Bihar Judiciary Mock Test 8 — Questions & Solutions
Every question from this prelims mock with the correct answer and a detailed, source-backed solution. Free to read. Want the real exam feel — a timer, instant scoring, and a subject-wise weakness report? Take it as a test.
250
Questions
5
Subjects
+ solutions
Every question
Take this as a timed mock test — instant score + subject-wise analytics. First mock free, then ₹999/year for unlimited.
Which river, a major tributary of the Ganga in north Bihar, is historically notorious for changing its course and is popularly called the 'Sorrow of Bihar'?
aGandak
bBagmati
cSon
dKosi
Answer: D
The Kosi river, which frequently shifts its channel and causes severe floods in north Bihar, is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar'.
Article 348 of the Constitution provides that proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in which language, unless otherwise provided?
aEnglish
bHindi
cthe regional language of the State
dSanskrit
Answer: A
Article 348(1) lays down that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language until Parliament provides otherwise.
The First Buddhist Council, held shortly after the death of Gautama Buddha, took place at Rajgir (Rajagriha) in present-day Bihar under the patronage of which ruler?
aAshoka
bBimbisara
cAjatashatru
dKanishka
Answer: C
The First Buddhist Council was convened at Rajagriha (Rajgir) under the patronage of the Magadha king Ajatashatru, presided over by the monk Mahakassapa.
The river popularly described as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' on account of its frequent course-shifts and devastating floods is the
aGandak
bSone
cBagmati
dKosi
Answer: D
The Kosi, a left-bank tributary of the Ganga that enters Bihar from Nepal, is called the 'Sorrow of Bihar' because its unpredictable lateral migration and annual floods devastate large tracts of farmland.
In 2022 'Mithila Makhana', the aquatic fox-nut of the Mithila region, was granted which form of intellectual-property recognition?
aPatent
bGeographical Indication (GI) tag
cTrade mark
dCopyright
Answer: B
Mithila Makhana (Euryale ferox) received a Geographical Indication tag in August 2022, becoming one of Bihar's GI-tagged products and protecting growers from misbranding of the produce.
The ancient seat of learning at Nalanda, whose ruins lie in present-day Bihar, was primarily a great centre of which tradition of learning?
aBuddhist
bJaina
cZoroastrian
dSufi
Answer: A
Nalanda was a renowned residential centre of Buddhist learning that flourished between roughly the 5th and 12th centuries CE, attracting monks and scholars from across the Buddhist world.
On 23 August 2023, India's Chandrayaan-3 mission achieved a soft landing on the Moon. The lander module that touched down was named
aPragyan
bAryabhata
cVikram
dBhaskara
Answer: C
The Chandrayaan-3 lander was named 'Vikram' (after Vikram Sarabhai) and the rover it carried was 'Pragyan'; the landing made India the fourth nation to soft-land on the Moon and the first near the lunar south pole.
Under the Constitution of India, the power to grant pardons, reprieves and remissions in respect of offences against laws relating to matters within the executive power of a State is vested in the
aGovernor
bChief Minister
cPresident
dAdvocate General
Answer: A
Article 161 empowers the Governor of a State to grant pardons, reprieves, respites and remissions of punishment for offences against laws on matters to which the State's executive power extends.
Which fundamental right under the Constitution of India is described as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution, a phrase used by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
aRight to Equality (Article 14)
bRight to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
cRight against Exploitation (Article 23)
dRight to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
Answer: D
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called Article 32, the Right to Constitutional Remedies, the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution because it guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court to enforce fundamental rights.
If in a certain code 'PATNA' is written as 'QBUOB', then how would 'GAYA' be written in the same code?
aFZXZ
bHZBC
cHBZB
dIBAB
Answer: C
Each letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet (P->Q, A->B, T->U, N->O, A->B). Applying the same rule to GAYA gives G->H, A->B, Y->Z, A->B, i.e. HBZB.
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years under simple interest. The annual rate of interest is
a8%
b12.5%
c10%
d16%
Answer: B
For the principal to double, the simple interest equals the principal, so 100 = (P x R x 8)/100 with P taken as 100, giving R = 100/8 = 12.5% per annum.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers _____ ready for the hearing.'
awas
bhas
cis
dwere
Answer: D
With the 'neither...nor' construction, the verb agrees with the nearer subject; since 'lawyers' (plural) is nearer, the correct verb is the plural 'were'.
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, the first civil disobedience experiment of Mahatma Gandhi in India, was launched in connection with the grievances of cultivators forced to grow which crop?
aSugarcane
bCotton
cIndigo
dOpium
Answer: C
At Champaran in Bihar, tenant farmers were compelled under the tinkathia system to cultivate indigo; Gandhi's satyagraha there secured relief for them.
The historic 'Nalanda Mahavihara', an ancient seat of learning whose ruins are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in which present-day Indian State?
aBihar
bUttar Pradesh
cWest Bengal
dJharkhand
Answer: A
The ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara, a renowned ancient Buddhist monastic university, are situated in the Nalanda district of Bihar and were inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2016.
The river Kosi, often called the 'Sorrow of Bihar' due to its frequent floods and shifting course, originates in which neighbouring country before entering Bihar?
aNepal
bBangladesh
cBhutan
dChina (Tibet)
Answer: A
The Kosi rises in the Himalayas and flows largely through Nepal before entering Bihar, where its shifting course has earned it the name 'Sorrow of Bihar'.
The 'Battle of Buxar' (1764), which firmly established British control over Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, was fought near Buxar on the banks of which river?
aGanga
bSon
cGandak
dKosi
Answer: A
The Battle of Buxar was fought in 1764 near Buxar, a town on the banks of the Ganga in present-day Bihar, between the British East India Company and a combined Indian force.
Bihar Diwas is observed every year on 22nd March to commemorate the historical event of
athe foundation of the Patna High Court
bthe merger of Bihar and Orissa into a single province
cthe carving out of Bihar as a separate province from the Bengal Presidency in 1912
dthe bifurcation of Bihar and Jharkhand in 2000
Answer: C
On 22 March 1912 the Bihar and Orissa divisions were separated from the Bengal Presidency to form a distinct province; the day is celebrated as Bihar Diwas. The Bihar-Jharkhand bifurcation came much later, in November 2000.
In November 2025, following the Bihar Legislative Assembly election, Nitish Kumar was sworn in as Chief Minister of Bihar for a record
a8th time
b9th time
c11th time
d10th time
Answer: D
After the NDA's landslide win in the 2025 Bihar Assembly election, Nitish Kumar took oath as Chief Minister for a record 10th time at Gandhi Maidan, Patna. The ceremony was attended by the Prime Minister and Union Home Minister.
The ancient Nalanda Mahavihara, a renowned seat of learning in present-day Bihar, was founded during the reign of the Gupta ruler
aChandragupta I
bKumaragupta I
cSamudragupta
dSkandagupta
Answer: B
Nalanda University was established in the 5th century CE (around 427 CE) by Kumaragupta I of the Gupta dynasty. It became one of the foremost residential centres of learning in the ancient world.
In 2022, the 'Mithila Makhana' (fox nut) of Bihar was granted which form of intellectual property protection?
aPatent
bGeographical Indication (GI) tag
cTrademark
dCopyright
Answer: B
Mithila Makhana was awarded a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2022, recognising its distinctive geographical origin in the Mithilanchal region. Bihar accounts for the bulk of India's makhana production.
The 'Jal-Jeevan-Hariyali' campaign, focused on water conservation and combating climate change, was launched by the Government of Bihar in
a2019
b2017
c2015
d2021
Answer: A
Chief Minister Nitish Kumar launched the Jal-Jeevan-Hariyali campaign on 2 October 2019. Bihar was the first state to launch such a statewide environmental and climate-change initiative.
Pataliputra, the capital of several ancient Indian empires including the Mauryas, corresponds to which modern city in Bihar?
aGaya
bBhagalpur
cPatna
dMuzaffarpur
Answer: C
The ancient city of Pataliputra, capital of the Magadha-based Maurya and Gupta empires, is identified with present-day Patna, the capital of Bihar. It lay on the banks of the Ganga.
