Bihar Judiciary Mock Test 1 — Questions & Solutions
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The Patna High Court, one of the oldest High Courts in India, was formally established in the year
a1862
b1916
c1935
d1950
Answer: B
The Patna High Court was established on 3 February 1916 and inaugurated by Viceroy Lord Hardinge on 1 March 1916, making it one of the oldest High Courts in the country.
Who took oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar in November 2025 following the State Legislative Assembly elections of that year?
aTejashwi Yadav
bNitish Kumar
cSamrat Choudhary
dVijay Kumar Sinha
Answer: B
After the NDA's victory in the 2025 Bihar Assembly elections, Nitish Kumar of the JD(U) was sworn in as Chief Minister for a record tenth time on 20 November 2025.
The historic Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, the first civil disobedience movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in India, was launched in support of the
apeasants of Kheda
btextile workers of Ahmedabad
csalt makers of Gujarat
dindigo cultivators of Bihar
Answer: D
At Champaran in Bihar, Gandhi took up the cause of indigo cultivators exploited under the tinkathia system, marking his first Satyagraha on Indian soil.
Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to declare a National Emergency on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion?
aArticle 360
bArticle 356
cArticle 352
dArticle 370
Answer: C
Article 352 deals with the proclamation of a National Emergency; Article 356 covers President's Rule in States and Article 360 covers a financial emergency.
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India through which Constitutional Amendment Act?
a100th Amendment
b103rd Amendment
c102nd Amendment
d101st Amendment
Answer: D
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 inserted Article 246A and other provisions enabling the levy of GST, which came into force on 1 July 2017.
On which date was the Province of Bihar and Orissa separated from the Bengal Presidency, an event commemorated annually as 'Bihar Diwas'?
a1 April 1936
b22 March 1912
c26 January 1950
d15 November 2000
Answer: B
Bihar and Orissa were carved out of the Bengal Presidency on 22 March 1912, and the date is celebrated each year as Bihar Diwas. (1 April 1936 marks the later split of Bihar and Orissa into separate provinces.)
The ancient Nalanda Mahavihara is traditionally held to have been founded by which Gupta ruler?
aChandragupta I
bSamudragupta
cSkandagupta
dKumaragupta I
Answer: D
Nalanda Mahavihara, in present-day Bihar, was formally established as a great monastery-university under the Gupta emperor Kumaragupta I (Shakraditya), who reigned in the early 5th century CE.
Mahatma Gandhi launched his first Satyagraha in India in 1917 over the grievances of indigo cultivators in which district of Bihar?
aChamparan
bSaran
cMunger
dGaya
Answer: A
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, concerning the exploitative indigo (tinkathia) system, was Gandhi's first civil-disobedience experiment on Indian soil.
Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to declare a Proclamation of Emergency on the ground of failure of constitutional machinery in a State?
aArticle 352
bArticle 356
cArticle 360
dArticle 365
Answer: B
Article 356 provides for President's Rule when the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. Article 352 deals with national emergency and Article 360 with financial emergency.
Who was the first person to be appointed Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of independent India?
aJawaharlal Nehru
bRajendra Prasad
cVallabhbhai Patel
dMaulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer: C
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India and is credited with the integration of the princely states.
Vardhamana Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, is traditionally believed to have been born at Vaishali (Kundagrama) in which present-day State?
aUttar Pradesh
bWest Bengal
cJharkhand
dBihar
Answer: D
Mahavira is traditionally said to have been born at Kundagrama near Vaishali, in present-day Bihar, a region closely associated with both Jainism and Buddhism.
The Sun Temple at Deo and the famous Chhath Puja celebrations are most closely associated with which State?
aOdisha
bTamil Nadu
cGujarat
dBihar
Answer: D
Chhath, the festival of worship of the Sun god (Surya), is most prominently observed in Bihar, where the ancient Deo Sun Temple in Aurangabad district is a major centre of devotion.
'Bihar Diwas' is celebrated every year on 22 March to mark the day in 1912 when Bihar was carved out as a separate province from which presidency?
aMadras Presidency
bBombay Presidency
cBengal Presidency
dAgra Presidency
Answer: C
On 22 March 1912 the Bihar and Orissa divisions were separated from the Bengal Presidency to form the new Province of Bihar and Orissa, an event commemorated as Bihar Diwas.
Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session?
aArticle 213
bArticle 123
cArticle 356
dArticle 352
Answer: B
Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament; Article 213 confers the analogous power on a Governor for the State Legislature.
Sachin Tendulkar, the first batsman to score 100 international centuries, was awarded India's highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna, in which year?
a2008
b2011
c2018
d2014
Answer: D
Sachin Tendulkar was conferred the Bharat Ratna in 2014, becoming the first sportsperson and the youngest recipient of the award.
The Patna High Court, one of the oldest High Courts in India, was established in the year
a1916
b1862
c1935
d1950
Answer: A
The Patna High Court was established on 3 February 1916 (official work began on 1 March 1916) after the separation of Bihar and Orissa from the Bengal Presidency.
In November 2025, who took oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar following the NDA's victory in the Bihar Legislative Assembly elections?
aTejashwi Yadav
bNitish Kumar
cVijay Kumar Sinha
dSamrat Choudhary
Answer: B
After the NDA won 202 of 243 seats in the 2025 Bihar Assembly elections, Nitish Kumar took oath as Chief Minister for a record tenth time in November 2025.
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, led by Mahatma Gandhi, was directed against the exploitation of cultivators under which system?
aTinkathia system
bRyotwari system
cMahalwari system
dPermanent Settlement
Answer: A
The Champaran Satyagraha opposed the Tinkathia system, under which indigo planters compelled tenants of Champaran (Bihar) to grow indigo on a fixed portion of their land.
Under the Constitution of India, the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is conferred on the Supreme Court by which Article?
aArticle 14
bArticle 32
cArticle 19
dArticle 226
Answer: B
Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights; Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
The ancient university of Nalanda, a major centre of Buddhist learning whose ruins are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in which present-day State?
aUttar Pradesh
bWest Bengal
cBihar
dOdisha
Answer: C
Nalanda Mahavihara is located in the present-day Nalanda district of Bihar; its archaeological ruins were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2016.
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will the same sum become four times itself at the same rate?
a16 years
b24 years
c32 years
d12 years
Answer: B
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years (rate 12.5%); to become four times, the interest must equal three times the principal, taking 3 x 8 = 24 years.
In the 2025 Bihar Legislative Assembly elections, which alliance secured a decisive majority by winning 202 of the 243 seats?
aMahagathbandhan (RJD-led)
bIndian National Congress alone
cNational Democratic Alliance (NDA)
dLeft Front
Answer: C
The NDA swept the November 2025 Bihar Assembly polls with 202 seats, while the RJD-led Mahagathbandhan was reduced to about 35 seats. Nitish Kumar was again chosen to lead the alliance as Chief Minister.
The ancient Nalanda Mahavihara, whose archaeological remains in Bihar were inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2016, is traditionally credited to have been founded by which Gupta ruler?
aSamudragupta
bChandragupta II
cKumaragupta I
dSkandagupta
Answer: C
Nalanda Mahavihara was founded in the 5th century CE by Kumaragupta I of the Gupta dynasty and flourished as a centre of learning for about 800 years. It was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site on 15 July 2016.
India's Chandrayaan-3 mission made the Vikram lander achieve a soft landing near the lunar south pole. On which date in 2023 did this historic touchdown take place?
a23 August 2023
b14 July 2023
c5 September 2023
d2 September 2023
Answer: A
Chandrayaan-3 was launched on 14 July 2023 and the Vikram lander touched down near the Moon's south pole on 23 August 2023, making India the first nation to land in that region.
At the G20 Summit hosted by India in New Delhi in September 2023, which regional grouping was admitted as a new permanent member of the G20?
aASEAN
bSAARC
cThe African Union
dThe Arab League
Answer: C
At the 2023 New Delhi G20 Summit, the 55-member African Union was inducted as a permanent member, becoming only the second regional bloc after the European Union to gain that status.
