Haryana Judiciary Mock Test 8 — Questions & Solutions
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Under Order IX, Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, an ex parte decree may be set aside on the application of the defendant where he satisfies the Court that:
athe summons was not duly served, OR he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing
bonly that the summons was not duly served
conly that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing
dthe decree is erroneous on merits, irrespective of service of summons
Answer: A
Order IX Rule 13 allows an ex parte decree to be set aside on either ground: that the summons was not duly served, or that the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing.
Under Order XXXIX, Rule 2A of the Code of Civil Procedure, in case of disobedience of an injunction the Court may order the property of the person guilty to be attached and may also order him to be detained in civil prison for a term not exceeding:
aone year
bone month
cthree months
dsix months
Answer: C
Order XXXIX Rule 2A permits attachment of property and detention in civil prison for a term not exceeding three months for disobedience of an injunction granted under Rule 1 or Rule 2.
Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, which empowers the Court to refer a dispute for settlement outside the Court, contemplates which of the following modes?
aArbitration only
bMediation and Lok Adalat only
cArbitration and conciliation only
dArbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat, and mediation
Answer: D
Section 89 provides four modes of alternative dispute resolution: arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (including through Lok Adalat), and mediation.
Under Explanation I to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the expression 'former suit' denotes a suit which:
ahas been decided prior to the suit in question, whether or not it was instituted prior thereto
bwas instituted prior to the suit in question, regardless of when decided
cwas both instituted and decided before the suit in question
dis pending along with the suit in question between the same parties
Answer: A
Explanation I to Section 11 clarifies that 'former suit' means a suit decided prior to the suit in question, irrespective of the date of its institution.
Under Explanation VIII to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, an issue heard and finally decided by a Court of limited jurisdiction competent to decide such issue:
ashall operate as res judicata only if that Court was also competent to try the subsequent suit
bshall operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit even though that Court was not competent to try the subsequent suit
cshall never operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit
doperates merely as estoppel and not as res judicata
Answer: B
Explanation VIII provides that a decision by a Court of limited jurisdiction competent to decide the issue operates as res judicata in a later suit, notwithstanding that the Court was not competent to try that subsequent suit.
Under Section 96(3) of the Code of Civil Procedure:
aNo appeal lies from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties
bNo appeal lies from any decree of a court of first instance
cAn appeal lies from every decree, including a consent decree
dNo appeal lies from an ex parte decree
Answer: A
Section 96(3) bars an appeal from a decree passed with the consent of parties, while Section 96(2) expressly permits an appeal from an original ex parte decree.
Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, an appeal from an original decree passed ex parte:
adoes not lie at all; the only remedy is under Order IX Rule 13
blies only with the leave of the appellate Court
clies under Section 96(2), and the remedy under Order IX Rule 13 is also available
dlies only after the application under Order IX Rule 13 is dismissed
Answer: C
Section 96(2) expressly permits an appeal from an original ex parte decree; this remedy is concurrent with the right to apply for setting it aside under Order IX Rule 13.
Which of the following best describes the nature of an 'objection' that no second appeal lies under Section 102 of the Code of Civil Procedure in a small-cause-nature money suit?
aIt applies only where the suit value exceeds twenty-five thousand rupees
bIt is merely a procedural irregularity that can be waived by the respondent
cIt is a bar going to the maintainability of the second appeal itself
dIt can be cured if the High Court frames a substantial question of law
Answer: C
The Section 102 bar (no second appeal where small-cause-nature suit value does not exceed Rs. 25,000) goes to the very maintainability of the second appeal and cannot be cured by framing a substantial question of law.
Under Order VII, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, when a plaint is rejected on the ground that the suit appears to be barred by any law, the order of rejection:
ashall not of its own force preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action
bamounts to a dismissal of the suit on merits
coperates as res judicata and bars a fresh suit on the same cause of action
dcan never be appealed against
Answer: A
Under Order VII Rule 13, the rejection of a plaint shall not of its own force preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action.
A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies only where the case involves
aA mixed question of law and fact
bA substantial question of fact
cAny error apparent on the face of the record
dA substantial question of law
Answer: D
Section 100 CPC, as substituted by the 1976 Amendment, permits a second appeal only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated by the Court.
Under the proviso to Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (as amended in 2002), a written statement, if not filed within thirty days, may be filed on a later day for reasons to be recorded, but not later than
aSeventy-five days from the date of service of summons
bNinety days from the date of service of summons
cOne hundred and twenty days from the date of service of summons
dSixty days from the date of service of summons
Answer: B
The proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 (post-2002) caps the extended time for filing a written statement in an ordinary civil suit at ninety days from the date of service of summons.
The principle of constructive res judicata, by which a matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in a former suit is deemed to have been in issue, is contained in
aExplanation IV to Section 11 CPC
bExplanation I to Section 11 CPC
cExplanation VIII to Section 11 CPC
dExplanation VI to Section 11 CPC
Answer: A
Explanation IV to Section 11 CPC embodies constructive res judicata, treating a matter that might and ought to have been raised as a ground of attack or defence as having been directly and substantially in issue.
Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the Court, where it appears that there exist elements of a settlement, to refer the dispute to all of the following EXCEPT
aArbitration
bJudicial settlement including Lok Adalat
cCriminal compounding before a Magistrate
dConciliation
Answer: C
Section 89 CPC lists arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (including Lok Adalat) and mediation as modes of alternative dispute resolution; criminal compounding is not among them.