A sum of money becomes Rs. 1,200 in 2 years and Rs. 1,400 in 4 years at simple interest. The original principal is
aRs. 800
bRs. 900
cRs. 1,000
dRs. 1,100
Answer: C
Interest for 2 years (4th minus 2nd year amount) = 1400 - 1200 = Rs. 200, so interest for 2 years is Rs. 200. The amount at 2 years (1200) minus that interest gives the principal: 1200 - 200 = Rs. 1,000.
Find the number that completes the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ____
a36
b40
c42
d44
Answer: C
The differences between consecutive terms are 4, 6, 8, 10, so the next difference is 12. Therefore 30 + 12 = 42 (the series is n(n+1): 1x2, 2x3, 3x4, ...).
The Sun Temple at Deo and the famous Chhath Puja are most closely associated with which state of India?
aOdisha
bBihar
cJharkhand
dWest Bengal
Answer: B
Chhath Puja, dedicated to the Sun God, is the most important folk festival of Bihar, and the Deo Sun Temple in Aurangabad district is a major centre of its observance. The festival has spread widely with Bihari migration.
Pick the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'ACQUIT' (as used in a legal context).
aRelease
bPardon
cDischarge
dConvict
Answer: D
To 'acquit' is to declare a person not guilty, whereas to 'convict' is to declare a person guilty of an offence. Hence 'convict' is the antonym; the other options are near-synonyms of acquit.
The 1857 revolt in Bihar was prominently led from Jagdishpur by which veteran zamindar?
aTikait Umrao Singh
bPir Ali Khan
cKunwar Singh
dAmar Singh
Answer: C
Babu Kunwar Singh, the aged zamindar of Jagdishpur in Shahabad (Bhojpur) district, was the foremost leader of the 1857 uprising in Bihar. He fought the British despite his advanced age.
Bihar Diwas, which commemorates the carving out of Bihar as a separate province from the Bengal Presidency, is observed every year on
a26th January
b1st November
c15th August
d22nd March
Answer: D
On 22 March 1912 the British issued a notification separating Bihar and Orissa from the Bengal Presidency; the day is celebrated annually as Bihar Diwas.
The Kosi river, popularly described as the 'Sorrow of Bihar', has its origin in
athe Chotanagpur plateau
bthe Himalayan region of Nepal and Tibet
cthe Vindhya range
dthe Kaimur hills
Answer: B
The Kosi is formed by the Sun Kosi, Arun and Tamur, all rising in the Himalayan region of Nepal and Tibet; its frequent course changes and floods earned it the name 'Sorrow of Bihar'.
Vaishali, in Bihar, is historically significant as it is regarded as one of the world's earliest examples of a
afeudal kingdom
bhereditary monarchy
ctheocratic state
drepublic (gana-sangha)
Answer: D
Vaishali, capital of the Licchavis, is widely regarded as one of the first republics (gana-sangha) in the world, with a representative assembly governing the state.
The high court for the State of Bihar, established in 1916, is located at
aPatna
bRanchi
cGaya
dBhagalpur
Answer: A
The Patna High Court, established on 3 February 1916, is the principal civil court of original jurisdiction for the State of Bihar and is seated at Patna.
Under the Constitution of India, a Bill for the creation of a new High Court or extension of jurisdiction is enacted by Parliament; the provisions relating to High Courts for the States are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
aPart V
bPart VI
cPart IX
dPart XI
Answer: B
Part VI of the Constitution (Articles 152-237) deals with the States, and Chapter V of this Part (Articles 214-231) contains the provisions relating to the High Courts.
Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of the Judges of a High Court by the President?
aArticle 217
bArticle 124
cArticle 226
dArticle 233
Answer: A
Article 217 provides that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President; Article 124 deals with the Supreme Court and Article 233 with district judges.
Nitish Kumar took oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar on 20 November 2025, following the 2025 Assembly election. This swearing-in marked his taking the office of Chief Minister for the
a8th time
b10th time
c9th time
d11th time
Answer: B
After the NDA's landslide in the November 2025 Bihar Assembly election, Nitish Kumar was sworn in as Chief Minister at Gandhi Maidan, Patna, on 20 November 2025 for a record 10th time.
The National Makhana Board, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 to promote the cultivation, processing and export of makhana, was launched by the Prime Minister in September 2025 in which State?
aAssam
bBihar
cWest Bengal
dOdisha
Answer: B
Bihar produces close to 90% of India's makhana (fox nut); the National Makhana Board, proposed in the 2025-26 Union Budget, was launched at Purnea, Bihar, in September 2025.
'Bihar Diwas', celebrated every year on 22 March, commemorates the day on which the province of Bihar was carved out of which entity in 1912?
aThe Bengal Presidency
bThe Central Provinces
cThe United Provinces
dThe Madras Presidency
Answer: A
On 22 March 1912 Bihar (with Orissa) was separated from the Bengal Presidency to form the Bihar and Orissa Province; the day is observed as Bihar Diwas.
The modern Nalanda University, revived as a centre of learning under an Act of Parliament, is located at Rajgir in which district of Bihar?
aGaya
bNalanda
cPatna
dNawada
Answer: B
The present-day Nalanda University is situated at Rajgir in Nalanda district, whose administrative headquarters is Bihar Sharif; Rajgir was the ancient capital of Magadha.
Arif Mohammed Khan, who administered the oath to the Bihar Chief Minister in November 2025, was sworn in on 3 January 2025 as the ____ Governor of Bihar.
a40th
b41st
c42nd
d43rd
Answer: C
Arif Mohammed Khan took oath as the 42nd Governor of Bihar on 3 January 2025 and held office during the November 2025 government formation.
The First War of Indian Independence (Revolt of 1857) in the Bihar region was led prominently by an octogenarian zamindar of Jagdishpur. He was
aKunwar Singh
bTilka Manjhi
cBirsa Munda
dSheikh Bhikhari
Answer: A
Babu Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur (Shahabad/Bhojpur) led the 1857 revolt in Bihar at the age of about 80 and is a celebrated figure in the State's history.
Mahatma Gandhi first applied his technique of Satyagraha in India in 1917 against the exploitative 'tinkathia' system of indigo cultivation. This took place in which district of Bihar?
aBhagalpur
bSaran
cChamparan
dMuzaffarpur
Answer: C
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Gandhi's first satyagraha in India, launched on behalf of indigo cultivators in Champaran, Bihar.
A shopkeeper marks an article 40% above its cost price and then allows a discount of 25% on the marked price. His profit percentage on the cost price is
a10%
b5%
c15%
d12%
Answer: B
Let cost price be 100; marked price = 140; selling price after 25% discount = 140 x 0.75 = 105, giving a profit of 5 on 100, i.e. 5%.
The ruins of the ancient Nalanda Mahavihara, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are located near which town in Bihar?
aBodh Gaya
bRajgir
cVaishali
dMadhubani
Answer: B
The ancient Nalanda University was situated near Rajagriha (modern Rajgir) in the Nalanda district of Bihar; PM Modi inaugurated the revived university's new campus at Rajgir in 2024.
According to UN data, India became the world's most populous country, overtaking China, in which year?
a2021
b2023
c2022
d2024
Answer: B
In April 2023 the United Nations reported that India had surpassed China to become the world's most populous nation, with a population of about 1.4286 billion.
The principle that the line between administrative and quasi-judicial functions is thin and that natural justice applies to administrative actions affecting rights was laid down by the Supreme Court in
aNakkuda Ali v. Jayaratne
bProvince of Bombay v. Khushaldas Advani
cA.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
dFranklin v. Minister of Town and Country Planning
Answer: C
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 150, the Supreme Court held that the dividing line between administrative and quasi-judicial power is gradually obliterating and that principles of natural justice are not confined to quasi-judicial decisions alone.
In which case did the House of Lords revive the application of natural justice to administrative dismissals, holding that a Chief Constable could not be removed without a hearing?
aLocal Government Board v. Arlidge
bRidge v. Baldwin
cCooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works
dBoard of Education v. Rice
Answer: B
In Ridge v. Baldwin [1964] AC 40, the House of Lords held that the dismissal of the Brighton Chief Constable without a hearing breached natural justice, extending procedural fairness beyond purely judicial or quasi-judicial decisions.