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, Mahatma Gandhi's first major civil disobedience movement in India, was directed against the exploitation of cultivators under which system?
aThe Permanent Settlement
bThe Ryotwari system
cThe Mahalwari system
dThe Tinkathia (indigo) system
Answer: D
In Champaran (Bihar), peasants were forced under the Tinkathia system to grow indigo on a fixed portion of their land for European planters. Gandhi's 1917 satyagraha there secured relief for the cultivators.
Which Mauryan emperor, after the Kalinga war, embraced Buddhism and got his edicts inscribed on rocks and pillars across the subcontinent?
aBindusara
bDasharatha
cChandragupta Maurya
dAshoka
Answer: D
Ashoka, grandson of Chandragupta Maurya, was filled with remorse after the Kalinga war (c. 261 BCE) and adopted Buddhism, propagating dhamma through his rock and pillar edicts.
Under the Constitution of India, the right of any person against self-incrimination is guaranteed by which Article?
aArticle 20(3)
bArticle 19(1)(a)
cArticle 21
dArticle 22(1)
Answer: A
Article 20(3) provides that no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself, embodying the protection against self-incrimination.
The writ that is issued by a court to call up the records of a lower court or tribunal to examine the legality of its decision is known as:
aCertiorari
bMandamus
cQuo Warranto
dHabeas Corpus
Answer: A
Certiorari ('to be certified') is issued by a superior court to quash an order of a lower court or tribunal that acted without jurisdiction or in error. Mandamus commands performance of a duty, while Quo Warranto questions a person's right to hold a public office.
A sum of money becomes Rs. 2,000 in 2 years and Rs. 2,400 in 4 years at simple interest. What is the principal sum?
aRs. 1,600
bRs. 1,500
cRs. 1,800
dRs. 2,000
Answer: A
The interest for 2 years (years 2 to 4) is 2400 - 2000 = Rs. 400, so interest per year is Rs. 200. For the first 2 years interest is Rs. 400, hence principal = 2000 - 400 = Rs. 1,600.
Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'CANDID'.
aFrank
bEvasive
cHonest
dSincere
Answer: B
'Candid' means open, frank and straightforward; its antonym is 'evasive', meaning avoiding the truth or being indirect. The other options are synonyms of candid.
The river known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' on account of its frequent course changes and devastating floods in north Bihar is the
aGandak
bSone
cKosi
dBagmati
Answer: C
The Kosi (Saptakoshi), a north-bank tributary of the Ganga rising in Nepal, has shifted its course westward by over 120 km in 200 years and is called the 'Sorrow of Bihar' for its silt-laden floods.
Bihar Diwas is observed every year on 22 March to mark the day in 1912 on which Bihar was carved out of the Province of
aBengal
bAwadh
cthe Central Provinces
dBombay
Answer: A
On 22 March 1912 the Bihar and Orissa divisions were separated from the Bengal Presidency to form the Province of Bihar and Orissa, with Patna as capital; the day is celebrated as Bihar Diwas.
The Patna High Court, one of the oldest in India, commenced its work in which year?
a1862
b1916
c1935
d1950
Answer: B
The Patna High Court was established on 3 February 1916 and began functioning from 1 March 1916, with Sir Edward Chamier as its first Chief Justice; it initially had jurisdiction over Bihar and Orissa.
The archaeological site of Nalanda Mahavihara in Bihar was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in the year
a2002
b2010
c2021
d2016
Answer: D
The ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site on 15 July 2016, becoming Bihar's second such site after the Mahabodhi Temple at Bodh Gaya.
The ancient kingdom of Magadha, whose successive capitals were Rajgir and Pataliputra, lay in present-day
aBihar
bUttar Pradesh
cOdisha
dWest Bengal
Answer: A
Magadha, the cradle of the Maurya and Gupta empires, was centred in south Bihar; its early capital Girivraja/Rajgir later gave way to Pataliputra (modern Patna).
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, the first civil disobedience movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in India, was directed against the oppression of cultivators forced to grow
aIndigo
bCotton
cJute
dOpium
Answer: A
In Champaran (north Bihar) European planters compelled peasants to cultivate indigo under the tinkathia system; Gandhi's 1917 satyagraha there was his first in India.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, hailed from which present-day State?
aBengal
bBihar
cMaharashtra
dMadras
Answer: B
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, born at Ziradei in Siwan district, served as India's first President (1950-1962); he was also President of the Constituent Assembly.
Under the Constitution of India, the right to form associations or unions is guaranteed under which Article?
aArticle 19(1)(c)
bArticle 19(1)(a)
cArticle 21
dArticle 25
Answer: A
Article 19(1)(c) guarantees to all citizens the right to form associations or unions (and, after the 97th Amendment, co-operative societies), subject to reasonable restrictions.
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times itself at the same rate?
a16 years
b12 years
c32 years
d24 years
Answer: D
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years, so the rate is 12.5% per annum. To become four times, the interest must be three times the principal, taking 3 x 8 = 24 years.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The judge was not influenced by public opinion; he remained ______ throughout the trial.'
anegligent
bpartial
cindifferent
dimpartial
Answer: D
A judge unaffected by outside pressure is 'impartial', meaning fair and unbiased; 'partial' is its opposite, while 'indifferent' and 'negligent' carry negative connotations of carelessness.
The present State of Bihar was carved out as a separate province from the Bengal Presidency in the year
a1905
b1947
c1936
d1912
Answer: D
In 1912 the British administration separated Bihar (along with Orissa) from the Bengal Presidency; this event is commemorated every year as Bihar Diwas on 22 March.
The National Makhana Board, launched in September 2025 to promote fox-nut (makhana) cultivation and exports, has its headquarters in which Bihar district?
aPatna
bDarbhanga
cPurnea
dBhagalpur
Answer: C
The Prime Minister launched the National Makhana Board at Purnea, Bihar, in September 2025; Bihar accounts for roughly 90 per cent of India's makhana production.
Mahatma Gandhi first applied his technique of Satyagraha in India in connection with the grievances of indigo cultivators at
aKheda
bChamparan
cBardoli
dAhmedabad
Answer: B
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 in Bihar, concerning the exploitation of indigo (tinkathia) cultivators, was Gandhi's first major Satyagraha on Indian soil.
Following the Bihar Legislative Assembly election held in 2025, who took oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar?
aNitish Kumar
bSamrat Choudhary
cTejashwi Yadav
dVijay Kumar Sinha
Answer: A
After the NDA's victory in the 2025 Bihar Assembly election, Nitish Kumar took oath as Chief Minister, with Samrat Choudhary and Vijay Kumar Sinha as his Deputy Chief Ministers.
The first sermon delivered by Gautama Buddha after attaining enlightenment, known as 'Dharmachakra Pravartana', was given at
aBodh Gaya
bSarnath
cKushinagar
dLumbini
Answer: B
After attaining enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, the Buddha delivered his first sermon at the Deer Park in Sarnath, near Varanasi, an event called the 'turning of the wheel of law'.
Which one of the following rivers is a south-flowing tributary that joins the Ganga and is notorious in Bihar as the 'River of Sorrow' owing to recurrent floods?
aKosi
bSon
cGandak
dBagmati
Answer: A
The Kosi river, which changes its course frequently and causes severe floods in north Bihar, is popularly called the 'Sorrow of Bihar'.
The gas that is most responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer in the stratosphere belongs to the group of compounds known as
aCarbon monoxides
bSulphur dioxides
cChlorofluorocarbons
dNitrous oxides
Answer: C
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere that catalytically destroy ozone; their use is restricted under the Montreal Protocol.
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the principles of natural justice apply not merely to quasi-judicial functions but also to purely administrative actions affecting the rights of individuals?
aA.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
bRidge v. Baldwin
cProvince of Bombay v. Khushaldas Advani
dNakkuda Ali v. Jayaratne
Answer: A
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court blurred the rigid distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial functions and held that the rules of natural justice operate in administrative actions as well.
The maxim 'audi alteram partem', which forms a limb of the principles of natural justice, means
ano one shall be a judge in his own cause
ba speaking order must always be passed
cjustice must not only be done but seen to be done
dhear the other side
Answer: D
'Audi alteram partem' is a Latin maxim meaning 'hear the other side', requiring that no person be condemned unheard. The other principal rule, 'nemo judex in causa sua', is the rule against bias.
