handcuffing of, inter alia, habitual or repeat offenders, escapees, and persons accused of organised crime, terrorism, murder, rape, acid attack and similar heinous offences.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a summons may, in addition to the traditional modes, be served by electronic communication bearing the image of the seal of the court. Service of summons is governed by;
aSection 66
bSection 63
cSection 64
dSection 61
Answer: C
Section 64 BNSS ("Summons how served") now provides that a summons bearing the image of the court's seal may be served through electronic communication in the form and manner prescribed by State rules.
The power to issue orders in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger — the provision corresponding to the former Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 — is now found in;
aSection 144 BNSS
bSection 168 BNSS
cSection 163 BNSS
dSection 148 BNSS
Answer: C
Section 163 BNSS empowers a District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate or other empowered Executive Magistrate to pass orders in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger; the number 144 in the BNSS instead deals with maintenance.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an order for the maintenance of wives, children and parents who are unable to maintain themselves may be passed by a Magistrate under;
aSection 145
bSection 125
cSection 144
dSection 163
Answer: C
Section 144 BNSS carries forward the maintenance provision of the former Section 125 CrPC, empowering a Magistrate of the First Class to order monthly maintenance, including interim maintenance.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, information relating to a cognizable offence may be recorded irrespective of the area where the offence is committed (a 'Zero FIR'). The registration of first information report is dealt with under;
aSection 175
bSection 176
cSection 173
dSection 154
Answer: C
Section 173 BNSS governs the registration of the FIR and statutorily recognises 'Zero FIR' as well as electronic registration of information relating to a cognizable offence.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence (with videography of the process) has been made mandatory in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for;
aSeven years or more
bTen years or more
cThree years or more
dFive years or more
Answer: A
Section 176(3) BNSS mandates forensic investigation and videography of evidence collection at the crime scene where the offence is punishable with seven years' imprisonment or more.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the entire process of search and seizure, including preparation of the list of seized articles and its signing by witnesses, shall be recorded through audio-video electronic means. This requirement is laid down in;
aSection 105
bSection 185
cSection 103
dSection 192
Answer: A
Section 105 BNSS is a new provision requiring audio-video recording (preferably by mobile phone) of search and seizure, and prompt forwarding of the recording to the Magistrate.
The proposal to impeach the President under Article 61 must be contained in a resolution moved after at least how many days' notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House?
aTwenty-one days
bSeven days
cFourteen days
dThirty days
Answer: C
Article 61(2) requires at least fourteen days' notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House, and the resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority.
Under Article 76 of the Constitution, the Attorney-General for India must be a person who is:
aA retired Chief Justice of a High Court
bA sitting Judge of the Supreme Court
cQualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court
dA member of the Bar Council of India for at least ten years
Answer: C
Article 76(1) provides that the President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be the Attorney-General for India.
Under Article 110 of the Constitution, the question whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is decided by:
aThe Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
bA joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament
cThe President of India
dThe Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
Answer: A
Under Article 110(3), if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.
Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is constituted by the President at the expiration of every:
aFourth year
bSixth year
cFifth year
dThird year
Answer: C
Article 280(1) provides that the President shall constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year, or earlier if he considers it necessary, consisting of a Chairman and four other members.
Part IX of the Constitution, dealing with 'The Panchayats', and the Eleventh Schedule were added by which Constitutional Amendment?
aThe 69th Amendment, 1991
bThe 65th Amendment, 1990
cThe 73rd Amendment, 1992
dThe 74th Amendment, 1992
Answer: C
The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 added Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) on Panchayats and the Eleventh Schedule listing 29 subjects; the 74th Amendment dealt with Municipalities.
By the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, the right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a constitutional/legal right under:
aArticle 19(1)(f)
bArticle 31A
cArticle 300A
dArticle 39(b)
Answer: C
The 44th Amendment, 1978 deleted Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III and placed the right to property as a legal right in Article 300A under Part XII.
That a writ petition dismissed on merits under Article 226 by a High Court operates as res judicata so as to bar a similar petition under Article 32 before the Supreme Court was held in:
aA.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
bKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
cDaryao v. State of U.P.
dManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: C
In Daryao v. State of U.P. (AIR 1961 SC 1457), the Supreme Court held that a petition dismissed on merits under Article 226 bars a subsequent petition under Article 32 on the principle of res judicata.