The maxim 'audi alteram partem' as a component of the principles of natural justice means
ano one shall be a judge in his own cause
bhear the other side; no one shall be condemned unheard
cjustice delayed is justice denied
da delegate cannot further delegate his power
Answer: B
Audi alteram partem literally means 'hear the other side' and embodies the rule that no person shall be condemned without being afforded a reasonable opportunity of being heard. The rule against bias is the separate maxim nemo judex in causa sua.
In which decision did the Supreme Court hold that the procedure depriving personal liberty under Article 21 must be 'just, fair and reasonable' and must conform to natural justice, while impounding a passport without hearing was held bad?
aA.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
bSatwant Singh Sawhney v. D. Ramarathnam
cManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
dKharak Singh v. State of U.P.
Answer: C
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, AIR 1978 SC 597, the Court held that 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, and that the impounding of the passport without a hearing violated audi alteram partem.
The doctrine that the legislature may delegate ancillary and incidental powers but cannot delegate its 'essential legislative function' was enunciated by the Supreme Court in
aGwalior Rayon Silk Mfg. Co. v. Asst. Commissioner of Sales Tax
bHamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
cVasantlal Maganbhai v. State of Bombay
dIn re Delhi Laws Act, 1912
Answer: D
In re Delhi Laws Act, 1912, AIR 1951 SC 332, the Supreme Court held that laying down the policy of the law and enacting it into a binding rule of conduct is an essential legislative function which cannot be delegated, though ancillary matters may be.
The maxim 'delegatus non potest delegare' in administrative law signifies that
aa delegate cannot further sub-delegate his power unless expressly or impliedly authorised
bthe legislature cannot delegate any power at all
cdelegated legislation must always be published
dthe executive cannot exercise judicial functions
Answer: A
The maxim 'delegatus non potest delegare' means a delegate cannot delegate further; sub-delegation of power is generally impermissible unless authorised by the statute expressly or by necessary implication. It is treated as a rule of construction, not an absolute rule of law.
The 'Wednesbury principle' of unreasonableness in judicial review of administrative discretion was laid down in
aAssociated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation
bCouncil of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service
cPadfield v. Minister of Agriculture
dRoberts v. Hopwood
Answer: A
In Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation [1948] 1 KB 223, the court held that a decision can be struck down if it is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it.
Which of the following correctly distinguishes the writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 from that of the Supreme Court under Article 32?
aArticle 226 is available only for enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas Article 32 is available for any purpose
bArticle 32 can be invoked for any legal right, while Article 226 is confined to fundamental rights
cArticle 226 is available both for fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', making it wider than Article 32
dBoth articles are confined strictly to enforcement of fundamental rights only
Answer: C
Article 32 may be invoked only for enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', making its scope wider than Article 32.
The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which was enacted pursuant to which constitutional provision?
aArticle 263
bArticle 323B
cArticle 262
dArticle 323A
Answer: D
Article 323A, inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, empowers Parliament to provide for administrative tribunals for service matters; the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 was enacted under it and set up the Central Administrative Tribunal.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the doctrine of promissory estoppel can be invoked against the State, directing the Government to honour an assurance of sales-tax exemption acted upon by the promisee?
aUnion of India v. Anglo Afghan Agencies
bJit Ram Shiv Kumar v. State of Haryana
cM/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of U.P.
dExcise Commissioner v. Ram Kumar
Answer: C
In Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of U.P., AIR 1979 SC 621, the Supreme Court held that the State is bound by promissory estoppel where it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters his position relying on it.
The system of 'droit administratif' as a distinct body of administrative law administered by separate administrative courts is associated with
aEngland
bthe United States of America
cFrance
dAustralia
Answer: C
Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law, developed largely through the Conseil d'Etat, under which disputes between the State and citizens are decided by separate administrative courts rather than the ordinary courts. Dicey criticised it as contrary to the rule of law.
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee headed by the
aPrime Minister
bChief Justice of India
cSpeaker of the Lok Sabha
dVice-President of India
Answer: A
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Selection Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or his nominee, and an eminent jurist.
Under the Bihar Lokayukta Act, 2011, who is the 'competent authority' in relation to a complaint against the Chief Minister of Bihar?
aThe Chief Justice of the Patna High Court
bThe Speaker of the Bihar Legislative Assembly
cThe Governor of Bihar
dThe President of India
Answer: C
Under the Bihar Lokayukta Act, 2011, the competent authority for the Chief Minister is the Governor, while for a member of the Council of Ministers the competent authority is the Chief Minister.
The rule against bias, a component of natural justice, is expressed by the maxim
ares judicata pro veritate accipitur
baudi alteram partem
cactus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
dnemo judex in causa sua
Answer: D
Nemo judex in causa sua (no one shall be a judge in his own cause) embodies the rule against bias, requiring that the adjudicator be impartial and have no personal interest in the matter. Audi alteram partem is the separate fair-hearing rule.
Which of the following is NOT regarded as an essential legislative function that the legislature is prohibited from delegating?
aLaying down the policy of the law
bFraming rules to fill in details and give effect to the legislative policy
cEnacting the legislative policy into a binding rule of conduct
dRepealing or abrogating an existing law
Answer: B
Framing subordinate rules to fill in details and carry out the declared legislative policy is a permissible delegation of ancillary power. Laying down policy, converting it into binding rules, and repealing existing law are essential legislative functions that cannot be delegated, per In re Delhi Laws Act.
In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold for the first time that the principles of natural justice apply not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions but also to purely administrative functions?
aRidge v. Baldwin
bManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
cA.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
dState of Orissa v. Dr. Binapani Dei
Answer: C
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court blurred the line between administrative and quasi-judicial action and applied natural justice to administrative functions for the first time.
The English decision which revived and laid the foundation of the modern law of natural justice by extending the duty to act fairly to administrative bodies was
aRidge v. Baldwin
bCooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works
cLocal Government Board v. Arlidge
dFranklin v. Minister of Town and Country Planning
Answer: A
In Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) AC 40, the House of Lords held the dismissal of a Chief Constable without a hearing void, reviving natural justice and extending it beyond judicial functions.
The two principal maxims of the rules of natural justice are 'nemo judex in causa sua' and
aactus reus non facit reum
baudi alteram partem
cres ipsa loquitur
dubi jus ibi remedium
Answer: B
Natural justice rests on two maxims: nemo judex in causa sua (no one shall be a judge in his own cause, the rule against bias) and audi alteram partem (hear the other side).
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the procedure depriving a person of personal liberty under Article 21 must be
aany procedure prescribed by a competent legislature
bmerely a procedure in writing
ca procedure laid down only by Parliament
dright, just, fair and reasonable, and not arbitrary
Answer: D
Maneka Gandhi held that 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be right, just, fair and reasonable, importing the principles of natural justice such as audi alteram partem into administrative action.
The leading Indian authority on the permissible limits of delegated legislation, holding that essential legislative functions cannot be delegated, is
aHamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
bRajnarain Singh v. Chairman, Patna Administration Committee
cIn re Delhi Laws Act, 1912
dVasantlal Maganbhai v. State of Bombay
Answer: C
In re Delhi Laws Act (AIR 1951 SC 332), a seven-judge bench held that the legislature may delegate ancillary functions but cannot delegate its essential legislative function of laying down policy.
The doctrine that a decision so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have arrived at it is liable to be quashed on judicial review is known as
aWednesbury unreasonableness
bthe doctrine of proportionality
cthe doctrine of legitimate expectation
dthe doctrine of pleasure
Answer: A
The Wednesbury principle, from Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation (1948), allows a court to interfere where a decision is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could have made it.
Articles 323A and 323B, providing for the constitution of administrative and other tribunals, were inserted into the Constitution by
athe 42nd Constitutional Amendment
bthe 24th Constitutional Amendment
cthe 44th Constitutional Amendment
dthe 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Answer: A
The 42nd Amendment, 1976 inserted Part XIV-A containing Articles 323A and 323B, empowering creation of administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters.