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the principles of natural justice would apply to the impounding of a passport, even though the power was
ajudicial in character
badministrative in character
cquasi-judicial in character
dlegislative in character
Answer: B
The Court held that even if the power to impound a passport were treated as administrative, natural justice would still apply because the order entailed adverse civil consequences for the holder.
The principle that the legislature cannot delegate its 'essential legislative function', namely the laying down of legislative policy, was authoritatively laid down in
aRajnarain Singh v. Chairman, Patna Administration Committee
bIn re Delhi Laws Act, 1912
cHamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
dGwalior Rayon Mills v. Assistant Commissioner of Sales Tax
Answer: B
In re Delhi Laws Act (1951) the Supreme Court held that while ancillary and incidental matters may be delegated, the essential legislative function of laying down policy cannot be delegated.
Article 323A of the Constitution empowers Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to
aindustrial and labour disputes
brecruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services
cland reforms and ceiling on urban property
delections to Parliament and State Legislatures
Answer: B
Article 323A relates to administrative tribunals for service matters, i.e., recruitment and conditions of service of public servants of the Union or States. The subjects in the other options fall under Article 323B.
In L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court held that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts under Article 226 and in the Supreme Court under Article 32
acan be excluded by tribunals constituted under Article 323A
bis part of the basic structure of the Constitution and cannot be ousted
cis available only against quasi-judicial action
dis subject to the supervisory power of the tribunals
Answer: B
L. Chandra Kumar held that judicial review under Articles 226 and 32 forms part of the basic structure, and tribunal decisions remain subject to scrutiny by the High Courts; clauses ousting that jurisdiction were struck down.
The writ of 'mandamus', which lies to compel the performance of a public or statutory duty, literally means
awe command
bto be certified
cyou may have the body
dby what authority
Answer: A
'Mandamus' is Latin for 'we command'; it is issued to direct a public authority to perform a duty it is legally bound to perform. 'Certiorari' means to be certified, 'habeas corpus' means have the body, and 'quo warranto' means by what authority.
Which writ is appropriate to challenge the right of a person to hold a public office and to oust a usurper who occupies it without lawful authority?
aHabeas corpus
bMandamus
cProhibition
dQuo warranto
Answer: D
Quo warranto ('by what authority') is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to remove one holding it without legal sanction.
The doctrine of promissory estoppel was held to be enforceable against the Government, even in the absence of consideration, in
aUnion of India v. Indo-Afghan Agencies Ltd.
bExcise Commissioner v. Ram Kumar
cCentury Spinning Co. v. Ulhasnagar Municipal Council
dM/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D
In Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills (1979), the Supreme Court held that the State is bound by promissory estoppel where it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters its position in reliance.
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and members not exceeding eight, of whom the proportion that shall be judicial members is
aone-third
bone-fourth
ctwo-thirds
done-half
Answer: D
The Act provides that the Lokpal shall consist of a Chairperson and up to eight members, of whom fifty per cent (one-half) shall be judicial members.
The exposition of the concept of 'Rule of Law' in its modern form, comprising supremacy of law, equality before law and the predominance of the legal spirit, is attributed to
aSir Ivor Jennings
bA.V. Dicey
cH.W.R. Wade
dRoscoe Pound
Answer: B
A.V. Dicey, in his work on the law of the Constitution, propounded the Rule of Law through its three classic elements: supremacy of law, equality before the law, and the predominance of the legal spirit.
'Droit Administratif', a separate body of rules governing administration and disputes between citizens and public officials adjudicated by special administrative courts, is a feature associated chiefly with the legal system of
aEngland
bFrance
cthe United States of America
dAustralia
Answer: B
Droit Administratif is the French system of administrative law under which disputes involving the administration are decided by administrative courts headed by the Conseil d'Etat, distinct from the ordinary courts.
The rule against bias, expressed by the maxim 'nemo judex in causa sua', means that
ano person shall be a judge in his own cause
bdelegated power cannot be further delegated
ca public authority must give reasons for its decision
dthe State is bound by its own promises
Answer: A
'Nemo judex in causa sua' is the rule against bias and means that no one should be a judge in his own cause; an adjudicator with a personal interest in the matter is disqualified.
The principle that the line between administrative and quasi-judicial functions is thin and that natural justice applies to administrative actions affecting rights was laid down by the Supreme Court in
aProvince of Bombay v. Khushaldas Advani
bA.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
cNakkuda Ali v. Jayaratne
dFranklin v. Minister of Town and Country Planning
Answer: B
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 150, the Supreme Court held that the dividing line between administrative and quasi-judicial power is gradually obliterating and that principles of natural justice are not confined to quasi-judicial decisions alone.
In which case did the House of Lords revive the application of natural justice to administrative dismissals, holding that a Chief Constable could not be removed without a hearing?
aLocal Government Board v. Arlidge
bRidge v. Baldwin
cCooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works
dBoard of Education v. Rice
Answer: B
In Ridge v. Baldwin [1964] AC 40, the House of Lords held that the dismissal of the Brighton Chief Constable without a hearing breached natural justice, extending procedural fairness beyond purely judicial or quasi-judicial decisions.
The maxim 'audi alteram partem' as a component of the principles of natural justice means
ano one shall be a judge in his own cause
bjustice delayed is justice denied
chear the other side; no one shall be condemned unheard
da delegate cannot further delegate his power
Answer: C
Audi alteram partem literally means 'hear the other side' and embodies the rule that no person shall be condemned without being afforded a reasonable opportunity of being heard. The rule against bias is the separate maxim nemo judex in causa sua.
In which decision did the Supreme Court hold that the procedure depriving personal liberty under Article 21 must be 'just, fair and reasonable' and must conform to natural justice, while impounding a passport without hearing was held bad?
aManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
bA.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
cSatwant Singh Sawhney v. D. Ramarathnam
dKharak Singh v. State of U.P.
Answer: A
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, AIR 1978 SC 597, the Court held that 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, and that the impounding of the passport without a hearing violated audi alteram partem.
The doctrine that the legislature may delegate ancillary and incidental powers but cannot delegate its 'essential legislative function' was enunciated by the Supreme Court in
aIn re Delhi Laws Act, 1912
bHamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
cVasantlal Maganbhai v. State of Bombay
dGwalior Rayon Silk Mfg. Co. v. Asst. Commissioner of Sales Tax
Answer: A
In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912, AIR 1951 SC 332, the Supreme Court held that laying down the policy of the law and enacting it into a binding rule of conduct is an essential legislative function which cannot be delegated, though ancillary matters may be.
The maxim 'delegatus non potest delegare' in administrative law signifies that
adelegated legislation must always be published
bthe legislature cannot delegate any power at all
ca delegate cannot further sub-delegate his power unless expressly or impliedly authorised
dthe executive cannot exercise judicial functions
Answer: C
The maxim 'delegatus non potest delegare' means a delegate cannot delegate further; sub-delegation of power is generally impermissible unless authorised by the statute expressly or by necessary implication. It is treated as a rule of construction, not an absolute rule of law.
The 'Wednesbury principle' of unreasonableness in judicial review of administrative discretion was laid down in
aCouncil of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service
bPadfield v. Minister of Agriculture
cAssociated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation
dRoberts v. Hopwood
Answer: C
In Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation [1948] 1 KB 223, the court held that a decision can be struck down if it is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it.
Which of the following correctly distinguishes the writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 from that of the Supreme Court under Article 32?
aArticle 226 is available only for enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas Article 32 is available for any purpose
bBoth articles are confined strictly to enforcement of fundamental rights only
cArticle 32 can be invoked for any legal right, while Article 226 is confined to fundamental rights
dArticle 226 is available both for fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', making it wider than Article 32
Answer: D
Article 32 may be invoked only for enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', making its scope wider than Article 32.
The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which was enacted pursuant to which constitutional provision?
aArticle 263
bArticle 323B
cArticle 262
dArticle 323A
Answer: D
Article 323A, inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, empowers Parliament to provide for administrative tribunals for service matters; the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 was enacted under it and set up the Central Administrative Tribunal.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the doctrine of promissory estoppel can be invoked against the State, directing the Government to honour an assurance of sales-tax exemption acted upon by the promisee?
aUnion of India v. Anglo Afghan Agencies
bExcise Commissioner v. Ram Kumar
cJit Ram Shiv Kumar v. State of Haryana
dM/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of U.P.