The Fundamental Duties of citizens, enumerated in Article 51A, were added to the Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee by the:
a86th Amendment, 2002
b42nd Amendment, 1976
c1st Amendment, 1951
d44th Amendment, 1978
Answer: B
The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 inserted Part IVA containing Article 51A on Fundamental Duties; a later duty regarding education was added by the 86th Amendment.
Under Article 16 of the Constitution, which of the following is NOT a ground on which the State is prohibited from discriminating in matters of public employment?
aDescent
bEducational qualification
cPlace of birth
dReligion
Answer: B
Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination only on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them; educational qualification is a permissible classification, not a prohibited ground.
A resolution for impeachment of the President under Article 61 must be passed in each House by a majority of;
aThree-fourths of the total membership of that House
bTwo-thirds of the members present and voting only
cNot less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House
dA simple majority of the members present and voting
Answer: C
Article 61 requires that the resolution levelling the charge, and the resolution after investigation declaring the charge sustained, each be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
The doctrine that Parliament cannot, in exercise of its power under Article 368, alter the 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded in;
aGolak Nath v. State of Punjab
bSajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
cShankari Prasad v. Union of India
dKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Answer: D
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-Judge Bench held by 7:6 that the amending power under Article 368 does not extend to damaging or destroying the basic structure of the Constitution.
The Attorney-General for India is appointed under which Article of the Constitution;
aArticle 76
bArticle 124
cArticle 148
dArticle 78
Answer: A
Under Article 76, the President appoints a person qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court as Attorney-General for India, who holds office during the pleasure of the President.
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed under;
aArticle 148
bArticle 150
cArticle 280
dArticle 76
Answer: A
Article 148 establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, who is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property possessed by a female Hindu is held by her;
aAs full owner thereof and not as a limited owner
bAs a limited owner during her lifetime only
cAs a coparcener jointly with her sons
dAs a trustee for her husband's heirs
Answer: A
Section 14(1) converts a female Hindu's limited estate into full ownership, declaring that property possessed by her is held as full owner and not as a limited owner.
On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, in a Mitakshara joint family the daughter of a coparcener;
aBecomes by birth a coparcener in her own right in the same manner as a son
bHas a right only to maintenance and not to coparcenary property
cAcquires a coparcenary interest only on the death of her father
dBecomes a coparcener only if she is unmarried on the date of commencement
Answer: A
Amended Section 6(1) makes the daughter a coparcener by birth in the same manner as a son, with the same rights and liabilities. Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020) 9 SCC 1 held this right accrues from birth irrespective of whether the father was alive on 9 September 2005.
Where a female Hindu dies intestate, under Section 15(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 her property devolves firstly upon;
aThe heirs of the father
bThe heirs of the husband
cHer mother and father
dHer sons and daughters (including children of any pre-deceased son or daughter) and the husband
Answer: D
Section 15(1)(a) places the sons, daughters (including children of a pre-deceased son or daughter) and the husband in the first entry of the order of succession to a female intestate's property.
Under Section 25 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a person who commits or abets the murder of another;
aInherits only one-half of the share he would otherwise have taken
bIs disqualified only from intestate, but not testamentary, succession
cIs disqualified from inheriting the property of the person murdered
dIs disqualified only if convicted by a criminal court
Answer: C
Section 25 disqualifies a murderer or abettor from inheriting the property of the person murdered or any property he sought to succeed to by the murder; the disqualification applies to both intestate and testamentary succession.
In Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that a Hindu husband who converts to Islam and contracts a second marriage during the subsistence of his first Hindu marriage;
aIs liable only for cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act
bIs guilty of bigamy under Section 494 IPC, the second marriage being void
cAutomatically dissolves the first marriage by conversion
dValidly contracts the second marriage under Muslim personal law
Answer: B
Sarla Mudgal (1995) 3 SCC 635 held that mere conversion to Islam does not dissolve the first Hindu marriage; the second marriage is void and the husband is liable for bigamy under Section 494 IPC.
Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the condition that neither party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage is contained in which clause;
aClause (i)
bClause (iii)
cClause (ii)
dClause (iv)
Answer: A
Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 requires that neither party has a spouse living at the time of marriage; its breach renders the marriage void under Section 11.