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under
aArticle 136 of the Constitution
bthe Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021
cthe Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952
dthe Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
Answer: D
The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, enacted under Article 323A, provided for the Central Administrative Tribunal and State Administrative Tribunals to adjudicate service matters.
In L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court held that
atribunals can wholly exclude the jurisdiction of the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227
bthe power of judicial review of the High Courts under Articles 226/227 and of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is part of the basic structure
cappeals from tribunals lie directly to the Supreme Court only
dadministrative tribunals are unconstitutional
Answer: B
L. Chandra Kumar held that judicial review under Articles 226/227 and 32 is a basic feature; tribunal decisions remain subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court.
The decision establishing that the doctrine of promissory estoppel can be enforced even against the Government when it makes a clear and unequivocal promise acted upon to the promisee's detriment is
aUnion of India v. Anglo Afghan Agencies
bMotilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of U.P.
cExcise Commissioner v. Ram Kumar
dJit Ram Shiv Kumar v. State of Haryana
Answer: B
Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of U.P. (1979) held the State bound by promissory estoppel where it promised sales-tax exemption and the company invested in reliance on that promise.
The writ issued to challenge the legality of a person's claim to, and to prevent usurpation of, a substantive public office is
aquo warranto
bcertiorari
cmandamus
dprohibition
Answer: A
Quo warranto ('by what authority') is issued to enquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to oust a usurper; it lies only in respect of a substantive public office.
The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court
ato compel a public authority to perform a public duty it has failed to perform
bto quash an order already passed by an inferior tribunal acting without jurisdiction or in violation of natural justice
cto forbid an inferior tribunal from proceeding further with a matter beyond its jurisdiction
dto secure the release of a person illegally detained
Answer: B
Certiorari is a corrective writ to quash a decision already made by an inferior court or tribunal where it acted without jurisdiction, in excess of jurisdiction, or in breach of natural justice; prohibition, by contrast, is preventive.
The institution of Lokayukta in the State of Bihar was established by the
aLokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
bBihar Lokayukta Act, 1973
cBihar Special Courts Act, 2009
dBihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011
Answer: B
The Bihar Lokayukta Act, 1973 created the statutory ombudsman in Bihar to investigate allegations of corruption and maladministration against public functionaries.
Under the Wednesbury principle and Indian judicial review, the courts ordinarily examine the legality and process of an administrative decision but NOT its
amerits or correctness on the facts as if sitting in appeal
bcompliance with natural justice
cjurisdictional basis
dconformity with the enabling statute
Answer: A
Judicial review is concerned with the decision-making process (legality, procedural fairness, reasonableness), not with the merits of the decision; the court does not sit as a court of appeal over the administrator's findings.
Conditional or contingent legislation differs from delegated legislation in that, in conditional legislation,
athe executive is empowered to frame substantive rules and policy
bthe law is complete and the executive is left only to determine the condition or fact upon which the law is to be brought into operation
cthe legislature surrenders its essential legislative function
dthe executive may repeal the parent statute
Answer: B
In conditional legislation the legislature enacts a complete law and merely leaves to the executive the determination of the contingency or fact on which the statute will come into force, without conferring any rule-making power.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the principles of natural justice apply not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions but also to administrative functions, observing that the dividing line between the two is gradually obliterating?
aProvince of Bombay v. Khushaldas Advani
bA.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
cNakkuda Ali v. Jayaratne
dFranklin v. Minister of Town and Country Planning
Answer: B
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court extended natural justice to administrative action and held that the dividing line between administrative and quasi-judicial power is thin and gradually obliterating.
The Presidential Reference In re Delhi Laws Act (1951) is the leading authority on which of the following propositions?
aAll legislative power can be freely delegated to the executive
bEssential legislative functions cannot be delegated, but ancillary and incidental matters may be
cDelegated legislation is wholly unconstitutional in India
dThe executive can repeal a statute by way of delegated legislation
Answer: B
In re Delhi Laws Act (AIR 1951 SC 332) held that the legislature must itself lay down the policy (essential legislative function) and may delegate only ancillary and incidental matters; the power to repeal or modify a statute was struck down as excessive delegation.
The maxim 'nemo judex in causa sua' embodies which principle of natural justice?
aRight to a reasoned decision
bAudi alteram partem
cRule against bias
dDoctrine of legitimate expectation
Answer: C
'Nemo judex in causa sua' means no one shall be a judge in his own cause and is the foundation of the rule against bias; 'audi alteram partem' is the separate rule of fair hearing.
In Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal Co. (1852), the decision of the Lord Chancellor was set aside on the ground of which type of bias?
aPersonal bias
bDepartmental bias
cBias as to subject-matter
dPecuniary bias
Answer: D
In Dimes the Lord Chancellor held shares in the respondent company; the House of Lords held that any direct pecuniary interest, however small, disqualifies a judge, irrespective of whether it actually affected the decision.
The doctrine of 'Wednesbury unreasonableness' as a ground for judicial review of administrative action was laid down in which case?
aPadfield v. Minister of Agriculture
bCouncil of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service
cAssociated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation
dAnisminic Ltd. v. Foreign Compensation Commission
Answer: C
In Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation (1948), the court held that a decision may be quashed if it is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it.
In M/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979), the Supreme Court applied which doctrine to bind the State to its assurance of sales-tax exemption?
aDoctrine of pleasure
bDoctrine of promissory estoppel
cDoctrine of ultra vires
dDoctrine of severability
Answer: B
The Court held that the State is bound by promissory estoppel where it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters its position to its detriment in reliance on it.
Articles 323A and 323B, which provide for the establishment of administrative and other tribunals, were inserted into the Constitution by which amendment?
aThe 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
bThe 44th Amendment Act, 1978
cThe 24th Amendment Act, 1971
dThe 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: A
The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976 inserted Part XIVA containing Articles 323A (administrative tribunals for service matters) and 323B (tribunals for other specified matters).
In L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court held that the power of judicial review of the High Courts and Supreme Court under which provisions forms part of the basic structure and cannot be ousted by conferring exclusive jurisdiction on tribunals?
aArticles 14 and 19
bArticles 245 and 246
cArticles 226/227 and 32
dArticles 124 and 217
Answer: C
L. Chandra Kumar held that judicial review under Articles 226/227 (High Courts) and Article 32 (Supreme Court) is part of the basic structure; tribunals act as supplemental fora and remain subject to High Court scrutiny.
Article 311(2) of the Constitution guarantees to a civil servant facing dismissal, removal or reduction in rank a:
aRight to appeal to the Supreme Court directly
bReasonable opportunity of being heard in an inquiry into the charges
cRight to permanent reinstatement
dRight to choose his own disciplinary authority
Answer: B
Article 311(2) requires that no civil servant be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he is informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) is regarded as a landmark in administrative law primarily because it:
aAbolished the writ of certiorari in England
bEstablished the doctrine of absolute legislative supremacy
cRecognised droit administratif in English law
dRevived and extended the principles of natural justice to administrative decisions
Answer: D
In Ridge v. Baldwin the House of Lords held the dismissal of a Chief Constable void for breach of audi alteram partem, reviving natural justice and laying the foundation of modern judicial review.
The system of 'droit administratif' is associated with which country?
aFrance
bEngland
cUnited States of America
dIndia
Answer: A
Droit administratif is the body of administrative law developed in France, administered by separate administrative courts (the Conseil d'Etat at the apex), distinct from ordinary courts.
Which writ is issued to a person holding a public office, commanding him to show by what authority he holds that office?
aMandamus
bCertiorari
cQuo warranto
dProhibition
Answer: C
Quo warranto is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to oust a usurper; mandamus commands performance of a public duty, while certiorari and prohibition deal with excess of jurisdiction.
The maxim 'delegatus non potest delegare' in administrative law means that:
aA delegate cannot further delegate his powers unless authorised
bThe legislature cannot delegate any power at all
cDelegated legislation must always be laid before Parliament
dAn administrative authority must always give reasons
Answer: A
The maxim means a delegate cannot sub-delegate; an authority entrusted with discretionary power must exercise it itself and cannot pass it on to another unless the parent statute expressly or impliedly permits sub-delegation.