Where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order has been heard and decided by a single Judge of a High Court, a further intra-court appeal is barred by
aSection 100 CPC
bSection 100A CPC
cSection 96 CPC
dSection 104 CPC
Answer: B
Section 100A CPC, inserted by the 2002 Amendment, contains a non-obstante clause barring any further (Letters Patent) appeal where a single Judge of a High Court has heard and decided the appeal.
An application for restitution to restore parties to the position they occupied before a decree which has since been varied or reversed lies under
aSection 151 CPC
bSection 144 CPC
cSection 47 CPC
dOrder XXI Rule 90 CPC
Answer: B
Section 144 CPC provides for restitution: on variation or reversal of a decree, the Court that passed it shall, on application, cause restitution to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree.
A temporary injunction restraining waste, damage or alienation of property in dispute in a suit may be granted under
aOrder XXXVIII Rule 5 CPC
bOrder XL Rule 1 CPC
cSection 94(c) CPC only
dOrder XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 CPC
Answer: D
Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 CPC empower the Court to grant a temporary injunction where property in dispute is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated, or to restrain breach of contract or other injury.
A public servant attempts to forcibly evict an encroacher in discharge of his lawful duty, and the encroacher attempts to commit suicide in order to restrain the public servant from carrying out the eviction. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this conduct is punishable under;
aSection 309 IPC, which still survives
bNo provision, as attempt to suicide is wholly decriminalised
cSection 226
dSection 224
Answer: C
Section 226 BNS punishes an attempt to commit suicide with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty, with simple imprisonment up to one year, fine, community service, or any combination.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offences of 'kidnapping' and 'abduction' are dealt with respectively in;
aSections 138 and 139
bSections 136 and 137
cSections 359 and 362 IPC, which remain unchanged
dSections 137 and 138
Answer: D
Section 137 BNS defines kidnapping (from India and from lawful guardianship) and Section 138 BNS defines abduction. Abduction by force or deceitful means is not itself punishable unless accompanied by the requisite intent.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is prescribed in;
aSection 105
bSection 102
cSection 103
dSection 101
Answer: C
Murder is defined in Section 101 BNS, while Section 103 prescribes the punishment, namely death or imprisonment for life and fine. Section 103(2) deals specially with murder by a group of five or more on grounds such as race, caste or community.
A delivers a sum of money to B, an agent, to be deposited in a bank, and B dishonestly uses the money for his own purposes. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, B has committed;
aCheating under Section 318
bCriminal breach of trust under Section 316
cTheft under Section 303
dExtortion under Section 308
Answer: B
Where property is entrusted and the person entrusted dishonestly misappropriates or converts it to his own use, the offence is criminal breach of trust under Section 316 BNS.
A threatens to publish a defamatory statement concerning Z unless Z pays him money, and Z thereby pays the money. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A has primarily committed;
aCheating under Section 318
bExtortion under Section 308
cDefamation under Section 356
dCriminal intimidation under Section 351 only
Answer: B
Inducing a person, by putting him in fear of injury (including injury to reputation), dishonestly to deliver property is extortion under Section 308 BNS. The threat to reputation here is the means of the extortion.
A group of seven persons, acting in concert, voluntarily causes grievous hurt to a man on the ground of his caste. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt, including this aggravated group form, is dealt with in;
aSection 117
bSection 115
cSection 118
dSection 116
Answer: A
Section 117 BNS deals with voluntarily causing grievous hurt; its sub-sections specifically cover grievous hurt caused by a group of five or more acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste or community. Voluntarily causing simple hurt is the lesser offence under Section 115.
A sets fire to a stack of grain belonging to Z, intending to cause wrongful loss to Z. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general offence of 'mischief' is defined in;
aSection 324
bSection 322
cSection 326
dSection 329
Answer: A
Mischief is defined under Section 324 BNS, covering the causing of wrongful loss or damage to property with intent or knowledge of likely causing such loss; it falls within Chapter XVII (offences against property), Sections 303 to 334.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the doctrine of common intention — that when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if it were done by him alone — is contained in:
aSection 3(5)
bSection 61
cSection 190
dSection 34
Answer: A
The erstwhile Section 34 IPC has been re-enacted as Section 3(5) of the BNS, 2023, which embodies the rule of constructive (joint) liability based on common intention.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'culpable homicide' is defined in Section 100 and 'murder' in Section 101. The punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder is laid down in:
aSection 103
bSection 104
cSection 106
dSection 105
Answer: D
Section 105 BNS provides the punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder; Section 106 deals with causing death by negligence.
'A', intending to kill 'B', fires at him but the shot misses 'B' and instead kills 'C', a bystander whom 'A' did not intend to harm. The principle that fixes 'A' with liability for the murder of 'C' is:
aThe doctrine of common object
bThe doctrine of last opportunity
cThe doctrine of mens rea
dThe doctrine of transferred malice
Answer: D
Under the doctrine of transferred malice (recognised in BNS, 2023), the intention to kill 'B' is transferred to the killing of 'C', and 'A' is guilty of murder.
Under the General Exceptions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under a certain age. The age fixed by Section 20 BNS for absolute immunity (act of a child) is:
aUnder nine years of age
bUnder seven years of age
cUnder eighteen years of age
dUnder twelve years of age
Answer: B
Section 20 BNS grants absolute immunity to a child under seven years of age (doli incapax); Section 21 deals with a child above seven and under twelve of immature understanding.