A marriage solemnised in contravention of the condition relating to prohibited degrees of relationship under Section 5(iv) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is, in the absence of a permitting custom;
aValid but punishable
bMerely irregular
cVoidable at the option of either party
dVoid
Answer: D
Section 11 read with Section 5(iv) makes a marriage within prohibited degrees void, unless a custom or usage governing each party permits such a marriage.
Under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition for divorce by mutual consent can be moved only after the parties have been living separately for a period of;
aSix months or more
bThree years or more
cTwo years or more
dOne year or more
Answer: D
Section 13B(1) requires that the parties to a mutual-consent divorce have been living separately for one year or more before presenting the joint petition.
Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the motion for a decree of divorce by mutual consent is to be made by both parties not earlier than six months and not later than;
aTwelve months after presentation of the petition
bNine months after presentation of the petition
cEighteen months after presentation of the petition
dTwenty-four months after presentation of the petition
Answer: C
Section 13B(2) provides that the second motion must be made after six months but within eighteen months of presentation of the petition, failing which it stands withdrawn.
Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, by virtue of the Amendment Act of 2005, a daughter of a coparcener;
aBecomes a coparcener only if unmarried on the date of the amendment
bAcquires only a right of maintenance out of the coparcenary property
cBecomes a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son
dTakes a share only on the death of her father
Answer: C
Section 6, as substituted by the 2005 Amendment, makes the daughter a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son, with the same rights and liabilities.
The State of Haryana came into existence on 1 November 1966 by being carved out of the erstwhile State of Punjab under which enactment?
aThe Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
bThe North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971
cThe Haryana Formation Act, 1965
dThe States Reorganisation Act, 1956
Answer: A
The Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 came into effect on 1 November 1966, bifurcating Punjab and creating the new State of Haryana, with Chandigarh as the shared Union Territory capital.
Justice B.R. Gavai, who served as the 52nd Chief Justice of India in 2025, is noted in history as the:
aFirst woman Chief Justice of India
bLongest-serving Chief Justice of India
cFirst Buddhist Chief Justice of India
dFirst Chief Justice from the North-East
Answer: C
Justice B.R. Gavai, sworn in as the 52nd CJI on 14 May 2025, was the first Buddhist and only the second person from a Scheduled Caste to hold the office.
If 1 January 2024 was a Monday, on which day of the week did 1 January 2025 fall (2024 being a leap year)?
aThursday
bTuesday
cMonday
dWednesday
Answer: D
A leap year of 366 days carries two odd days, so the weekday advances by two; Monday + 2 = Wednesday.
Q91General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Choose the option that correctly completes the analogy: 'Manuscript : Author :: Sculpture : ?'
aMarble
bSculptor
cMuseum
dChisel
Answer: B
A manuscript is created by an author; analogously, a sculpture is created by a sculptor, making 'Sculptor' the correct completion of the relationship.
Q92General Knowledge / Current Affairs
A sum of Rs. 8,000 is lent at 5% per annum simple interest. The amount payable at the end of 3 years is:
aRs. 1,200
bRs. 9,000
cRs. 9,200
dRs. 8,400
Answer: C
Simple interest = 8000 x 5 x 3 / 100 = Rs. 1,200, so the amount = principal + interest = 8,000 + 1,200 = Rs. 9,200.
Q93General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'ABROGATE':
aEnact
bNullify
cRepeal
dCancel
Answer: A
'Abrogate' means to repeal or do away with a law; its antonym is 'Enact', meaning to establish a law. The other options are synonyms of abrogate.
Q94General Knowledge / Current Affairs
The Reserve Bank of India, the country's central bank vested with the sole authority to issue currency notes (other than the one-rupee note), was established in the year:
a1949
b1935
c1950
d1947
Answer: B
The Reserve Bank of India was established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and was nationalised in 1949.
In the Constitution of India, the provisions relating to Panchayats (Part IX), under which States hold elections to local bodies through their State Election Commissions, were inserted by which amendment?
aThe 44th Constitutional Amendment
bThe 86th Constitutional Amendment
cThe 42nd Constitutional Amendment
dThe 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Answer: D
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX and Article 243K, providing for Panchayats and the constitution of a State Election Commission to conduct their elections.
aNeither of the two accused have been present in the court.
bNeither of the two accused was present in the court.
cNeither of the two accused were present in the court.
dNeither of the two accused are present in the court.