The institution of 'Ombudsman', a mechanism for redressal of citizens' grievances against administrative action, originated in which country?
aEngland
bUnited States of America
cFrance
dSweden
Answer: D
The Ombudsman institution originated in Sweden in 1809; in India the corresponding institutions are the Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in the States.
Where a statute itself is complete but its coming into operation is left to the determination of the executive on the fulfilment of certain conditions, the law so brought into force is an example of:
aConditional legislation
bHenry VIII clause
cSub-ordinate legislation by way of rules
dExcessive delegation
Answer: A
In conditional legislation the legislature lays down a complete law and merely leaves the function of determining when, where or upon what conditions it shall come into operation to the executive; no legislative power is delegated.
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court held that the principles of natural justice apply
aonly to judicial functions
bonly to quasi-judicial functions
cto administrative functions as well, not merely judicial or quasi-judicial functions
donly where a statute expressly so provides
Answer: C
In A.K. Kraipak the Supreme Court held that the line between administrative and quasi-judicial functions is thin and that the rules of natural justice extend even to administrative actions affecting rights.
The maxim 'nemo judex in causa sua' embodies which rule of natural justice?
aThe duty to give reasons
bThe right to a fair hearing
cThe rule against bias
dThe rule of audi alteram partem
Answer: C
'Nemo judex in causa sua' means no one shall be a judge in his own cause, which is the rule against bias; 'audi alteram partem' is the separate fair-hearing rule.
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the rule of audi alteram partem
ais implicit in administrative and quasi-judicial decisions affecting fundamental rights
bhas no application to administrative orders
capplies only where the statute expressly requires a hearing
dwas abolished in service matters
Answer: A
The Court held that the procedure under Article 21 must be fair and just, and that the right to be heard (audi alteram partem) is implicit even where the statute is silent.
Article 311(2) of the Constitution requires that a civil servant shall not be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank except
aafter an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard
bwith the prior approval of the Public Service Commission
cafter approval by the High Court
dby an order of the President alone
Answer: A
Article 311(2) mandates an inquiry in which the civil servant is informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before dismissal, removal or reduction in rank.
Under the Constitution, the power of the High Court to issue writs for judicial review of administrative action is conferred by
aArticle 226
bArticle 136
cArticle 32
dArticle 300A
Answer: A
Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose; Article 32 is the corresponding power of the Supreme Court (limited to fundamental rights).
ato call upon a person to show by what authority he holds a public office
bto produce a detained person before the court
cto quash the order of an inferior tribunal
dto compel performance of a public duty
Answer: A
Quo warranto calls upon a person holding a public office to show the authority under which he holds it; habeas corpus, certiorari and mandamus serve the other functions listed.
In In re Delhi Laws Act (1951), the Supreme Court laid down that the legislature cannot delegate
aany of its powers to the executive
bits essential legislative function of laying down the policy and converting it into a binding rule of conduct
cthe power to frame subordinate rules
dthe power to fix dates for commencement of a statute
Answer: B
The Court held that essential legislative functions (laying down policy and enacting it into a binding rule) cannot be delegated, though ancillary and incidental matters may be.
In M/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979), the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of promissory estoppel
acannot be invoked against the Government in any circumstances
bapplies only where the promise is reduced to a registered document
capplies only between private parties
dcan be invoked against the Government where it has made a clear and unequivocal promise acted upon to the promisee's detriment
Answer: D
The Court held that the State is bound by promissory estoppel when it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters its position relying on it.
ato direct a public authority to perform a statutory duty
bto quash an order already passed by an inferior court or tribunal acting without jurisdiction or in breach of natural justice
cto prevent an inferior tribunal from proceeding further in a matter
dto secure release from illegal detention
Answer: B
Certiorari is a corrective writ that quashes a decision already made by an inferior court or tribunal; prohibition is preventive, mandamus commands a duty, and habeas corpus addresses detention.
Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) is regarded as a landmark in administrative law because it
aabolished the doctrine of natural justice
bheld that natural justice applies only to judicial functions
crevived and extended the principles of natural justice to administrative decisions
dintroduced the doctrine of legitimate expectation
Answer: C
In Ridge v. Baldwin the House of Lords revived natural justice, holding that dismissal without notice and hearing breached audi alteram partem, extending fairness to administrative action.
Article 32 of the Constitution enables a person to approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of
aany legal right
bdirective principles of State policy
ccontractual rights against the State
dfundamental rights only
Answer: D
Article 32 is confined to enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas Article 226 is wider, available both for fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose'.
The Right to Information Act, which promotes accountability of administrative authorities by giving citizens access to information held by public authorities, was enacted in the year
a2002
b2013
c2009
d2005
Answer: D
The Right to Information Act, 2005 came into force in 2005 (fully on 12 October 2005) and entitles citizens to seek information under the control of public authorities.
The institution of an 'Ombudsman' at the Central level in India is broadly served by which body created under a 2013 enactment?
aCentral Vigilance Commission
bCentral Administrative Tribunal
cLokpal
dNational Human Rights Commission
Answer: C
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 created the Lokpal at the Centre to inquire into corruption allegations against public functionaries, performing an ombudsman-type role.
Constitutional protection under Article 311(1) provides that a civil servant shall not be dismissed or removed
awithout a criminal conviction
bduring the pendency of departmental proceedings
cwithout the consent of the Union Public Service Commission
dby an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed
Answer: D
Article 311(1) bars dismissal or removal of a civil servant by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority; clause (2) separately guarantees an inquiry and hearing.
In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), the Supreme Court is best remembered for holding that
athe dividing line between quasi-judicial and administrative functions is becoming thin, and the principles of natural justice (including the rule against bias) also govern administrative action affecting rights
bthe rules of natural justice apply only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, never to purely administrative action
ca selection committee is wholly outside the reach of the rule against bias
dnatural justice is excluded whenever a statute is silent about the procedure to be followed
Answer: A
Kraipak blurred the rigid distinction between quasi-judicial and administrative functions and applied natural justice (the rule against bias) to an administrative selection process, shifting Indian administrative law toward functionalism. A member of the selection board being himself a candidate vitiated the selection.
The principle that an administrative decision may be quashed if it is 'so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it' is associated with
aRidge v. Baldwin
bCouncil of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service
cAnisminic Ltd. v. Foreign Compensation Commission
dAssociated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v. Wednesbury Corporation
Answer: D
The Wednesbury case (1948) laid down 'Wednesbury unreasonableness' (irrationality) as a ground for judicial review, setting a high threshold under which courts interfere only where a decision is so absurd that no sensible authority could have reached it.
Which of the following correctly states the position of the doctrine of legitimate expectation as explained by the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation (1993)?
aIt confers an absolute substantive right to the expected benefit which a court must always enforce
bIt can be invoked even against an express statutory provision
cIt gives the claimant locus standi for judicial review and a right to fair treatment, but yields where overriding public interest requires otherwise
dIt is available only to government servants in matters of promotion
Answer: C
In Hindustan Development Corporation the Court held that legitimate expectation, arising from a representation or settled past practice, gives sufficient locus standi for judicial review and a right to fair consideration, but does not crystallise into an enforceable right where an overriding public interest justifies departure.
A writ of mandamus will ordinarily NOT be issued in which one of the following situations?
aTo compel a public authority to perform a statutory duty which it has refused to perform
bTo compel a public authority to refund a tax collected without authority of law
cTo enforce a purely private contractual obligation having no public-law element
dTo restrain a public officer from acting under a void statutory provision
Answer: C
Mandamus lies to enforce a public or statutory duty owed by a public authority; it is not available to enforce a purely private contractual obligation, for which the remedy is a civil suit (e.g., for specific performance or damages).