The general exception relating to an act done by a person who, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 35
bSection 14
cSection 22
dSection 17
Answer: C
Section 22 BNS (corresponding to Section 84 IPC) provides the defence of unsoundness of mind where the person is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that it is wrong or contrary to law.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the circumstances in which the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death are enumerated in:
aSection 44
bSection 34
cSection 38
dSection 35
Answer: C
Section 35 BNS confers the general right of private defence of body and property, while Section 38 BNS specifies the situations (such as reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt) in which that right extends to causing death.
Under Section 310 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an act amounts to 'dacoity' when robbery is committed or attempted conjointly by:
aThree or more persons
bSeven or more persons
cTwo or more persons
dFive or more persons
Answer: D
Section 310 BNS defines dacoity as robbery committed or attempted by five or more persons acting conjointly (or where the total number including aiders is five or more).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a confession made by an accused while in the custody of a police officer is, as a rule, proved against him only if it is made:
aIn the presence of two independent witnesses
bAfter the accused has been given legal aid
cBefore the Superintendent of Police
dIn the immediate presence of a Magistrate
Answer: D
Section 23(2) of the BSA bars proof of a confession made in police custody against the accused unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate (corresponding to the old Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act).
When a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody, the BSA, 2023 permits proof of:
aOnly so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered
bNothing, the information being wholly inadmissible
cThe whole of the information given by the accused
dOnly the portion that amounts to a confession
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA (former Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act) makes admissible only so much of the information, whether or not it amounts to a confession, as relates distinctly to the fact discovered.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a statement made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death (dying declaration), is relevant under:
aSection 26
bSection 39
cSection 24
dSection 32
Answer: A
Section 26 of the BSA deals with statements by persons who cannot be called as witnesses, including dying declarations, and renders them relevant whatever the nature of the proceeding in which the cause of death comes into question (former Section 32 of the Evidence Act).
Under the BSA, 2023, when the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science, art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of specially skilled persons are relevant as 'expert opinion' under:
aSection 39
bSection 45
cSection 47
dSection 51
Answer: A
Section 39 of the BSA governs expert opinion and expands the field to 'any other field' besides foreign law, science, art and handwriting/finger impressions (former Section 45 of the Evidence Act).
Under Section 57 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an electronic or digital record stored simultaneously or sequentially in multiple files is treated as:
aHearsay evidence
bInadmissible unless corroborated
cSecondary evidence requiring a certificate
dPrimary evidence
Answer: D
Section 57 of the BSA defines primary evidence and, through its explanations, expressly treats electronic and digital records stored in multiple files as primary evidence.
The provision of the BSA, 2023 that 'no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact' is contained in:
aSection 139
bSection 134
cSection 146
dSection 138
Answer: A
Section 139 of the BSA reproduces the rule that no particular number of witnesses is required to prove any fact (former Section 134 of the Evidence Act).
Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice is:
aCompetent only in cases triable by a Magistrate
bCompetent only if granted pardon
cA competent witness against an accused person
dAn incompetent witness against an accused person
Answer: C
Section 138 of the BSA declares an accomplice to be a competent witness against an accused person; the enacted text provides that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice (the BSA wording departs from the repealed Section 133 IEA, which spoke of uncorroborated testimony).
Though an accomplice is a competent witness whose evidence may sustain a conviction, the established rule of prudence is that:
aHis evidence is conclusive proof of guilt
bHis evidence need not be considered at all
cHis evidence requires corroboration in material particulars connecting the accused with the crime
dHis evidence must always be rejected
Answer: C
Read with the presumption in Section 119 of the BSA, accomplice evidence is required to be corroborated in material particulars; this is now also reflected in the enacted text of Section 138 BSA, which provides that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice.
Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a person is incompetent to testify if the Court considers that he is prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers by reason of:
aHis being an accused person
bWant of formal education only
cTender years, extreme old age, or disease of body or mind
dHis interest in the litigation
Answer: C
Section 124 of the BSA makes all persons competent to testify unless prevented from understanding or rationally answering questions by tender years, extreme old age, or disease of body or mind (former Section 118 of the Evidence Act).
Under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the fact that a person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and a man (the mother remaining unmarried) is conclusive proof of legitimacy unless:
aIt is shown that the parties had no access to each other when the child could have been begotten
bThe husband denies paternity on oath
cA DNA test is refused by the mother
dThe child is born within 280 days of marriage
Answer: A
Section 116 of the BSA treats birth during a valid marriage as conclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access between the parties at the time of possible conception is shown (former Section 112 of the Evidence Act).
Under Section 111 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where it is proved that a man has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him had he been alive, the burden of proving that he is alive lies on:
aThe prosecution in every case
bThe person who affirms that he is dead
cThe State
dThe person who affirms that he is alive
Answer: D
Section 111 of the BSA shifts the burden of proving that such a person is alive onto the person who affirms it (former Section 108 of the Evidence Act).
Under Section 128 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a person who is or has been married cannot be compelled to disclose any communication made to him during marriage. This privilege does NOT apply in:
aAny civil suit between strangers
bSuits between the married persons, or prosecution of one for an offence against the other
cProceedings for partition of joint family property
dAny criminal case against a third party
Answer: B
Section 128 of the BSA protects marital communications, but the privilege is lifted in suits between the married persons and in prosecutions of one spouse for an offence against the other (former Section 122 of the Evidence Act).