Answer: B
'Neither' is singular and takes a singular verb, so the correct form is 'Neither of the two accused was present in the court.'
Q97Indian Contract Act
A promises, without consideration, to give to B Rs. 1,000. There is no near relation between A and B and the promise is not in writing or registered. The agreement is:
aVoid, being an agreement without consideration not falling within any exception under Section 25
bEnforceable only to the extent of half the amount
cA valid contract, as a clear promise was made
dVoidable at the option of A
Answer: A
Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, an agreement made without consideration is void unless it falls within the three exceptions (writing and registration with natural love and affection, past voluntary service, or written promise to pay a time-barred debt). A bare gratuitous promise outside these is void.
Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, a promise to pay a time-barred debt is enforceable only if:
aIt is made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith or his authorised agent
bIt is made orally before two witnesses
cIt is registered before the Sub-Registrar
dFresh consideration is supplied by the creditor
Answer: A
The third exception in Section 25 requires that a promise to pay a wholly or partly time-barred debt be in writing and signed by the person to be charged (or his agent). No fresh consideration is needed.
An agreement which restrains a person from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business is, under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act:
aVoid to that extent, subject to the statutory exception relating to sale of goodwill
bValid only if the restraint is for less than three years
cValid if reasonable
dVoidable at the option of the restrained party
Answer: A
Section 27 declares every agreement in restraint of trade void to that extent; the only statutory exception saved within the section is a reasonable restraint on the seller of the goodwill of a business. Indian law does not apply the English 'reasonableness' test generally.
Where a new contract is substituted for an existing one, or the existing contract is rescinded or altered, such effect is dealt with by:
aSection 73 of the Indian Contract Act
bSection 62 of the Indian Contract Act
cSection 65 of the Indian Contract Act
dSection 56 of the Indian Contract Act
Answer: B
Section 62 deals with the effect of novation, rescission and alteration of a contract; if the parties agree to substitute, rescind or alter the contract, the original contract need not be performed.
A contracts to sing for B at a concert for Rs. 1,000, paid in advance. A is too ill to sing on the appointed day. The contract:
aIs merely suspended until A recovers
bRemains binding and A must pay damages for breach
cIs voidable at the option of B alone
dBecomes void on the ground of supervening impossibility under Section 56
Answer: D
Under Section 56, a contract to perform an act which afterwards becomes impossible becomes void when the impossibility arises. Incapacity of the performer through illness is a classic illustration of supervening impossibility (frustration).
G's nephew absconded. G sent his servant L to search for the boy. After L had left, G announced a reward to anyone tracing the boy. L, who had no knowledge of the announcement, found the boy and later claimed the reward. On these facts:
aL can recover the reward, since he in fact found the boy
bL can recover half the reward on quantum meruit
cL can recover, the reward being a standing offer to the world
dL cannot recover, as there was no contract for want of knowledge of the offer when he acted
Answer: D
Following Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt, there can be no acceptance of an offer of which the acceptor had no knowledge; performance in ignorance of the offer does not create a contract, so the reward cannot be claimed.
In the absence of any usage or custom of trade to the contrary, which of the following acts can a partner do in the ordinary course of business by virtue of his implied authority under Section 19 of the Partnership Act?
aEnter into partnership on behalf of the firm
bSubmit a dispute relating to the business of the firm to arbitration
cPurchase goods of a kind ordinarily employed in the business of the firm
dAcquire immovable property on behalf of the firm
Answer: C
Section 19(2) expressly excludes acts such as submitting disputes to arbitration, acquiring or transferring immovable property and entering into partnership from implied authority; buying goods of a kind ordinarily used in the firm's business is within a partner's implied authority.
A person who is a minor may, with the consent of all the partners for the time being, be admitted to the benefits of partnership under Section 30. On attaining majority, within what period must he give public notice electing to become or not to become a partner?
aThree months
bTwo years
cOne year
dSix months
Answer: D
Section 30(5) allows such person, within six months of attaining majority (or of knowledge of his admission, whichever is later), to give public notice of his election; failing notice he becomes a partner on expiry of those six months.
Subject to any contract between the partners and to the provisions of Section 30, a person may be introduced as a partner into a firm;
aWithout consent if the firm is registered
bWith the consent of all the existing partners
cWith the consent of the partners holding a majority share
dWith the consent of a majority of the partners
Answer: B
Section 31 provides that, subject to contract and to Section 30, no person can be introduced as a partner without the consent of all the existing partners.