Answer: D
In Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of U.P., AIR 1979 SC 621, the Supreme Court held that the State is bound by promissory estoppel where it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters his position relying on it.
The system of 'droit administratif' as a distinct body of administrative law administered by separate administrative courts is associated with
aEngland
bAustralia
cthe United States of America
dFrance
Answer: D
Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law, developed largely through the Conseil d'Etat, under which disputes between the State and citizens are decided by separate administrative courts rather than the ordinary courts. Dicey criticised it as contrary to the rule of law.
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee headed by the
aChief Justice of India
bSpeaker of the Lok Sabha
cPrime Minister
dVice-President of India
Answer: C
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Selection Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or his nominee, and an eminent jurist.
Under the Bihar Lokayukta Act, 2011, who is the 'competent authority' in relation to a complaint against the Chief Minister of Bihar?
aThe Governor of Bihar
bThe Speaker of the Bihar Legislative Assembly
cThe Chief Justice of the Patna High Court
dThe President of India
Answer: A
Under the Bihar Lokayukta Act, 2011, the competent authority for the Chief Minister is the Governor, while for a member of the Council of Ministers the competent authority is the Chief Minister.
The rule against bias, a component of natural justice, is expressed by the maxim
ares judicata pro veritate accipitur
baudi alteram partem
cactus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
dnemo judex in causa sua
Answer: D
Nemo judex in causa sua (no one shall be a judge in his own cause) embodies the rule against bias, requiring that the adjudicator be impartial and have no personal interest in the matter. Audi alteram partem is the separate fair-hearing rule.
Which of the following is NOT regarded as an essential legislative function that the legislature is prohibited from delegating?
aLaying down the policy of the law
bEnacting the legislative policy into a binding rule of conduct
cFraming rules to fill in details and give effect to the legislative policy
dRepealing or abrogating an existing law
Answer: C
Framing subordinate rules to fill in details and carry out the declared legislative policy is a permissible delegation of ancillary power. Laying down policy, converting it into binding rules, and repealing existing law are essential legislative functions that cannot be delegated, per In re Delhi Laws Act.
In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold for the first time that the principles of natural justice apply not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions but also to purely administrative functions?
aManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
bA.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
cRidge v. Baldwin
dState of Orissa v. Dr. Binapani Dei
Answer: B
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court blurred the line between administrative and quasi-judicial action and applied natural justice to administrative functions for the first time.
The English decision which revived and laid the foundation of the modern law of natural justice by extending the duty to act fairly to administrative bodies was
aRidge v. Baldwin
bCooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works
cLocal Government Board v. Arlidge
dFranklin v. Minister of Town and Country Planning
Answer: A
In Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) AC 40, the House of Lords held the dismissal of a Chief Constable without a hearing void, reviving natural justice and extending it beyond judicial functions.
The two principal maxims of the rules of natural justice are 'nemo judex in causa sua' and
aactus reus non facit reum
bres ipsa loquitur
caudi alteram partem
dubi jus ibi remedium
Answer: C
Natural justice rests on two maxims: nemo judex in causa sua (no one shall be a judge in his own cause, the rule against bias) and audi alteram partem (hear the other side).
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the procedure depriving a person of personal liberty under Article 21 must be
aany procedure prescribed by a competent legislature
bmerely a procedure in writing
ca procedure laid down only by Parliament
dright, just, fair and reasonable, and not arbitrary
Answer: D
Maneka Gandhi held that 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be right, just, fair and reasonable, importing the principles of natural justice such as audi alteram partem into administrative action.
The leading Indian authority on the permissible limits of delegated legislation, holding that essential legislative functions cannot be delegated, is
aHamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
bRajnarain Singh v. Chairman, Patna Administration Committee
cIn re Delhi Laws Act, 1912
dVasantlal Maganbhai v. State of Bombay
Answer: C
In re Delhi Laws Act (AIR 1951 SC 332), a seven-judge bench held that the legislature may delegate ancillary functions but cannot delegate its essential legislative function of laying down policy.
The doctrine that a decision so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have arrived at it is liable to be quashed on judicial review is known as
athe doctrine of proportionality
bthe doctrine of pleasure
cthe doctrine of legitimate expectation
dWednesbury unreasonableness
Answer: D
The Wednesbury principle, from Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation (1948), allows a court to interfere where a decision is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could have made it.
Articles 323A and 323B, providing for the constitution of administrative and other tribunals, were inserted into the Constitution by
athe 24th Constitutional Amendment
bthe 73rd Constitutional Amendment
cthe 44th Constitutional Amendment
dthe 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Answer: D
The 42nd Amendment, 1976 inserted Part XIV-A containing Articles 323A and 323B, empowering creation of administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters.
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under
athe Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021
bthe Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
cthe Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952
dArticle 136 of the Constitution
Answer: B
The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, enacted under Article 323A, provided for the Central Administrative Tribunal and State Administrative Tribunals to adjudicate service matters.
In L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court held that
atribunals can wholly exclude the jurisdiction of the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227
bthe power of judicial review of the High Courts under Articles 226/227 and of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is part of the basic structure
cappeals from tribunals lie directly to the Supreme Court only
dadministrative tribunals are unconstitutional
Answer: B
L. Chandra Kumar held that judicial review under Articles 226/227 and 32 is a basic feature; tribunal decisions remain subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court.
The decision establishing that the doctrine of promissory estoppel can be enforced even against the Government when it makes a clear and unequivocal promise acted upon to the promisee's detriment is
aUnion of India v. Anglo Afghan Agencies
bMotilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of U.P.
cExcise Commissioner v. Ram Kumar
dJit Ram Shiv Kumar v. State of Haryana
Answer: B
Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of U.P. (1979) held the State bound by promissory estoppel where it promised sales-tax exemption and the company invested in reliance on that promise.
The writ issued to challenge the legality of a person's claim to, and to prevent usurpation of, a substantive public office is
amandamus
bcertiorari
cquo warranto
dprohibition
Answer: C
Quo warranto ('by what authority') is issued to enquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to oust a usurper; it lies only in respect of a substantive public office.
The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court
ato quash an order already passed by an inferior tribunal acting without jurisdiction or in violation of natural justice
bto compel a public authority to perform a public duty it has failed to perform
cto forbid an inferior tribunal from proceeding further with a matter beyond its jurisdiction
dto secure the release of a person illegally detained
Answer: A
Certiorari is a corrective writ to quash a decision already made by an inferior court or tribunal where it acted without jurisdiction, in excess of jurisdiction, or in breach of natural justice; prohibition, by contrast, is preventive.
The institution of Lokayukta in the State of Bihar was established by the
aBihar Lokayukta Act, 1973
bLokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
cBihar Special Courts Act, 2009
dBihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011
Answer: A
The Bihar Lokayukta Act, 1973 created the statutory ombudsman in Bihar to investigate allegations of corruption and maladministration against public functionaries.
Under the Wednesbury principle and Indian judicial review, the courts ordinarily examine the legality and process of an administrative decision but NOT its
ajurisdictional basis
bmerits or correctness on the facts as if sitting in appeal
ccompliance with natural justice
dconformity with the enabling statute
Answer: B
Judicial review is concerned with the decision-making process (legality, procedural fairness, reasonableness), not with the merits of the decision; the court does not sit as a court of appeal over the administrator's findings.
Conditional or contingent legislation differs from delegated legislation in that, in conditional legislation,
athe executive is empowered to frame substantive rules and policy
bthe legislature surrenders its essential legislative function
cthe law is complete and the executive is left only to determine the condition or fact upon which the law is to be brought into operation
dthe executive may repeal the parent statute
Answer: C
In conditional legislation the legislature enacts a complete law and merely leaves to the executive the determination of the contingency or fact on which the statute will come into force, without conferring any rule-making power.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the principles of natural justice apply not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions but also to administrative functions, observing that the dividing line between the two is gradually obliterating?
aA.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
bNakkuda Ali v. Jayaratne
cProvince of Bombay v. Khushaldas Advani
dFranklin v. Minister of Town and Country Planning
Answer: A
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court extended natural justice to administrative action and held that the dividing line between administrative and quasi-judicial power is thin and gradually obliterating.