Under Section 146 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is a leading question. Such questions, if objected to, must generally NOT be asked in:
aCross-examination
bExamination-in-chief and re-examination
cExamination of an expert witness
dExamination of a hostile witness
Answer: B
Section 146 of the BSA defines leading questions and, like the former Section 142 of the Evidence Act, bars them in examination-in-chief and re-examination (if objected to) while permitting them in cross-examination.
Under Section 52 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court shall take judicial notice of all of the following EXCEPT:
aThe seals of all Courts and Tribunals
bThe territories under the dominion of the Government of India
cAll laws in force in the territory of India
dA private agreement between two contracting parties
Answer: D
Section 52 of the BSA enumerates facts of which the Court must take judicial notice (laws in force, seals of courts, government territories, etc.); a private agreement between parties is a fact to be proved, not judicially noticed (former Section 57 of the Evidence Act).
Under Section 15 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an admission is a statement, oral, documentary or contained in electronic form, which:
aCan only be made by an accused person
bMust always be made before a Magistrate
cSuggests any inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact, made by the persons and in the circumstances mentioned in the Act
dIs conclusive proof of the matters admitted
Answer: C
Section 15 of the BSA defines an admission as a statement suggesting an inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact; admissions are not conclusive proof but may operate as estoppel (former Section 17 of the Evidence Act).
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision empowering the High Court or the Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail (direction for release in the event of arrest) is now contained in;
aSection 482
bSection 480
cSection 438
dSection 484
Answer: A
The anticipatory bail provision earlier found in Section 438 CrPC is re-enacted, in substance, as Section 482 BNSS.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a complaint is received by a police station relating to an offence committed outside the limits of its own jurisdiction (a 'Zero FIR'), after registering the FIR the station is required to;
aForward the informant to the District Magistrate for orders
bRegister it and transfer the FIR to the police station having jurisdiction
cRefuse to register it and direct the informant to the proper police station
dRegister it only after obtaining permission of the Magistrate
Answer: B
Under Section 173 BNSS, a Zero FIR must be registered irrespective of jurisdiction and then forwarded/transferred to the police station within whose territorial jurisdiction the offence was actually committed.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the report of a police officer on completion of investigation (the 'police report' or charge-sheet, corresponding to Section 173(2) of the old Code) is forwarded to the Magistrate under;
aSection 190
bSection 173
cSection 193
dSection 210
Answer: C
Section 193 BNSS deals with the report of the police officer on completion of investigation, corresponding to Section 173 of the old CrPC, 1973.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where information is given to a police officer by electronic communication regarding a cognizable offence, it shall be taken on record only if it is signed by the person giving it within;
aThree days
bFifteen days
cSeven days
dTwenty-four hours
Answer: A
Under the proviso to Section 173(1) BNSS, information given by electronic communication must be signed by the person giving it within three days for it to be taken on record.
A and B are charged with a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of eight years. During investigation under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the police fail to videograph the collection of forensic evidence from the scene of crime as required. Which of the following best states the legal position regarding the forensic requirement?
aForensic examination is optional for all offences and the lapse is immaterial
bForensic examination is required only when ordered by the Magistrate
cVideographing of forensic collection is mandatory because the offence is punishable with seven years or more
dForensic examination becomes mandatory only for offences punishable with imprisonment for life
Answer: C
Section 176(3) BNSS makes forensic-expert visits and video-recording mandatory for offences punishable with seven years or more, so the eight-year offence attracts the requirement.
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, came into force on 1st July 2024 and consists of a total of;
a484 sections
b358 sections
c511 sections
d531 sections
Answer: D
The BNSS, 2023 contains 531 sections arranged in 39 chapters, replacing the 484 sections of the CrPC, 1973, and came into force on 1 July 2024.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a police officer's power to arrest any person who, in the officer's presence, commits a cognizable offence, without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, is contained in;
aSection 35
bSection 41
cSection 50
dSection 57
Answer: A
Section 35 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 41 of the old CrPC) empowers a police officer to arrest without warrant a person who commits a cognizable offence in the officer's presence.
Under the BNSS, 2023, a person arrested without a warrant must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within twenty-four hours of arrest (excluding journey time). This safeguard is contained in;
aSection 60
bSection 47
cSection 56
dSection 58
Answer: D
Section 58 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 57 of the old CrPC) prohibits detention of an arrested person beyond twenty-four hours, exclusive of journey time, without a special order of a Magistrate under Section 187.
Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, the maximum period of detention permitted during investigation, beyond which the accused is entitled to default (statutory) bail, where the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, is;
aNinety days
bOne hundred and eighty days
cSixty days
dSeventy-five days
Answer: A
Under Section 187(3) BNSS, default bail accrues after ninety days where the offence is punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment of ten years or more; sixty days for any other offence.
Under the BNSS, 2023, an application for anticipatory bail, by a person who apprehends arrest on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence, is made to the High Court or Court of Session under;
aSection 478
bSection 484
cSection 482
dSection 480
Answer: C
Section 482 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 438 of the old CrPC) deals with direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest, i.e. anticipatory bail.