A firm carrying on a business that becomes unlawful, for example by reason of all the partners but one becoming alien enemies, is dissolved by operation of law. This is termed;
aDissolution by notice under Section 43
bDissolution by agreement under Section 40
cCompulsory dissolution under Section 41
dDissolution by the court under Section 44
Answer: C
Section 41 provides for compulsory dissolution where the business of the firm becomes unlawful, including by partners' adjudication as insolvent or by the happening of an event making the business unlawful to carry on.
Where by a contract of sale the seller purports to effect a present sale of future goods, the contract under Section 6(3) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 operates as;
aA contingent contract incapable of enforcement
bAn agreement to sell the goods
cA completed sale
dA void contract
Answer: B
Section 6(3) states that a purported present sale of future goods operates merely as an agreement to sell those goods, since property cannot pass in goods not yet owned or possessed by the seller.
A contracts to sell to B a specific parcel of goods. Without the knowledge of either party the goods had, at the time of the contract, perished. The contract is;
aVoidable at the option of B
bVoid under Section 7 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
cValid, with A liable in damages
dAn agreement to sell under Section 6
Answer: B
Section 7 declares a contract for the sale of specific goods void if, without the seller's knowledge, the goods had already perished at the time the contract was made.
The distinction drawn by Section 12 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 between a condition and a warranty is that a condition is a stipulation;
aWhich only sounds in damages and never permits rejection of goods
bImplied by trade usage but never expressly agreed
cCollateral to the main purpose of the contract
dEssential to the main purpose of the contract, breach of which gives a right to treat the contract as repudiated
Answer: D
Section 12(2) defines a condition as a stipulation essential to the main purpose, breach of which gives the right to repudiate; under 12(3) a warranty is collateral and gives only a claim in damages.
Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where a suit is instituted after the prescribed period of limitation but the defendant fails to plead limitation in his written statement, the court is
arequired to frame an issue of limitation only on the application of the defendant
bbound to decide the suit on merits, the bar of limitation having been waived by the defendant
ccompetent to dismiss the suit only if the plaintiff fails to prove his case
dbound to dismiss the suit, although limitation has not been set up as a defence
Answer: D
Section 3 is mandatory: every suit, appeal or application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed although limitation has not been set up as a defence; the court must take note of limitation suo motu.
The bar created by the law of limitation, as a general rule, extinguishes
aonly the remedy, leaving the underlying right intact
bneither the right nor the remedy, it merely suspends both
conly the right, while the remedy survives
dthe right as well as the remedy of the claimant
Answer: A
The Limitation Act bars the judicial remedy but does not extinguish the right; the lone exception is Section 27, which extinguishes the right to property itself.
Where the prescribed period for instituting a suit expires on a day when the court is closed, Section 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that the suit may be instituted
abefore the closure of the court by lodging it with the nearest Magistrate
bonly after obtaining leave of the court to condone the delay
cwithin seven days of the reopening of the court
don the day the court reopens
Answer: D
Under Section 4, when the prescribed period expires on a day the court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted on the day the court reopens.
Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a suit by a person dispossessed of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law must be instituted within;
asix months from the date of dispossession
btwelve years from the date of dispossession
cone year from the date of dispossession
dthree years from the date of dispossession
Answer: A
Section 6(2) bars a suit brought after six months from the date of dispossession, and also bars any such suit against the Government.
After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, the specific performance of a contract under Section 10;
ais wholly barred and only compensation can be granted
bmay be enforced only where no standard exists for ascertaining actual damage
cmay be enforced in the discretion of the court where damages are an inadequate remedy
dshall be enforced by the court, subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16
Answer: D
The 2018 Amendment removed the court's discretion; the substituted Section 10 makes specific performance the rule, enforceable subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16.
The remedy of 'substituted performance' of a contract, whereby a party may get the contract performed by a third party or its own agency and recover the costs from the defaulting party, is provided under;
aSection 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
bSection 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
cSection 12 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
dSection 16 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
Answer: A
The 2018 Amendment substituted Section 20 to provide for substituted performance, exercisable after a written notice of not less than thirty days to the defaulting party.