In M/s Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979), the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of promissory estoppel
acan never be invoked against the Government or a public authority
bcan be enforced against the Government where it makes a clear and unequivocal promise intended to be acted upon, and the promisee alters its position relying on it
capplies only between two private parties and never against the State
drequires a concluded contract supported by consideration before it can be invoked
Answer: B
Motilal Padampat held that promissory estoppel binds the Government where it makes a clear and unequivocal representation intended to be acted upon and the promisee alters its position in reliance; mere executive or financial difficulty is not a defence, though the Government may plead overriding public interest.
Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators, provided that such number
ashall not exceed three
bshall be fixed only by the court
cshall always be an odd number greater than one
dshall not be an even number
Answer: D
Section 10(1) provides that parties may determine the number of arbitrators provided it is not an even number; failing such determination, the tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator under Section 10(2).
An arbitration agreement, to be valid under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, must be
ain writing
bregistered before a sub-registrar
cattested by two witnesses
din the form of a deed on stamp paper only
Answer: A
Section 7 requires the arbitration agreement to be in writing; it may be contained in a document signed by the parties, exchange of communications, or exchange of statements of claim and defence in which its existence is alleged and not denied.
The power of the arbitral tribunal to rule on its own jurisdiction, including ruling on any objections with respect to the existence or validity of the arbitration agreement, is contained in
aSection 9
bSection 16
cSection 11
dSection 34
Answer: B
Section 16 embodies the doctrine of kompetenz-kompetenz, empowering the arbitral tribunal to rule on its own jurisdiction and on objections to the existence or validity of the arbitration agreement.
An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Act of 1996 must ordinarily be made within
athirty days from the receipt of the award
bone year from the date of the award
csix months from the date of the award
dthree months from the date of receipt of the award
Answer: D
Section 34(3) requires the application to be made within three months of receipt of the award, extendable by the court by a further thirty days on sufficient cause, but not thereafter.
Where an application to set aside an arbitral award is filed beyond three months, the court may entertain it if satisfied of sufficient cause, but only within a further period of
afifteen days
bthirty days
csixty days
dninety days
Answer: B
The proviso to Section 34(3) permits a further period of thirty days, and no more, if the court is satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause from making the application within three months.
Under Section 29A of the Act of 1996, the arbitral award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made within a period of
atwelve months from the date of completion of pleadings
bsix months from the entering upon reference
ctwelve months from the date of the arbitration agreement
dtwo years from the constitution of the tribunal
Answer: A
Section 29A(1) requires the award to be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under Section 23(4); this may be extended by six months by consent of the parties.
The twelve-month period for making an arbitral award under Section 29A may be extended for a further period not exceeding six months
aby the arbitral tribunal of its own motion
bby the consent of the parties
conly by the Supreme Court
dautomatically without any application
Answer: B
Section 29A(3) allows the parties, by consent, to extend the period for making the award by a further period not exceeding six months; beyond this, only the court may grant an extension.
Interim measures of protection by a court, both before and during arbitral proceedings or at any time after the making of the award but before its enforcement, may be sought under
aSection 27
bSection 17
cSection 9
dSection 36
Answer: C
Section 9 empowers a party to apply to a court for interim measures of protection before or during arbitral proceedings, or after the award but before enforcement under Section 36.
Where a court passes an order for interim measure of protection under Section 9 before the commencement of arbitral proceedings, the arbitral proceedings shall be commenced within
athirty days
bsixty days
cone hundred and eighty days
dninety days
Answer: D
Section 9(2) provides that where a court passes a Section 9 order before commencement of arbitral proceedings, such proceedings must commence within ninety days of the order or such further time as the court determines.
Which of the following is NOT an appealable order under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
aAn order refusing to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8
bAn order of the tribunal ruling on the substantive merits of the claim
cAn order setting aside or refusing to set aside an award under Section 34
dAn order granting or refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 9
Answer: B
Section 37 enumerates a closed list of appealable orders (Section 8 refusal, Section 9 measures, Section 34 setting aside, and certain Section 16 and Section 17 orders); a ruling on the merits of the claim is not among them.
An arbitrator may be challenged under Section 12 of the Act of 1996 only if
ahe is a foreign national
bhe has acted as an arbitrator in any prior dispute
cthe award is likely to be against the challenging party
dcircumstances exist giving rise to justifiable doubts as to his independence or impartiality, or he does not possess the agreed qualifications
Answer: D
Section 12(3) permits a challenge where circumstances give rise to justifiable doubts as to the arbitrator's independence or impartiality, or where he does not possess the qualifications agreed to by the parties.
In Bharat Aluminium Co. v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc. (BALCO), 2012, the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
aapplies to all arbitrations wherever seated
bhas been wholly repealed by Part II
capplies only to international commercial arbitrations
dapplies only to arbitrations seated in India
Answer: D
In BALCO (2012) the Supreme Court held that Part I applies only to arbitrations seated in India; for foreign-seated arbitrations Indian courts cannot exercise Part I powers such as Sections 9 or 34.
An arbitral award under Section 31 of the Act of 1996 shall, unless the parties have agreed otherwise or it is an award on agreed terms,
abe oral if the parties so consent
brequire registration to be valid
cbe made only by a unanimous tribunal
dbe in writing and state the reasons upon which it is based
Answer: D
Section 31 requires the award to be in writing and signed, and under Section 31(3) it must state the reasons on which it is based unless the parties agree otherwise or it is an award on agreed terms under Section 30.
Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement is required to be
ain writing
boral or in writing at the option of the parties
ccompulsorily registered before a notary
din writing only where the value of the dispute exceeds one lakh rupees
Answer: A
Section 7(3) of the Act mandates that an arbitration agreement shall be in writing; Section 7(4) sets out the forms (signed document, exchange of communications, or pleadings) in which it is deemed to be in writing.
Where the parties to an arbitration agreement fail to determine the number of arbitrators, the arbitral tribunal under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall consist of
aa sole arbitrator
btwo arbitrators
cthree arbitrators
dsuch number as the High Court may direct
Answer: A
Section 10(1) permits the parties to fix the number of arbitrators provided it is not an even number, and Section 10(2) provides that failing such determination the tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator.
Under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in matters other than international commercial arbitration, the arbitral award shall be made within a period of
asix months from the date of reference
bninety days from the closing of arguments
ctwenty-four months from the entry of the tribunal upon reference
dtwelve months from the date of completion of pleadings
Answer: D
Section 29A(1) requires the award (other than in international commercial arbitration) to be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under Section 23(4); this period may be extended by six months with consent of the parties under Section 29A(3).
An application to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 cannot be made after three months have elapsed from receipt of the award; however, the Court may, on sufficient cause, entertain it within a further period of
aninety days, but not thereafter
bsixty days, but not thereafter
cthirty days, but not thereafter
dsuch period as the Court in its discretion may allow without limit
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 34(3) allows the Court, if satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause, to entertain the application within a further period of thirty days, but not thereafter.
Under Section 63 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in conciliation proceedings the number of conciliators
ashall not exceed five
bshall always be three
cshall be one, unless the parties agree that there shall be two or three conciliators
dmust invariably be an odd number not exceeding seven
Answer: C
Section 63 provides that there shall be one conciliator unless the parties agree that there shall be two or three conciliators, who as a general rule ought to act jointly.
Under Section 3 of the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum number of persons required to form a public company is
atwo
bseven
cfive
dten
Answer: B
Section 3(1)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013 requires seven or more persons to form a public company, two or more for a private company, and one for a One Person Company.
The principle that a company is a separate legal entity distinct from its members was firmly established in
aFoss v. Harbottle
bAshbury Railway Carriage Co. v. Riche
cSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
dRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
Answer: C
In Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd. (1897) AC 22, the House of Lords held that on incorporation a company becomes a distinct legal person separate from its shareholders.
Under Section 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013, a private company (other than a One Person Company) may have a maximum number of members of
afifty
bone hundred
ctwo hundred
dno maximum limit
Answer: C
Section 2(68) limits the membership of a private company (excluding an OPC) to two hundred, raised from fifty under the 1956 Act, with present and past employee-members excluded from the count.