Under the BNSS, 2023, an order for maintenance of wives, children and parents who are unable to maintain themselves may be passed by a Magistrate of the first class under;
aSection 125
bSection 144
cSection 132
dSection 164
Answer: B
Section 144 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 125 of the old CrPC) empowers a Magistrate of the first class to order maintenance for wives, children and parents unable to maintain themselves.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the provision permitting registration of information relating to a cognizable offence at any police station irrespective of the area within which the offence is committed (the 'Zero FIR'), and its registration through electronic communication, is found in;
aSection 179
bSection 154
cSection 173
dSection 175
Answer: C
Section 173 BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 154 of the old CrPC) now expressly permits FIR registration irrespective of jurisdiction (Zero FIR) and through electronic means.
Under Section 173 of the BNSS, 2023, where information relates to a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, may conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists, within;
aThirty days
bTwenty-one days
cFourteen days
dSeven days
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 173(3) BNSS, 2023 permits a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days for offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, with prior DSP-rank permission.
The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were inserted in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by the;
a44th Constitutional Amendment Act
bConstitution (First Amendment) Act
c24th Constitutional Amendment Act
d42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer: D
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble and substituted 'unity and integrity of the Nation' for 'unity of the Nation'.
The right to property was deleted as a fundamental right and made a constitutional right under Article 300A by the;
a1st Constitutional Amendment Act
b42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
c25th Constitutional Amendment Act
d44th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer: D
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 and inserted Article 300A in Part XII, making the right to property a constitutional, not fundamental, right.
The expression 'internal disturbance' as a ground for proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 was substituted by 'armed rebellion' by the;
a59th Constitutional Amendment Act
b42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
c44th Constitutional Amendment Act
d38th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer: C
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' in Article 352 to narrow the grounds for declaring a National Emergency.
During the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency, which of the following fundamental rights can NOT be suspended even by an order under Article 359;
aRights conferred by Article 20 and Article 21
bRights conferred by Article 32 alone
cRights conferred by Article 14 and Article 19
dRights conferred by Article 25 and Article 26
Answer: A
The 44th Amendment provided that the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a Proclamation of Emergency, a safeguard introduced after the 1975 Emergency.
The directive that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India is contained in;
aArticle 41 of the Constitution
bArticle 44 of the Constitution
cArticle 48 of the Constitution
dArticle 39 of the Constitution
Answer: B
Article 44, a Directive Principle of State Policy in Part IV, directs the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout the territory of India.
Which one of the following writs is issued to a public official to compel the performance of a public duty which he has failed or refused to perform;
aCertiorari
bMandamus
cQuo warranto
dProhibition
Answer: B
A writ of mandamus is a command issued by a court directing a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty which it has failed or refused to discharge.
A Money Bill, as defined in the Constitution, can be introduced in Parliament only;
aIn a joint sitting of both Houses
bIn the Lok Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President
cIn either House with the recommendation of the Speaker
dIn the Rajya Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President
Answer: B
Under Article 110 read with Article 117, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and only on the recommendation of the President.
The President of India may, under Article 143, refer for the opinion of the Supreme Court;
aOnly questions relating to the validity of a constitutional amendment
bAny question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or is likely to arise
cOnly disputes between the Government of India and one or more States
dOnly questions concerning the election of the President
Answer: B
Article 143 (advisory jurisdiction) permits the President to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact which has arisen or is likely to arise and is of such public importance that the Court's opinion is expedient.
The procedure that an amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament is laid down in;
aArticle 356
bArticle 370
cArticle 368
dArticle 360
Answer: C
Article 368 prescribes the power and procedure for amending the Constitution, providing that an amendment may be initiated by introducing a Bill in either House of Parliament.
Protection against arrest and detention conferred by Article 22(1) and (2) is NOT available to a person who is;
aA juvenile in conflict with law
bAn enemy alien or a person detained under a law providing for preventive detention
cArrested without a warrant by a police officer
dArrested for a non-cognizable offence
Answer: B
Article 22(3) expressly excludes enemy aliens and persons detained under preventive detention laws from the protections in Article 22(1) and (2), such as the right to be informed of grounds of arrest and production before a magistrate within 24 hours.
Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, sapinda relationship is traced, unless custom or usage permits otherwise:
aUp to the third generation through both parents
bUp to the third generation (inclusive) through the mother and the fifth (inclusive) through the father
cUp to the fifth generation through the mother and the third through the father
dUp to the seventh generation through both parents
Answer: B
Section 3(f) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 extends the sapinda relationship to the third generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father, the person concerned being counted as the first generation.
For a decree of divorce by mutual consent under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the motion of both parties for passing the decree must be made:
aNot earlier than three months and not later than one year of presenting the petition
bNot earlier than one year and not later than two years of presenting the petition
cNot earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months of presenting the petition
dAt any time after presenting the petition
Answer: C
Section 13B(2) requires that the parties have been living separately for at least one year and that the second motion be made not earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months after presentation of the petition. The six-month period is the statutory cooling-off period.
Under Section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, at the time of marriage the bridegroom and the bride must respectively have completed the age of:
a18 years and 16 years
b21 years and 18 years
c21 years and 21 years
d18 years and 18 years
Answer: B
Section 5(iii) prescribes that the bridegroom must have completed 21 years and the bride 18 years at the time of the marriage. Contravention does not render the marriage void but attracts penal consequences under Section 18.