The Presidential Reference In re Delhi Laws Act (1951) is the leading authority on which of the following propositions?
aEssential legislative functions cannot be delegated, but ancillary and incidental matters may be
bAll legislative power can be freely delegated to the executive
cDelegated legislation is wholly unconstitutional in India
dThe executive can repeal a statute by way of delegated legislation
Answer: A
In re Delhi Laws Act (AIR 1951 SC 332) held that the legislature must itself lay down the policy (essential legislative function) and may delegate only ancillary and incidental matters; the power to repeal or modify a statute was struck down as excessive delegation.
The maxim 'nemo judex in causa sua' embodies which principle of natural justice?
aRight to a reasoned decision
bAudi alteram partem
cRule against bias
dDoctrine of legitimate expectation
Answer: C
'Nemo judex in causa sua' means no one shall be a judge in his own cause and is the foundation of the rule against bias; 'audi alteram partem' is the separate rule of fair hearing.
In Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal Co. (1852), the decision of the Lord Chancellor was set aside on the ground of which type of bias?
aPersonal bias
bDepartmental bias
cPecuniary bias
dBias as to subject-matter
Answer: C
In Dimes the Lord Chancellor held shares in the respondent company; the House of Lords held that any direct pecuniary interest, however small, disqualifies a judge, irrespective of whether it actually affected the decision.
The doctrine of 'Wednesbury unreasonableness' as a ground for judicial review of administrative action was laid down in which case?
aAnisminic Ltd. v. Foreign Compensation Commission
bCouncil of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service
cPadfield v. Minister of Agriculture
dAssociated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation
Answer: D
In Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation (1948), the court held that a decision may be quashed if it is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it.
In M/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979), the Supreme Court applied which doctrine to bind the State to its assurance of sales-tax exemption?
aDoctrine of pleasure
bDoctrine of promissory estoppel
cDoctrine of ultra vires
dDoctrine of severability
Answer: B
The Court held that the State is bound by promissory estoppel where it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters its position to its detriment in reliance on it.
Articles 323A and 323B, which provide for the establishment of administrative and other tribunals, were inserted into the Constitution by which amendment?
aThe 44th Amendment Act, 1978
bThe 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
cThe 24th Amendment Act, 1971
dThe 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Answer: D
The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976 inserted Part XIVA containing Articles 323A (administrative tribunals for service matters) and 323B (tribunals for other specified matters).
In L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court held that the power of judicial review of the High Courts and Supreme Court under which provisions forms part of the basic structure and cannot be ousted by conferring exclusive jurisdiction on tribunals?
aArticles 14 and 19
bArticles 245 and 246
cArticles 124 and 217
dArticles 226/227 and 32
Answer: D
L. Chandra Kumar held that judicial review under Articles 226/227 (High Courts) and Article 32 (Supreme Court) is part of the basic structure; tribunals act as supplemental fora and remain subject to High Court scrutiny.
Article 311(2) of the Constitution guarantees to a civil servant facing dismissal, removal or reduction in rank a:
aRight to permanent reinstatement
bRight to appeal to the Supreme Court directly
cReasonable opportunity of being heard in an inquiry into the charges
dRight to choose his own disciplinary authority
Answer: C
Article 311(2) requires that no civil servant be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he is informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) is regarded as a landmark in administrative law primarily because it:
aAbolished the writ of certiorari in England
bEstablished the doctrine of absolute legislative supremacy
cRevived and extended the principles of natural justice to administrative decisions
dRecognised droit administratif in English law
Answer: C
In Ridge v. Baldwin the House of Lords held the dismissal of a Chief Constable void for breach of audi alteram partem, reviving natural justice and laying the foundation of modern judicial review.
The system of 'droit administratif' is associated with which country?
aEngland
bUnited States of America
cFrance
dIndia
Answer: C
Droit administratif is the body of administrative law developed in France, administered by separate administrative courts (the Conseil d'Etat at the apex), distinct from ordinary courts.
Which writ is issued to a person holding a public office, commanding him to show by what authority he holds that office?
aMandamus
bQuo warranto
cProhibition
dCertiorari
Answer: B
Quo warranto is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to oust a usurper; mandamus commands performance of a public duty, while certiorari and prohibition deal with excess of jurisdiction.
The maxim 'delegatus non potest delegare' in administrative law means that:
aDelegated legislation must always be laid before Parliament
bThe legislature cannot delegate any power at all
cA delegate cannot further delegate his powers unless authorised
dAn administrative authority must always give reasons
Answer: C
The maxim means a delegate cannot sub-delegate; an authority entrusted with discretionary power must exercise it itself and cannot pass it on to another unless the parent statute expressly or impliedly permits sub-delegation.
The institution of 'Ombudsman', a mechanism for redressal of citizens' grievances against administrative action, originated in which country?
aEngland
bSweden
cFrance
dUnited States of America
Answer: B
The Ombudsman institution originated in Sweden in 1809; in India the corresponding institutions are the Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in the States.
Where a statute itself is complete but its coming into operation is left to the determination of the executive on the fulfilment of certain conditions, the law so brought into force is an example of:
aConditional legislation
bHenry VIII clause
cSub-ordinate legislation by way of rules
dExcessive delegation
Answer: A
In conditional legislation the legislature lays down a complete law and merely leaves the function of determining when, where or upon what conditions it shall come into operation to the executive; no legislative power is delegated.
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court held that the principles of natural justice apply
aonly to judicial functions
bto administrative functions as well, not merely judicial or quasi-judicial functions
conly to quasi-judicial functions
donly where a statute expressly so provides
Answer: B
In A.K. Kraipak the Supreme Court held that the line between administrative and quasi-judicial functions is thin and that the rules of natural justice extend even to administrative actions affecting rights.
The maxim 'nemo judex in causa sua' embodies which rule of natural justice?
aThe duty to give reasons
bThe right to a fair hearing
cThe rule against bias
dThe rule of audi alteram partem
Answer: C
'Nemo judex in causa sua' means no one shall be a judge in his own cause, which is the rule against bias; 'audi alteram partem' is the separate fair-hearing rule.
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the rule of audi alteram partem
ahas no application to administrative orders
bwas abolished in service matters
capplies only where the statute expressly requires a hearing
dis implicit in administrative and quasi-judicial decisions affecting fundamental rights
Answer: D
The Court held that the procedure under Article 21 must be fair and just, and that the right to be heard (audi alteram partem) is implicit even where the statute is silent.
Article 311(2) of the Constitution requires that a civil servant shall not be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank except
awith the prior approval of the Public Service Commission
bby an order of the President alone
cafter approval by the High Court
dafter an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard
Answer: D
Article 311(2) mandates an inquiry in which the civil servant is informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before dismissal, removal or reduction in rank.
Under the Constitution, the power of the High Court to issue writs for judicial review of administrative action is conferred by
aArticle 226
bArticle 136
cArticle 32
dArticle 300A
Answer: A
Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose; Article 32 is the corresponding power of the Supreme Court (limited to fundamental rights).
cto call upon a person to show by what authority he holds a public office
dto compel performance of a public duty
Answer: C
Quo warranto calls upon a person holding a public office to show the authority under which he holds it; habeas corpus, certiorari and mandamus serve the other functions listed.
In In re Delhi Laws Act (1951), the Supreme Court laid down that the legislature cannot delegate
aany of its powers to the executive
bits essential legislative function of laying down the policy and converting it into a binding rule of conduct
cthe power to frame subordinate rules
dthe power to fix dates for commencement of a statute
Answer: B
The Court held that essential legislative functions (laying down policy and enacting it into a binding rule) cannot be delegated, though ancillary and incidental matters may be.
In M/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979), the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of promissory estoppel
acan be invoked against the Government where it has made a clear and unequivocal promise acted upon to the promisee's detriment
bcannot be invoked against the Government in any circumstances
capplies only between private parties
dapplies only where the promise is reduced to a registered document
Answer: A
The Court held that the State is bound by promissory estoppel when it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters its position relying on it.
ato direct a public authority to perform a statutory duty
bto secure release from illegal detention
cto prevent an inferior tribunal from proceeding further in a matter
dto quash an order already passed by an inferior court or tribunal acting without jurisdiction or in breach of natural justice
Answer: D
Certiorari is a corrective writ that quashes a decision already made by an inferior court or tribunal; prohibition is preventive, mandamus commands a duty, and habeas corpus addresses detention.
Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) is regarded as a landmark in administrative law because it
aabolished the doctrine of natural justice
brevived and extended the principles of natural justice to administrative decisions
cheld that natural justice applies only to judicial functions
dintroduced the doctrine of legitimate expectation
Answer: B
In Ridge v. Baldwin the House of Lords revived natural justice, holding that dismissal without notice and hearing breached audi alteram partem, extending fairness to administrative action.
Article 32 of the Constitution enables a person to approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of
aany legal right
bdirective principles of State policy
ccontractual rights against the State
dfundamental rights only
Answer: D
Article 32 is confined to enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas Article 226 is wider, available both for fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose'.
The Right to Information Act, which promotes accountability of administrative authorities by giving citizens access to information held by public authorities, was enacted in the year
a2002
b2013
c2009
d2005
Answer: D
The Right to Information Act, 2005 came into force in 2005 (fully on 12 October 2005) and entitles citizens to seek information under the control of public authorities.
The institution of an 'Ombudsman' at the Central level in India is broadly served by which body created under a 2013 enactment?
aCentral Vigilance Commission
bLokpal
cCentral Administrative Tribunal
dNational Human Rights Commission
Answer: B
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 created the Lokpal at the Centre to inquire into corruption allegations against public functionaries, performing an ombudsman-type role.
Constitutional protection under Article 311(1) provides that a civil servant shall not be dismissed or removed
awithout a criminal conviction
bduring the pendency of departmental proceedings
cwithout the consent of the Union Public Service Commission
dby an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed
Answer: D
Article 311(1) bars dismissal or removal of a civil servant by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority; clause (2) separately guarantees an inquiry and hearing.
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court is best remembered for holding that
athe dividing line between quasi-judicial and administrative functions is becoming thin, and the principles of natural justice (including the rule against bias) also govern administrative action affecting rights
bthe rules of natural justice apply only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, never to purely administrative action
ca selection committee is wholly outside the reach of the rule against bias
dnatural justice is excluded whenever a statute is silent about the procedure to be followed
Answer: A
Kraipak blurred the rigid distinction between quasi-judicial and administrative functions and applied natural justice (the rule against bias) to an administrative selection process, shifting Indian administrative law toward functionalism. A member of the selection board being himself a candidate vitiated the selection.
The principle that an administrative decision may be quashed if it is 'so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it' is associated with
aRidge v. Baldwin
bCouncil of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service
cAssociated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation
dAnisminic Ltd. v. Foreign Compensation Commission
Answer: C
The Wednesbury case (1948) laid down 'Wednesbury unreasonableness' (irrationality) as a ground for judicial review, setting a high threshold under which courts interfere only where a decision is so absurd that no sensible authority could have reached it.
Which of the following correctly states the position of the doctrine of legitimate expectation as explained by the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation (1993)?
aIt confers an absolute substantive right to the expected benefit which a court must always enforce
bIt gives the claimant locus standi for judicial review and a right to fair treatment, but yields where overriding public interest requires otherwise
cIt can be invoked even against an express statutory provision
dIt is available only to government servants in matters of promotion
Answer: B
In Hindustan Development Corporation the Court held that legitimate expectation, arising from a representation or settled past practice, gives sufficient locus standi for judicial review and a right to fair consideration, but does not crystallise into an enforceable right where an overriding public interest justifies departure.
A writ of mandamus will ordinarily NOT be issued in which one of the following situations?
aTo compel a public authority to perform a statutory duty which it has refused to perform
bTo enforce a purely private contractual obligation having no public-law element
cTo compel a public authority to refund a tax collected without authority of law
dTo restrain a public officer from acting under a void statutory provision
Answer: B
Mandamus lies to enforce a public or statutory duty owed by a public authority; it is not available to enforce a purely private contractual obligation, for which the remedy is a civil suit (e.g., for specific performance or damages).
In M/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979), the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of promissory estoppel
acan never be invoked against the Government or a public authority
brequires a concluded contract supported by consideration before it can be invoked
capplies only between two private parties and never against the State
dcan be enforced against the Government where it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon, and the promisee alters its position relying on it
Answer: D
Motilal Padampat held that promissory estoppel binds the Government where it makes a clear and unequivocal representation intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters its position in reliance; mere executive or financial difficulty is not a defence, though the Government may plead overriding public interest.
Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators, provided that such number
ashall not exceed three
bshall not be an even number
cshall always be an odd number greater than one
dshall be fixed only by the court
Answer: B
Section 10(1) provides that parties may determine the number of arbitrators provided it is not an even number; failing such determination, the tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator under Section 10(2).
An arbitration agreement, to be valid under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, must be
aregistered before a sub-registrar
bin the form of a deed on stamp paper only
cattested by two witnesses
din writing
Answer: D
Section 7 requires the arbitration agreement to be in writing; it may be contained in a document signed by the parties, exchange of communications, or exchange of statements of claim and defence in which its existence is alleged and not denied.
The power of the arbitral tribunal to rule on its own jurisdiction, including ruling on any objections with respect to the existence or validity of the arbitration agreement, is contained in
aSection 16
bSection 11
cSection 9
dSection 34
Answer: A
Section 16 embodies the doctrine of kompetenz-kompetenz, empowering the arbitral tribunal to rule on its own jurisdiction and on objections to the existence or validity of the arbitration agreement.
An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Act of 1996 must ordinarily be made within
athree months from the date of receipt of the award
bthirty days from the receipt of the award
csix months from the date of the award
done year from the date of the award
Answer: A
Section 34(3) requires the application to be made within three months of receipt of the award, extendable by the court by a further thirty days on sufficient cause, but not thereafter.
Where an application to set aside an arbitral award is filed beyond three months, the court may entertain it if satisfied of sufficient cause, but only within a further period of
afifteen days
bthirty days
csixty days
dninety days
Answer: B
The proviso to Section 34(3) permits a further period of thirty days, and no more, if the court is satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause from making the application within three months.
Under Section 29A of the Act of 1996, the arbitral award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made within a period of
asix months from the entering upon reference
btwelve months from the date of the arbitration agreement
ctwelve months from the date of completion of pleadings
dtwo years from the constitution of the tribunal
Answer: C
Section 29A(1) requires the award to be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under Section 23(4); this may be extended by six months by consent of the parties.
The twelve-month period for making an arbitral award under Section 29A may be extended for a further period not exceeding six months
aby the arbitral tribunal of its own motion
bonly by the Supreme Court
cby the consent of the parties
dautomatically without any application
Answer: C
Section 29A(3) allows the parties, by consent, to extend the period for making the award by a further period not exceeding six months; beyond this, only the court may grant an extension.
Interim measures of protection by a court, both before and during arbitral proceedings or at any time after the making of the award but before its enforcement, may be sought under
aSection 9
bSection 17
cSection 27
dSection 36
Answer: A
Section 9 empowers a party to apply to a court for interim measures of protection before or during arbitral proceedings, or after the award but before enforcement under Section 36.
Where a court passes an order for interim measure of protection under Section 9 before the commencement of arbitral proceedings, the arbitral proceedings shall be commenced within
athirty days
bsixty days
cone hundred and eighty days
dninety days
Answer: D
Section 9(2) provides that where a court passes a Section 9 order before commencement of arbitral proceedings, such proceedings must commence within ninety days of the order or such further time as the court determines.
Which of the following is NOT an appealable order under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
aAn order of the tribunal ruling on the substantive merits of the claim
bAn order granting or refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 9
cAn order setting aside or refusing to set aside an award under Section 34
dAn order refusing to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8
Answer: A
Section 37 enumerates a closed list of appealable orders (Section 8 refusal, Section 9 measures, Section 34 setting aside, and certain Section 16 and Section 17 orders); a ruling on the merits of the claim is not among them.