The doctrine of ultra vires in company law was laid down in
aSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
bAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche
cRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
dFoss v. Harbottle
Answer: B
In Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche (1875) LR 7 HL 653, it was held that an act beyond the objects clause of the memorandum is ultra vires and void, incapable of ratification even by all the shareholders.
The doctrine of indoor management, which protects an outsider dealing with a company in good faith, originated in
aSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
bRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
cAshbury Railway Carriage Co. v. Riche
dLee v. Lee's Air Farming Ltd.
Answer: B
The rule in Royal British Bank v. Turquand (1856) 6 E&B 327 allows a person dealing with the company to presume that its internal procedures and rules have been duly complied with.
A company formed for promoting commerce, art, science, charity or other useful objects, intending to apply its profits in promoting its objects and prohibiting payment of dividend, is registered under which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
aSection 7
bSection 25
cSection 12
dSection 8
Answer: D
Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 governs not-for-profit companies (corresponding to Section 25 of the 1956 Act), which apply income towards their objects and pay no dividend to members.
The rule that the proper plaintiff in an action for a wrong done to a company is the company itself was laid down in
aRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
bSalomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
cFoss v. Harbottle
dCook v. Deeks
Answer: C
Foss v. Harbottle (1843) 67 ER 189 established the majority rule and the proper plaintiff rule, subject to recognised exceptions such as ultra vires acts and fraud on the minority.
Under the Companies Act, 2013, the document that defines the objects, scope and powers of a company and is regarded as its charter is the
aArticles of Association
bCertificate of Incorporation
cProspectus
dMemorandum of Association
Answer: D
The Memorandum of Association under Section 4 is the fundamental charter defining the company's constitution and the scope of its activities; the articles under Section 5 regulate only internal management.
Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, an eligible company must spend, in every financial year, at least what percentage of the average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years on Corporate Social Responsibility?
atwo per cent
bone per cent
cthree per cent
dfive per cent
Answer: A
Section 135(5) mandates that a company covered by the section spend at least two per cent of the average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities.
Under the Companies Act, 2013, on registration of a company the Registrar issues a
acertificate of incorporation
bcertificate of commencement of business
ctrading certificate
dmemorandum of association
Answer: A
Under Section 7(2), the Registrar registers the documents and issues a certificate of incorporation, bringing the company into existence as a body corporate with effect from the date stated therein under Section 9.
Under the Companies Act, 2013, a 'One Person Company' as defined in Section 2(62) means a company which has
aonly one person as a member
bonly one director
conly one shareholder and one creditor
da paid-up capital of one lakh rupees
Answer: A
Section 2(62) defines a One Person Company as a company which has only one person as a member; it is a class of private company introduced by the Companies Act, 2013.
Under Section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013, a person found guilty of fraud is punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than
athree months
bone year
csix months
dtwo years
Answer: C
Section 447 prescribes imprisonment of not less than six months extending up to ten years, together with fine; where the fraud involves public interest the minimum term is three years.
A document inviting the public to subscribe for the securities of a company, the contents of which are governed by Section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013, is called a
amemorandum
bdebenture trust deed
cshare certificate
dprospectus
Answer: D
A prospectus is the document by which a public company invites the public to subscribe for its securities; Section 26 prescribes the matters and reports it must state and require it to be filed with the Registrar.
Under Section 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013, the maximum number of members (excluding present and past employees who are members) that a private company may have is
afifty
bone hundred
ctwo hundred
dno limit
Answer: C
Section 2(68) caps the membership of a private company at two hundred, excluding present and former employees who hold shares; joint holders are counted as a single member.
The principle that a company is a legal person distinct from its members, so that even a sole controlling shareholder is separate from the company, was firmly established in
aFoss v. Harbottle
bSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
cAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. v. Riche
dRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
Answer: B
In Salomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd. (1897) AC 22 the House of Lords held that a duly incorporated company is a separate legal entity distinct from its shareholders, even in a one-man company.
The doctrine that an act of a company beyond the objects stated in its memorandum is void and cannot be ratified even by unanimous consent of shareholders was laid down in
aRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
bSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
cAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche
dFoss v. Harbottle
Answer: C
Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche (1875) established the doctrine of ultra vires: an act outside the objects clause of the memorandum is void and incapable of ratification even by all shareholders.
The rule that the proper plaintiff in respect of a wrong done to a company is prima facie the company itself, and the court will not ordinarily interfere in matters of internal management, was established in
aSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
bFoss v. Harbottle
cAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. v. Riche
dDerry v. Peek
Answer: B
Foss v. Harbottle (1843) laid down the proper plaintiff rule and the principle of majority rule, restricting judicial interference in a company's internal management.
The rule of indoor management, under which an outsider dealing in good faith with a company is entitled to assume that its internal procedural requirements have been duly complied with, was laid down in
aRoyal British Bank v. Turquand
bFoss v. Harbottle
cAshbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. v. Riche
dSalomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
Answer: A
Royal British Bank v. Turquand (1856) established the indoor management rule (Turquand's rule): persons dealing with a company may presume that its internal regulations have been complied with.
A company formed to promote commerce, art, science, charity or similar objects, which applies its profits in promoting its objects and prohibits payment of dividend to its members, is registered under which provision of the Companies Act, 2013?
aSection 3
bSection 7
cSection 12
dSection 8
Answer: D
Section 8 permits the Central Government to license associations with charitable or similar objects to register as limited companies without the words 'Limited' or 'Private Limited' in their name.
Under Section 39 of the Companies Act, 2013, no allotment of securities offered to the public shall be made unless the amount stated in the prospectus as the
aauthorised capital has been subscribed
bpaid-up capital has been deposited with the Registrar
centire issue has been underwritten
dminimum subscription has been subscribed and application money received
Answer: D
Section 39 bars allotment of publicly offered securities unless the minimum subscription stated in the prospectus has been subscribed and the application money has been received by the company.
Under Section 2(70) of the Companies Act, 2013, the term 'prospectus' includes
aonly a document expressly described as a prospectus
ba red herring prospectus and a shelf prospectus
cthe memorandum of association
dthe articles of association
Answer: B
Section 2(70) defines prospectus to include a red herring prospectus (Section 32) and a shelf prospectus (Section 31), and any notice, circular or advertisement inviting public offers for securities.
Under Section 10A of the Companies Act, 2013, a company having a share capital incorporated after the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019 shall not commence business unless a declaration is filed by a director within how many days of incorporation?
athirty days
bone hundred eighty days
cninety days
dthree hundred sixty-five days
Answer: B
Section 10A requires a director to file a declaration of receipt of subscription money within one hundred eighty days of incorporation before the company can commence business or exercise borrowing powers.
Under which Article of the Constitution can Parliament, by law, form a new State or alter the boundaries of an existing State?
aArticle 2
bArticle 4
cArticle 3
dArticle 368
Answer: C
Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new States and alter areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new States into the Union.
The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution, limiting Parliament's amending power under Article 368, was first propounded in
aGolak Nath v. State of Punjab
bShankari Prasad v. Union of India
cMinerva Mills v. Union of India
dKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Answer: D
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461, held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to destroy its basic structure. Minerva Mills later reaffirmed and applied the doctrine.
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' to the Preamble. The 44th Amendment, by contrast, dealt with restoring safeguards after the Emergency.
The protection against being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once (rule against double jeopardy) is contained in
aArticle 20(2)
bArticle 20(1)
cArticle 20(3)
dArticle 21
Answer: A
Article 20(2) provides that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. Article 20(3) embodies the protection against self-incrimination.
aDirect a public authority to perform a public duty it has refused to perform
bCall up the record of an inferior court to examine its legality
cQuestion the legal authority of a person holding a public office
dSecure the release of a person unlawfully detained
Answer: C
Quo Warranto restrains a person from holding a public office to which he is not legally entitled and questions the legality of his claim. Habeas Corpus deals with unlawful detention.
The voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was reduced from 21 to 18 years, by amending Article 326, through the
aSixty-first Amendment Act, 1988
bFifty-second Amendment Act, 1985
cForty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
dSeventy-third Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: A
The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 amended Article 326 to lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years. The 52nd Amendment introduced the anti-defection law.