The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is provided in:
aSection 13
bSection 10
cSection 12
dSection 9
Answer: D
Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with restitution of conjugal rights, allowing the aggrieved spouse to seek a decree where the other has withdrawn from society without reasonable excuse. Section 10 deals with judicial separation and Section 13 with divorce.
In Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020), the Supreme Court held that a daughter becomes a coparcener by birth under the amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
aOnly if she was born after 9 September 2005
bOnly if she was unmarried on 9 September 2005
cOnly if her father was alive on 9 September 2005
dIrrespective of whether her father was alive on 9 September 2005
Answer: D
In Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020) 9 SCC 1, the Supreme Court held that coparcenary right accrues to a daughter by birth, so it is not necessary that the father coparcener be living on 9 September 2005; the substituted Section 6 operates retroactively.
Under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, where a male Hindu dies intestate, his property devolves in the absence of any Class I and Class II heirs:
aFirstly upon his agnates and then upon his cognates
bUpon the State by escheat
cFirstly upon his cognates and then upon his agnates
dEqually between agnates and cognates
Answer: A
Section 8 lays the order: Class I heirs, then Class II heirs, then agnates, and lastly cognates. Agnates (related wholly through males) are preferred over cognates (related through one or more females).
Under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired before or after the commencement of the Act, is held by her:
aAs a limited owner during her lifetime
bAs a life estate reverting to the husband's heirs
cAs a trustee for the reversioners
dAs a full owner and not as a limited owner
Answer: D
Section 14(1) converts a Hindu female's limited estate into absolute ownership, declaring that property possessed by her, however acquired, is held as full owner and not as a limited owner. The sub-section (2) exception applies only to gifts/instruments prescribing a restricted estate.
Under Section 15 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the property of a female Hindu dying intestate devolves firstly upon:
aThe heirs of the father
bThe heirs of the husband
cHer mother and father
dThe sons and daughters (including children of any predeceased son or daughter) and the husband
Answer: D
Under Section 15(1)(a), the first entry of heirs comprises the sons and daughters (including the children of any predeceased son or daughter) and the husband, who take simultaneously by virtue of Section 16. The husband's heirs and parents come in later entries.
Under Section 8 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, a natural guardian who transfers the minor's immovable property by sale without the previous permission of the court, such transfer is:
aValid only if for legal necessity
bValid and binding on the minor
cVoidable at the instance of the minor or any person claiming under him
dVoid ab initio
Answer: C
Section 8(2) bars a natural guardian from alienating the minor's immovable property without prior court permission, and Section 8(3) makes any such alienation voidable at the instance of the minor or any person claiming under him.
Under Section 11(iii) and 11(iv) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a male adopts a daughter (or a female adopts a son), the adoptive parent must be older than the child being adopted by at least:
a18 years
b15 years
c21 years
d10 years
Answer: C
Section 11(iii) requires that in adopting a daughter, the adoptive father be at least 21 years older than the child; Section 11(iv) imposes the same 21-year age gap where an adoptive mother adopts a son. This safeguards against marriageable-relationship adoptions.
Under Section 7 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a male Hindu of sound mind who is married and whose wife is living can validly take a child in adoption only:
aWith the consent of his wife, unless she has renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu, or been declared of unsound mind
bWithout any consent, as the husband alone has capacity
cWith the permission of the district court
dWith the consent of his nearest sapinda
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 7 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 makes the wife's consent mandatory for a married male's adoption, dispensing with it only where she has completely renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu, or been finally adjudged of unsound mind.
Who is the incumbent Chief Minister of Haryana, having taken charge for a second term after the 2024 Assembly election?
aManohar Lal Khattar
bNayab Singh Saini
cBhupinder Singh Hooda
dDushyant Chautala
Answer: B
Nayab Singh Saini became Chief Minister of Haryana in March 2024 and was reappointed for a second term after leading the BJP to victory in the 2024 Haryana Legislative Assembly election.
Who, having earlier served as the Advocate General of Haryana, assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24th November, 2025?
aJustice Sheel Nagu
bJustice Ashwani Kumar Mishra
cJustice B. R. Gavai
dJustice Surya Kant
Answer: D
Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B. R. Gavai. He had earlier served as Advocate General of Haryana before his elevation to the Bench.
Who, among the following, is the incumbent Chief Minister of Haryana, having taken oath for a second consecutive term?
aAnil Vij
bBhupinder Singh Hooda
cNayab Singh Saini
dManohar Lal Khattar
Answer: C
Nayab Singh Saini is the incumbent Chief Minister of Haryana, having been sworn in for a second consecutive term following the 2024 Assembly elections.
The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to María Corina Machado for her work in promoting democratic rights in which country?
aNicaragua
bVenezuela
cCuba
dColombia
Answer: B
The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize to María Corina Machado for her work promoting democratic rights for the people of Venezuela and her struggle for a peaceful transition from dictatorship to democracy.
The State of Haryana was carved out of the erstwhile State of Punjab and came into existence on;
a1st November, 1956
b15th August, 1947
c26th January, 1950
d1st November, 1966
Answer: D
Haryana attained separate statehood on 1 November 1966 on the reorganisation of the State of Punjab, becoming the seventeenth State of the Indian Union.
When a person at whose option a voidable contract is rescinded rescinds it, the consequence regarding any benefit received under the contract is governed by:
aSection 56
bSection 62
cSection 70
dSection 64
Answer: D
Section 64 provides that when a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, the other party need not perform any promise, and the rescinding party must restore any benefit received from the other party to the contract.