Under the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, a Muslim of sound mind not being a minor may, by a valid will (wasiyat), bequeath without the consent of his heirs at the most;
aThe whole of his property
bOne-fourth of his property after payment of debts and funeral expenses
cOne-third of his property after payment of debts and funeral expenses
dOne-half of his property after payment of debts and funeral expenses
Answer: C
A Muslim cannot bequeath more than one-third of the net estate (after debts and funeral expenses) without the consent of the heirs, given after the testator's death.
Which of the following is NOT an essential requisite of a valid gift (hiba) under Mohammadan Law?
aA declaration of gift by the donor
bDelivery of possession of the subject of the gift
cAcceptance of the gift by the donee
dRegistration of the instrument of gift
Answer: D
The three essentials of a valid hiba are declaration (ijab), acceptance (qabul) and delivery of possession (qabza); writing or registration is not necessary for its validity.
Where a Muslim woman's marriage is dissolved by the death of her husband and she is not pregnant, the period of iddat she must observe is;
aForty days
bThree monthly courses
cThree lunar months
dFour lunar months and ten days
Answer: D
On the death of the husband, a non-pregnant widow must observe iddat for four lunar months and ten days; if pregnant, until delivery or that period, whichever is longer.
Where a document is executed by several persons at different times, Section 24 of the Registration Act, 1908 provides that it may be presented for registration and re-registration within;
aFour months from the date of the first execution
bSix months from the date of any one execution
cFour months from the date of each execution
dFour months from the date of the last execution only
Answer: C
Section 24 permits a document executed by several persons at different times to be presented for registration and re-registration within four months from the date of each such execution.
Under Section 77 of the Registration Act, 1908, where the Registrar refuses to order a document to be registered, a person claiming under the document may institute a suit for a decree directing registration within;
aSix months after the making of the order of refusal
bNinety days after the making of the order of refusal
cSixty days after the making of the order of refusal
dThirty days after the making of the order of refusal
Answer: D
Section 77(1) allows the aggrieved person to file a suit in the civil court for a decree directing registration within thirty days after the Registrar's order of refusal under Section 72 or 76.
Under the first proviso to Section 6 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, after the fair rent has been fixed the landlord, though barred from claiming any premium, may stipulate for and receive in advance an amount not exceeding;
aOne month's rent
bTwo months' rent
cThree months' rent
dSix months' rent
Answer: A
Section 6(a) bars premium or rent in excess of fair rent, but expressly permits the landlord to stipulate for and receive an advance not exceeding one month's rent.
While fixing the fair rent under Section 4 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, the Controller may allow an increase or decrease on the basic rent, on account of the rise or fall in the general level of prices, not exceeding;
aTen per centum of the rise or fall
bFifteen per centum of the rise or fall
cFifty per centum of the rise or fall
dTwenty-five per centum of the rise or fall
Answer: D
Section 4(3) caps the adjustment to the basic rent at twenty-five per centum of the rise or fall in the general level of prices, computed with reference to the All India Wholesale Price Index Numbers.
Kelsen's 'Pure Theory of Law' is best described by which of the following propositions?
aLaw is whatever the courts will in fact do
bLaw is the spontaneous expression of the common consciousness of the people
cLaw is a means to balance competing social interests
dLaw derives its validity from a hierarchy of norms tracing back to a 'Grundnorm' (basic norm), free from ethics, politics and sociology
Answer: D
Hans Kelsen's Pure Theory treats law as a system of norms whose validity flows from a presupposed basic norm (Grundnorm), purged of moral, political and sociological elements. Option (b) reflects Savigny, (c) Pound's social engineering, and (d) American Realism.
Roscoe Pound is best known in jurisprudence for the theory that the function of law is to act as;
aThe will of the people expressed through Volksgeist
bA pyramid of norms culminating in the Grundnorm
cA command of the sovereign backed by sanction
dAn instrument of social engineering balancing conflicting interests
Answer: D
Roscoe Pound, of the Sociological school, described law as 'social engineering' aimed at securing and balancing the maximum of conflicting individual and social interests with the least friction.
Under Section 21 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918, an Additional District Judge is appointed by:
aThe State Government in consultation with the High Court
bThe High Court alone
cThe Central Government in consultation with the State Government
dThe District Judge of the district concerned
Answer: A
Section 21(1) empowers the State Government, in consultation with the High Court, to appoint an Additional District Judge to exercise jurisdiction in one or more Courts of the District Judges.
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