In In re Berubari Union (1960), the Supreme Court held that cession of Indian territory to a foreign State can be effected only by
aAn executive order of the President
bAn amendment of the Constitution under Article 368
cAn ordinary law passed under Article 3
dA resolution of both Houses of Parliament
Answer: B
In re Berubari Union held that cession of Indian territory to another country requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368, not ordinary legislation under Article 3. The opinion also observed the Preamble is not part of the Constitution (a view later reconsidered).
aDistribution of revenues between Union and States
bAppointment of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
cDisqualifications of members of legislatures
dCreation of new All-India Services
Answer: D
Article 312 empowers Parliament, on a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249-like procedure, to create one or more All-India Services common to the Union and the States.
Which of the following is NOT included within the expression 'State' under Article 12 of the Constitution?
aThe judiciary while exercising its purely judicial functions
bThe Government and Legislature of a State
cAll local and other authorities within the territory of India
dThe Government and Parliament of India
Answer: A
Article 12 defines 'State' to include the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of States, and all local or other authorities. Courts in their purely judicial (adjudicatory) functions are generally not treated as 'State'.
Under Article 124(3) of the Constitution, a person may be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court if, in the opinion of the President, he is
aA distinguished economist
bA distinguished jurist
cAn eminent social worker
dA retired civil servant of high standing
Answer: B
Article 124(3)(c) permits appointment of a 'distinguished jurist' as a Judge of the Supreme Court, alongside the qualifications of having been a High Court Judge or advocate for the prescribed period.
Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India is guaranteed by
aArticle 19(1)(g)
bArticle 301
cArticle 300A
dArticle 19(1)(d)
Answer: B
Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free, subject to the restrictions in Articles 302 to 305. Article 19(1)(g) is the individual right to practise any profession or carry on any trade.
Entry 97 of the Union List (List I) of the Seventh Schedule relates to
aInter-State trade and commerce
bEducation including universities
cPublic order and police
dResiduary powers of legislation not enumerated in any List
Answer: D
Entry 97 of the Union List covers 'any other matter not enumerated in List II or List III', i.e. the residuary power, which Article 248 vests in Parliament. Public order and police fall under the State List.
The right to free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years, as a fundamental right, is contained in
aArticle 21
bArticle 45
cArticle 21A
dArticle 41
Answer: C
Article 21A, inserted by the 86th Amendment, makes free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a fundamental right. Article 45 (a Directive Principle) was correspondingly amended to cover early childhood care.
Article 244A of the Constitution, which provides for formation of an autonomous State comprising certain tribal areas, applies to
aAssam
bNagaland
cMizoram
dManipur
Answer: A
Article 244A, inserted by the 22nd Amendment Act, 1969, empowers Parliament to form an autonomous State within the State of Assam comprising certain tribal areas, with its own Legislature or Council of Ministers.
Procedural irregularities in the proceedings of Parliament are immune from challenge in courts by virtue of
aArticle 105
bArticle 118
cArticle 100
dArticle 122
Answer: D
Article 122 bars courts from inquiring into the validity of any proceedings in Parliament on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. Article 105 deals with powers and privileges of the Houses and their members.
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described which Article of the Constitution as its 'heart and soul'?
aArticle 14
bArticle 21
cArticle 226
dArticle 32
Answer: D
Article 32, guaranteeing the right to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights, was called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly.
The power of a High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as for 'any other purpose' is conferred by
aArticle 32
bArticle 136
cArticle 227
dArticle 226
Answer: D
Article 226 empowers every High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose; this writ jurisdiction is wider than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32, which is confined to fundamental rights.
The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in
aGolak Nath v. State of Punjab
bIndira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
cMinerva Mills v. Union of India
dKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Answer: D
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge bench held by a 7:6 majority that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 does not extend to altering the basic structure of the Constitution.
Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the final decision rests with
athe Speaker of the Lok Sabha
bthe President of India
cthe Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
dthe Finance Minister
Answer: A
Under Article 110(3), if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) thereon is final.
A Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 can be issued by the President on the ground of
awar, external aggression or armed rebellion
bwar, external aggression or internal disturbance
cfailure of constitutional machinery in a State
dfinancial instability of India
Answer: A
After the 44th Amendment, Article 352 permits a National Emergency only on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion; the original expression 'internal disturbance' was replaced by 'armed rebellion'.
The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
athe elected members of both Houses of Parliament only
bthe elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
call members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
dthe elected members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: B
Under Article 54, the President is elected by an electoral college comprising the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (and certain Union Territories).
The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution, dealing with the powers and functions of Panchayats, contains how many subjects?
a29 subjects
b18 subjects
c12 subjects
d66 subjects
Answer: A
The Eleventh Schedule, inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, lists 29 subjects that may be devolved upon Panchayats; the Twelfth Schedule (74th Amendment) lists 18 subjects for Municipalities.
The directive that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India is contained in
aArticle 40
bArticle 51
cArticle 48
dArticle 44
Answer: D
Article 44, a Directive Principle in Part IV, directs the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, importing the principles of natural justice?
aA. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
bADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
cManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
dState of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
Answer: C
In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the procedure depriving a person of life or personal liberty under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, overruling the narrow view in A. K. Gopalan.
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures is vested in the Election Commission by
aArticle 324
bArticle 280
cArticle 315
dArticle 338
Answer: A
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission of India.
The President of India can be impeached under Article 61 only on the ground of
aproved misbehaviour or incapacity
btreason and corruption
cviolation of the Constitution
dloss of confidence of Parliament
Answer: C
Article 61 provides that the President may be removed from office by impeachment only for 'violation of the Constitution', and the charge must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
aPart IV
bPart III
cPart IVA
dPart V
Answer: A
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) of the Constitution; they are non-justiciable but fundamental in the governance of the country.
The organisation of village panchayats as units of self-government is directed by which Article of the Constitution?
aArticle 39
bArticle 40
cArticle 43
dArticle 45
Answer: B
Article 40, a Directive Principle, requires the State to take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may enable them to function as units of self-government.
Under which Article of the Constitution are appointments, postings and promotions of district judges in a State made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court?
aArticle 217
bArticle 233
cArticle 235
dArticle 236
Answer: B
Article 233(1) provides that appointment, posting and promotion of district judges shall be made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in the State.
Control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons holding posts inferior to that of district judge, is vested in the High Court by
aArticle 233
bArticle 235
cArticle 234
dArticle 237
Answer: B
Article 235 vests in the High Court control over district courts and subordinate courts, including the posting, promotion and grant of leave to members of the State judicial service below the rank of district judge.
A person not already in the service of the Union or the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233 only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than
aFive years
bThree years
cTen years
dSeven years
Answer: D
Article 233(2) requires that such a person must have been an advocate or pleader for not less than seven years and be recommended by the High Court for appointment.
The power of the Governor of a State to promulgate Ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session is contained in
aArticle 123
bArticle 200
cArticle 213
dArticle 356
Answer: C
Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of the State Legislature; Article 123 is its Union counterpart relating to the President.
An Ordinance promulgated by the Governor under Article 213 must be laid before the State Legislature and ceases to operate at the expiration of how many weeks from its reassembly, unless approved earlier?
aFour weeks
bTwelve weeks
cEight weeks
dSix weeks
Answer: D
Under Article 213(2)(a), an Ordinance ceases to operate at the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature unless a resolution disapproving it is passed earlier or it is approved.
Parliament may by law provide for the creation of a new All-India Service common to the Union and the States only if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) has first passed a resolution supported by
aNot less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
bA simple majority of members present and voting
cA majority of the total membership of the House
dThree-fourths of the members present and voting
Answer: A
Article 312 requires the Rajya Sabha to pass, by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, a resolution that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create such a service.
When the State of Jharkhand was carved out of Bihar by the Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000, the consequential change in the list of States was effected by amending
aThe Seventh Schedule
bThe Fourth Schedule
cThe First Schedule
dThe Ninth Schedule
Answer: C
The First Schedule to the Constitution sets out the names and territories of the States; the Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000 amended this Schedule to insert the State of Jharkhand.
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.