Where an agent makes a contract for the sale of goods for a principal who is not named, and the agent does not contract personally, the agent under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act:
aIs personally liable in all cases
bBecomes the sole party to the contract
cCannot, in the absence of a contrary contract, personally enforce contracts entered into on behalf of the principal, nor is he personally bound by them
dIs liable jointly with the principal in every case
Answer: C
Section 230 lays down that, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, an agent cannot personally enforce contracts entered into by him on behalf of his principal, nor is he personally bound by them.
The delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them, is defined as:
aAn agency under Section 182
bA pledge under Section 172
cAn indemnity under Section 124
dA bailment under Section 148
Answer: D
Section 148 defines bailment as the delivery of goods by one person (bailor) to another (bailee) for some purpose, upon a contract that they be returned or disposed of according to the bailor's directions once the purpose is accomplished.
Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration may move from;
aThe promisee only
bOnly a party to the contract
cThe promisee or any other person
dThe promisor only
Answer: C
Section 2(d) provides that consideration may be furnished by 'the promisee or any other person', thereby recognising consideration moving from a third party (as in Chinnaya v. Ramayya).
An agreement made without consideration is valid where it is a promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor. This exception is contained in;
aSection 26
bSection 25(2)
cSection 25(3)
dSection 25(1)
Answer: B
Section 25(2) validates a promise without consideration to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor.
A agrees to sell B 'all the grain in my granary at Ramnagar'. The agreement is;
aVoid for uncertainty
bA valid and enforceable contract
cVoidable at the option of A
dVoid as a wagering agreement
Answer: B
This is illustration (c) to Section 29; the quantity is capable of being made certain, so the agreement is not void for uncertainty and is a valid contract.
An unregistered firm files a suit against a third party to enforce a right arising from a contract. The defect of non-registration under Section 69 of the Partnership Act will;
aBar the suit, since no suit to enforce a contractual right can be instituted by or on behalf of an unregistered firm
bBar only suits for recovery of money exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees
cOnly delay the suit until the firm is registered during its pendency
dHave no effect on the maintainability of the suit
Answer: A
Section 69 bars a suit to enforce a right arising from a contract by or on behalf of an unregistered firm against a third party unless the firm is registered and the suing partners are shown in the Register of Firms.
Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, 'partnership' is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by;
aa majority of them acting for the rest
ball or any of them acting for all
call of them only
dany one of them acting for himself
Answer: B
Section 4 defines partnership as the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all, embodying the principle of mutual agency.
While determining the existence of a partnership under Section 6 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the sharing of profits by a person;
araises an irrebuttable presumption of partnership
bis wholly irrelevant to the question of partnership
cis by itself conclusive proof that he is a partner
dis a relevant fact but not by itself conclusive that he is a partner
Answer: D
Section 6 provides that in determining whether a partnership exists regard must be had to the real relation between the parties; receipt of a share of profits is a relevant fact but, by itself, is not conclusive of partnership.
A partnership in which no provision is made for the duration of the partnership or for the determination of the partnership is, under Section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, called a;
ajoint adventure
blimited partnership
cpartnership at will
dparticular partnership
Answer: C
Section 7 defines a 'partnership at will' as one where there is no provision in the contract for the duration of the partnership or for its determination.
The general rule embodied in Section 16 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, subject to the exceptions therein, is best expressed by which maxim;
aNemo dat quod non habet
bCaveat emptor
cUberrima fides
dRes perit domino
Answer: B
Section 16 opens by stating there is no implied warranty or condition as to quality or fitness 'except as follows', codifying the rule of caveat emptor (let the buyer beware), subject to the statutory exceptions.
Where there is a contract for the sale of unascertained goods, Section 18 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides that;
aProperty passes immediately on making the contract
bNo property in the goods is transferred to the buyer unless and until the goods are ascertained
cProperty passes only on delivery of the goods
dThe contract is void for uncertainty
Answer: B
Section 18 lays down that in a contract for the sale of unascertained goods no property passes to the buyer unless and until the goods are ascertained.
The principle that, unless otherwise agreed, the goods remain at the seller's risk until property is transferred to the buyer is embodied in Section 26 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 and is expressed by the maxim;
aRes perit domino
bVolenti non fit injuria
cCaveat emptor
dNemo dat quod non habet
Answer: A
Section 26 ties risk to property ('res perit domino' the thing perishes for its owner): unless otherwise agreed, risk passes with property whether or not delivery has been made.
In computing the period of limitation for an appeal under Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following is to be excluded?
aOnly the time taken by the appellant in engaging an advocate
bThe entire vacation period of the appellate court irrespective of any application for copy
cThe day from which the period is to be reckoned, the day of the judgment, and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree or order appealed from
dOnly the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced
Answer: C
Section 12 excludes the day from which the period is reckoned, the day of the judgment appealed from, and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order.
Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 permits exclusion of the time during which the plaintiff has been prosecuting another civil proceeding, provided the earlier proceeding was
aabandoned by the plaintiff before any order on merits was passed
bprosecuted in any court, irrespective of good faith, so long as it related to the same matter
cinstituted against a different defendant on a different cause of action
dprosecuted with due diligence and in good faith in a court which, from defect of jurisdiction or other like cause, was unable to entertain it
Answer: D
Section 14 excludes time spent prosecuting, in good faith and with due diligence, a prior civil proceeding in a court unable to entertain it for want of jurisdiction or other like cause.