An arbitrator may be challenged under Section 12 of the Act of 1996 only if
ahe is a foreign national
bthe award is likely to be against the challenging party
ccircumstances exist giving rise to justifiable doubts as to his independence or impartiality, or he does not possess the agreed qualifications
dhe has acted as an arbitrator in any prior dispute
Answer: C
Section 12(3) permits a challenge where circumstances give rise to justifiable doubts as to the arbitrator's independence or impartiality, or where he does not possess the qualifications agreed to by the parties.
In Bharat Aluminium Co. v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc. (BALCO), 2012, the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
aapplies to all arbitrations wherever seated
bapplies only to arbitrations seated in India
capplies only to international commercial arbitrations
dhas been wholly repealed by Part II
Answer: B
In BALCO (2012) the Supreme Court held that Part I applies only to arbitrations seated in India; for foreign-seated arbitrations Indian courts cannot exercise Part I powers such as Sections 9 or 34.
An arbitral award under Section 31 of the Act of 1996 shall, unless the parties have agreed otherwise or it is an award on agreed terms,
abe oral if the parties so consent
brequire registration to be valid
cbe made only by a unanimous tribunal
dbe in writing and state the reasons upon which it is based
Answer: D
Section 31 requires the award to be in writing and signed, and under Section 31(3) it must state the reasons on which it is based unless the parties agree otherwise or it is an award on agreed terms under Section 30.
Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement is required to be
ain writing only where the value of the dispute exceeds one lakh rupees
boral or in writing at the option of the parties
ccompulsorily registered before a notary
din writing
Answer: D
Section 7(3) of the Act mandates that an arbitration agreement shall be in writing; Section 7(4) sets out the forms (signed document, exchange of communications, or pleadings) in which it is deemed to be in writing.
Where the parties to an arbitration agreement fail to determine the number of arbitrators, the arbitral tribunal under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall consist of
athree arbitrators
ba sole arbitrator
ctwo arbitrators
dsuch number as the High Court may direct
Answer: B
Section 10(1) permits the parties to fix the number of arbitrators provided it is not an even number, and Section 10(2) provides that failing such determination the tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator.
Under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in matters other than international commercial arbitration, the arbitral award shall be made within a period of
asix months from the date of reference
btwenty-four months from the entry of the tribunal upon reference
ctwelve months from the date of completion of pleadings
dninety days from the closing of arguments
Answer: C
Section 29A(1) requires the award (other than in international commercial arbitration) to be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under Section 23(4); this period may be extended by six months with consent of the parties under Section 29A(3).
An application to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 cannot be made after three months have elapsed from receipt of the award; however, the Court may, on sufficient cause, entertain it within a further period of
aninety days, but not thereafter
bsixty days, but not thereafter
cthirty days, but not thereafter
dsuch period as the Court in its discretion may allow without limit
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 34(3) allows the Court, if satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause, to entertain the application within a further period of thirty days, but not thereafter.
Under Section 63 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in conciliation proceedings the number of conciliators
ashall not exceed five
bshall always be three
cshall be one, unless the parties agree that there shall be two or three conciliators
dmust invariably be an odd number not exceeding seven
Answer: C
Section 63 provides that there shall be one conciliator unless the parties agree that there shall be two or three conciliators, who as a general rule ought to act jointly.
Under Section 3 of the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum number of persons required to form a public company is
atwo
bseven
cfive
dten
Answer: B
Section 3(1)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013 requires seven or more persons to form a public company, two or more for a private company, and one for a One Person Company.
The principle that a company is a separate legal entity distinct from its members was firmly established in
aFoss v. Harbottle
bAshbury Railway Carriage Co. v. Riche
cSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
dRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
Answer: C
In Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd. (1897) AC 22, the House of Lords held that on incorporation a company becomes a distinct legal person separate from its shareholders.
Under Section 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013, a private company (other than a One Person Company) may have a maximum number of members of
atwo hundred
bone hundred
cfifty
dno maximum limit
Answer: A
Section 2(68) limits the membership of a private company (excluding an OPC) to two hundred, raised from fifty under the 1956 Act, with present and past employee-members excluded from the count.
The doctrine of ultra vires in company law was laid down in
aSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
bAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche
cRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
dFoss v. Harbottle
Answer: B
In Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche (1875) LR 7 HL 653, it was held that an act beyond the objects clause of the memorandum is ultra vires and void, incapable of ratification even by all the shareholders.
The doctrine of indoor management, which protects an outsider dealing with a company in good faith, originated in
aSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
bLee v. Lee's Air Farming Ltd.
cAshbury Railway Carriage Co. v. Riche
dRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
Answer: D
The rule in Royal British Bank v. Turquand (1856) 6 E&B 327 allows a person dealing with the company to presume that its internal procedures and rules have been duly complied with.
A company formed for promoting commerce, art, science, charity or other useful objects, intending to apply its profits in promoting its objects and prohibiting payment of dividend, is registered under which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
aSection 7
bSection 8
cSection 12
dSection 25
Answer: B
Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 governs not-for-profit companies (corresponding to Section 25 of the 1956 Act), which apply income towards their objects and pay no dividend to members.
The rule that the proper plaintiff in an action for a wrong done to a company is the company itself was laid down in
aSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
bFoss v. Harbottle
cRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
dCook v. Deeks
Answer: B
Foss v. Harbottle (1843) 67 ER 189 established the majority rule and the proper plaintiff rule, subject to recognised exceptions such as ultra vires acts and fraud on the minority.
Under the Companies Act, 2013, the document that defines the objects, scope and powers of a company and is regarded as its charter is the
aMemorandum of Association
bArticles of Association
cProspectus
dCertificate of Incorporation
Answer: A
The Memorandum of Association under Section 4 is the fundamental charter defining the company's constitution and the scope of its activities; the articles under Section 5 regulate only internal management.
Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, an eligible company must spend, in every financial year, at least what percentage of the average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years on Corporate Social Responsibility?
aone per cent
bthree per cent
ctwo per cent
dfive per cent
Answer: C
Section 135(5) mandates that a company covered by the section spend at least two per cent of the average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities.
Under the Companies Act, 2013, on registration of a company the Registrar issues a
acertificate of incorporation
bcertificate of commencement of business
ctrading certificate
dmemorandum of association
Answer: A
Under Section 7(2), the Registrar registers the documents and issues a certificate of incorporation, bringing the company into existence as a body corporate with effect from the date stated therein under Section 9.
Under the Companies Act, 2013, a 'One Person Company' as defined in Section 2(62) means a company which has
aonly one director
bonly one person as a member
conly one shareholder and one creditor
da paid-up capital of one lakh rupees
Answer: B
Section 2(62) defines a One Person Company as a company which has only one person as a member; it is a class of private company introduced by the Companies Act, 2013.
Under Section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013, a person found guilty of fraud is punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than
asix months
bthree months
cone year
dtwo years
Answer: A
Section 447 prescribes imprisonment of not less than six months extending up to ten years, together with fine; where the fraud involves public interest the minimum term is three years.
A document inviting the public to subscribe for the securities of a company, the contents of which are governed by Section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013, is called a
aprospectus
bmemorandum
cshare certificate
ddebenture trust deed
Answer: A
A prospectus is the document by which a public company invites the public to subscribe for its securities; Section 26 prescribes the matters and reports it must state and require it to be filed with the Registrar.
Under Section 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013, the maximum number of members (excluding present and past employees who are members) that a private company may have is
afifty
bone hundred
ctwo hundred
dno limit
Answer: C
Section 2(68) caps the membership of a private company at two hundred, excluding present and former employees who hold shares; joint holders are counted as a single member.
The principle that a company is a legal person distinct from its members, so that even a sole controlling shareholder is separate from the company, was firmly established in
aFoss v. Harbottle
bAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. v. Riche
cSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
dRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
Answer: C
In Salomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd. (1897) AC 22 the House of Lords held that a duly incorporated company is a separate legal entity distinct from its shareholders, even in a one-man company.
The doctrine that an act of a company beyond the objects stated in its memorandum is void and cannot be ratified even by unanimous consent of shareholders was laid down in
aAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche
bSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
cRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
dFoss v. Harbottle
Answer: A
Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche (1875) established the doctrine of ultra vires: an act outside the objects clause of the memorandum is void and incapable of ratification even by all shareholders.
The rule that the proper plaintiff in respect of a wrong done to a company is prima facie the company itself, and the court will not ordinarily interfere in matters of internal management, was established in
aSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
bFoss v. Harbottle
cAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. v. Riche
dDerry v. Peek
Answer: B
Foss v. Harbottle (1843) laid down the proper plaintiff rule and the principle of majority rule, restricting judicial interference in a company's internal management.
The rule of indoor management, under which an outsider dealing in good faith with a company is entitled to assume that its internal procedural requirements have been duly complied with, was laid down in
aFoss v. Harbottle
bAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. v. Riche
cRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
dSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
Answer: C
Royal British Bank v. Turquand (1856) established the indoor management rule (Turquand's rule): persons dealing with a company may presume that its internal regulations have been complied with.
A company formed to promote commerce, art, science, charity or similar objects, which applies its profits in promoting its objects and prohibits payment of dividend to its members, is registered under which provision of the Companies Act, 2013?
aSection 8
bSection 7
cSection 3
dSection 12
Answer: A
Section 8 permits the Central Government to license associations with charitable or similar objects to register as limited companies without the words 'Limited' or 'Private Limited' in their name.
Under Section 39 of the Companies Act, 2013, no allotment of securities offered to the public shall be made unless the amount stated in the prospectus as the
aminimum subscription has been subscribed and application money received
bauthorised capital has been subscribed
centire issue has been underwritten
dpaid-up capital has been deposited with the Registrar
Answer: A
Section 39 bars allotment of publicly offered securities unless the minimum subscription stated in the prospectus has been subscribed and the application money has been received by the company.
Under Section 2(70) of the Companies Act, 2013, the term 'prospectus' includes
aonly a document expressly described as a prospectus
ba red herring prospectus and a shelf prospectus
cthe memorandum of association
dthe articles of association
Answer: B
Section 2(70) defines prospectus to include a red herring prospectus (Section 32) and a shelf prospectus (Section 31), and any notice, circular or advertisement inviting public offers for securities.
Under Section 10A of the Companies Act, 2013, a company having a share capital incorporated after the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019 shall not commence business unless a declaration is filed by a director within how many days of incorporation?
athirty days
bone hundred eighty days
cninety days
dthree hundred sixty-five days
Answer: B
Section 10A requires a director to file a declaration of receipt of subscription money within one hundred eighty days of incorporation before the company can commence business or exercise borrowing powers.
Under which Article of the Constitution can Parliament, by law, form a new State or alter the boundaries of an existing State?
aArticle 2
bArticle 4
cArticle 3
dArticle 368
Answer: C
Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new States and alter areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new States into the Union.
The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution, limiting Parliament's amending power under Article 368, was first propounded in
aKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
bGolak Nath v. State of Punjab
cMinerva Mills v. Union of India
dShankari Prasad v. Union of India
Answer: A
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461, held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to destroy its basic structure. Minerva Mills later reaffirmed and applied the doctrine.
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' to the Preamble. The 44th Amendment, by contrast, dealt with restoring safeguards after the Emergency.
The protection against being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once (rule against double jeopardy) is contained in
aArticle 20(2)
bArticle 20(1)
cArticle 20(3)
dArticle 21
Answer: A
Article 20(2) provides that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. Article 20(3) embodies the protection against self-incrimination.
aDirect a public authority to perform a public duty it has refused to perform
bQuestion the legal authority of a person holding a public office
cCall up the record of an inferior court to examine its legality
dSecure the release of a person unlawfully detained
Answer: B
Quo Warranto restrains a person from holding a public office to which he is not legally entitled and questions the legality of his claim. Habeas Corpus deals with unlawful detention.
The voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was reduced from 21 to 18 years, by amending Article 326, through the
aForty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
bFifty-second Amendment Act, 1985
cSixty-first Amendment Act, 1988
dSeventy-third Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: C
The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 amended Article 326 to lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years. The 52nd Amendment introduced the anti-defection law.
In In re Berubari Union (1960), the Supreme Court held that cession of Indian territory to a foreign State can be effected only by
aAn amendment of the Constitution under Article 368
bAn ordinary law passed under Article 3
cAn executive order of the President
dA resolution of both Houses of Parliament
Answer: A
In re Berubari Union held that cession of Indian territory to another country requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368, not ordinary legislation under Article 3. The opinion also observed the Preamble is not part of the Constitution (a view later reconsidered).
aAppointment of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
bCreation of new All-India Services
cDisqualifications of members of legislatures
dDistribution of revenues between Union and States
Answer: B
Article 312 empowers Parliament, on a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249-like procedure, to create one or more All-India Services common to the Union and the States.
Which of the following is NOT included within the expression 'State' under Article 12 of the Constitution?
aThe Government and Parliament of India
bThe Government and Legislature of a State
cAll local and other authorities within the territory of India
dThe judiciary while exercising its purely judicial functions
Answer: D
Article 12 defines 'State' to include the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of States, and all local or other authorities. Courts in their purely judicial (adjudicatory) functions are generally not treated as 'State'.
Under Article 124(3) of the Constitution, a person may be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court if, in the opinion of the President, he is
aA distinguished economist
bA retired civil servant of high standing
cAn eminent social worker
dA distinguished jurist
Answer: D
Article 124(3)(c) permits appointment of a 'distinguished jurist' as a Judge of the Supreme Court, alongside the qualifications of having been a High Court Judge or advocate for the prescribed period.
Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India is guaranteed by
aArticle 301
bArticle 300A
cArticle 19(1)(g)
dArticle 19(1)(d)
Answer: A
Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free, subject to the restrictions in Articles 302 to 305. Article 19(1)(g) is the individual right to practise any profession or carry on any trade.
Entry 97 of the Union List (List I) of the Seventh Schedule relates to
aResiduary powers of legislation not enumerated in any List
bInter-State trade and commerce
cPublic order and police
dEducation including universities
Answer: A
Entry 97 of the Union List covers 'any other matter not enumerated in List II or List III', i.e. the residuary power, which Article 248 vests in Parliament. Public order and police fall under the State List.
The right to free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years, as a fundamental right, is contained in
aArticle 21
bArticle 41
cArticle 45
dArticle 21A
Answer: D
Article 21A, inserted by the 86th Amendment, makes free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a fundamental right. Article 45 (a Directive Principle) was correspondingly amended to cover early childhood care.
Article 244A of the Constitution, which provides for formation of an autonomous State comprising certain tribal areas, applies to
aNagaland
bAssam
cMizoram
dManipur
Answer: B
Article 244A, inserted by the 22nd Amendment Act, 1969, empowers Parliament to form an autonomous State within the State of Assam comprising certain tribal areas, with its own Legislature or Council of Ministers.
Procedural irregularities in the proceedings of Parliament are immune from challenge in courts by virtue of
aArticle 122
bArticle 105
cArticle 100
dArticle 118
Answer: A
Article 122 bars courts from inquiring into the validity of any proceedings in Parliament on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. Article 105 deals with powers and privileges of the Houses and their members.
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described which Article of the Constitution as its 'heart and soul'?
aArticle 14
bArticle 21
cArticle 226
dArticle 32
Answer: D
Article 32, guaranteeing the right to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights, was called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly.
The power of a High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as for 'any other purpose' is conferred by
aArticle 32
bArticle 136
cArticle 227
dArticle 226
Answer: D
Article 226 empowers every High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose; this writ jurisdiction is wider than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32, which is confined to fundamental rights.
The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in
aGolak Nath v. State of Punjab
bIndira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
cMinerva Mills v. Union of India
dKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Answer: D
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge bench held by a 7:6 majority that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 does not extend to altering the basic structure of the Constitution.
Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the final decision rests with
athe President of India
bthe Finance Minister
cthe Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
dthe Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: D
Under Article 110(3), if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) thereon is final.
A Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 can be issued by the President on the ground of
afinancial instability of India
bwar, external aggression or internal disturbance
cfailure of constitutional machinery in a State
dwar, external aggression or armed rebellion
Answer: D
After the 44th Amendment, Article 352 permits a National Emergency only on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion; the original expression 'internal disturbance' was replaced by 'armed rebellion'.
The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
athe elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
ball members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
cthe elected members of both Houses of Parliament only
dthe elected members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: A
Under Article 54, the President is elected by an electoral college comprising the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (and certain Union Territories).
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