Where a suit or application is based upon the fraud of the defendant, Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that the period of limitation does not begin to run until
aa criminal court convicts the defendant of the fraud
bthe defendant admits the fraud in writing
cthe plaintiff has discovered the fraud, or could, with reasonable diligence, have discovered it
dthe date on which the cause of action first arose
Answer: C
Under Section 17, in cases of fraud or mistake, limitation runs only from when the plaintiff discovered the fraud or mistake, or with reasonable diligence could have discovered it.
Under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018), which of the following contracts CANNOT be specifically enforced;
aA contract the performance of which involves a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
bA contract to execute a registered lease deed
cA contract for the sale of immovable property
dA contract for transfer of shares of a private company
Answer: A
Section 14(b) bars specific enforcement of a contract whose performance involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise.
A person suing for the specific performance of a contract must, under Section 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended), in the pleadings;
aobtain prior permission of the court to file the suit
bprove beyond reasonable doubt that he tendered the consideration
cdeposit the entire consideration in court before filing the suit
daver performance of, or readiness and willingness to perform, the essential terms of the contract
Answer: D
After the 2018 Amendment, Section 16(c) requires the plaintiff to aver (not 'prove' as earlier) and establish readiness and willingness to perform the essential terms of the contract.
Under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted;
ato restrain a continuing breach of an obligation in favour of the plaintiff
bto prevent the breach of an express trust
cto restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit, unless to prevent multiplicity of proceedings
dto compel performance of a contract that can be specifically enforced
Answer: C
Section 41(a) bars an injunction restraining a person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit, except where necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings.
Under Mohammadan Law, the dower (mahr) is best described as;
aA sum of money or property which the wife is entitled to receive from the husband in consideration of the marriage
bA voluntary charity payable only on divorce
cA gift made by the wife's father at the time of marriage
dA penalty payable to the State on dissolution of marriage
Answer: A
Mahr is a sum of money or property which the wife is entitled to receive from the husband in consideration of the marriage; it is an obligation imposed by law on the husband.
Under Section 17(2) read with Section 18 of the Registration Act, 1908, a certificate of sale granted to the purchaser of property sold by public auction by a Civil or Revenue Officer is;
aNot compulsorily registrable; its registration is optional
bCompulsorily registrable as it transfers immovable property
cWholly exempt and incapable of registration
dRegistrable only with the prior sanction of the District Court
Answer: A
A certificate of sale granted by a Civil or Revenue Officer on a public auction is excepted from compulsory registration under Section 17(2)(xii) and falls within the optionally registrable documents.
Under Section 23 of the Registration Act, 1908, no document other than a will shall be accepted for registration unless presented for that purpose within;
aFour months from the date of its execution
bOne month from the date of its execution
cThree months from the date of its execution
dSix months from the date of its execution
Answer: A
Section 23 requires every document other than a will to be presented for registration within four months from the date of its execution; a will may be presented at any time.
Where on an eviction application the Controller directs the tenant to put the landlord in possession, the proviso to Section 13 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 permits him to give the tenant reasonable time for delivering possession, but such time may be extended so as not to exceed, in the aggregate;
aOne year
bSix months
cOne month
dThree months
Answer: D
The provisos to Section 13(2) and 13(4) allow the Controller to grant the tenant reasonable time to vacate, extendable so as not to exceed three months in the aggregate.
Under the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, no person shall convert a residential building into a non-residential building except with the permission in writing of the;
aController appointed under the Act
bDeputy Commissioner of the district
cMunicipal Committee of the urban area
dState Government
Answer: A
Section 11 prohibits converting a residential building into a non-residential building except with the written permission of the Controller appointed by the State Government under the Act.
The defence of 'inevitable accident' in the law of torts is most accurately described as;
aAn accident that could not have been avoided by the exercise of ordinary care, caution and skill
bAny harm caused by an extraordinary operation of natural forces alone
cHarm caused with the free consent of the plaintiff
dHarm caused by a third party for whose acts the defendant is responsible
Answer: A
Inevitable accident is one that could not have been avoided despite the exercise of ordinary care, caution and skill by the defendant. It is distinct from 'Act of God', which involves extraordinary natural forces (option b describes vis major).
Under the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, the liability of a person who brings onto his land and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes is best described as liability that arises;
aStrictly, on the escape of the dangerous thing kept by a non-natural user of land, subject to recognised exceptions
bAbsolutely, with no exception whatsoever, including act of God
cOnly where the escaping thing causes personal injury and not mere property damage
dOnly on proof of negligence on the part of the occupier
Answer: A
Rylands v. Fletcher (1868) lays down strict liability: a person who for a non-natural use brings and keeps a dangerous thing on his land is liable for damage caused by its escape, even without negligence, but the rule admits exceptions such as act of God, plaintiff's own fault and consent.
Under Section 44-A of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918, the period of limitation for a second appeal under Section 41 is:
aThirty days from the date of the decree appealed against
bNinety days from the date of the decree appealed against
cOne hundred and twenty days from the date of the decree appealed against
dSixty days from the date of the decree appealed against
Answer: B
Section 44-A(1) fixes the period of limitation for an appeal under Section 41 at ninety days from the date of the decree appealed against, computation in other respects being governed by the Limitation Act.
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