Bihar Judiciary Mock Test 4 — Questions & Solutions

Nitish Kumar was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Bihar following the 2025 Assembly elections. For which term did he take the oath of office on this occasion?

Into how many administrative divisions is the State of Bihar presently divided?

Which is the largest district of Bihar by geographical area?

As per the present administrative set-up, India consists of how many States and Union Territories?

The ancient city of Pataliputra, on the site of present-day Patna, served as the capital of which of the following empires?

The first session of the Indian National Congress held in 1885 was presided over by

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, the first civil disobedience movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in India, was launched in respect of the grievances of

Under the Constitution of India, the writ issued by a court to call upon a person to show by what authority he holds a public office is

The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were inserted into the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Constitutional Amendment?

The river that flows through Patna and is the principal river of the Bihar plains is

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'FRUGAL'.

In a certain code language, 'NODE' is written as 'ONED'. Following the same rule, how will 'TIME' be written in that code?

Janata Dal (United) leader Nitish Kumar was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Bihar in November 2025. This was his oath-taking as Chief Minister for the

In the Union Budget 2025-26 the Union Finance Minister announced the setting up of a 'Makhana Board' specifically to benefit farmers of which State?

Bihar is the leading producer of makhana (fox nut) in India, contributing approximately what share of the country's total makhana output?

The Kosi river, notorious for frequently shifting its course and causing devastating floods, is popularly known as

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, Mahatma Gandhi's first major civil disobedience movement in India, was launched in Bihar against the oppressive cultivation of

Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, who hailed from Bihar, presided over which body during the framing of the Constitution?

Which of the following pairs of a Bihar town and the river on which it is situated is correctly matched?

A sum of money becomes Rs. 2,400 in 2 years and Rs. 2,600 in 3 years at simple interest. The principal sum is

If in a certain code 'MANGO' is written as 'NBOHP', then how will 'APPLE' be written in the same code?

Identify the correctly punctuated and grammatically correct sentence.

The 'light year' is a unit used to measure

Which one of the following gases is most responsible for the greenhouse effect that causes global warming?

The largest organ of the human body is the

Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025, succeeding Justice B. R. Gavai?

On which date is 'Bihar Diwas' (Bihar Day) observed every year, marking the separation of the Bihar province from the Bengal Presidency in 1912?

Following the Bihar Legislative Assembly elections of November 2025, who took oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar?

The Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2024 was awarded to Nihon Hidankyo, an organisation associated with which country?

The ancient Nalanda Mahavihara, whose ruins are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in which present-day district of Bihar?

Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the President proclaim a Financial Emergency?

The famous freshwater lake 'Kanwar Jheel' (Kabartal Wetland), designated a Ramsar site, is situated in which district of Bihar?

A sum of money becomes Rs. 4,200 in 2 years and Rs. 4,800 in 4 years at simple interest. What is the principal sum?

Find the missing term in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'Neither the players nor the coach ____ satisfied with the result.'

Select the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'CANDID'.

The average age of 5 students is 16 years. If the age of a teacher is included, the average increases by 2 years. What is the age of the teacher?

Justice Surya Kant assumed office as the Chief Justice of India in November 2025. He is the holder of which serial number in the line of Chief Justices of India?

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, the first application of Gandhian Satyagraha in India, was directed against the exploitation of cultivators under which system?

Bihar is administratively organised into how many districts?

The House Sparrow was notified as the State Bird of which Indian State to draw attention to its declining population?

India won the ICC Champions Trophy in 2025 by defeating which country in the final at Dubai?

The ancient university of Nalanda, whose ruins lie in Bihar, was founded by a ruler of which dynasty?

Under the Constitution of India, which Article empowers the Governor of a State to grant pardons, reprieves and remission of punishment?

The Kosi river, often called the 'Sorrow of Bihar' for its devastating floods and shifting course, is a tributary of which major river?

Emperor Ashoka's empire had its capital at which city, the present-day Patna in Bihar?

The 'Permanent Settlement' of 1793, which created the zamindari system in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha, was introduced by which Governor-General?

The phenomenon by which the sky appears blue during daytime is chiefly due to which property of sunlight in the atmosphere?

Vardhamana Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, is traditionally believed to have been born at Kundagrama near which ancient site in present-day Bihar?

If in a certain code 'PEN' is written as 'QFO', then how will 'BOOK' be written in the same code?

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'Neither the teacher nor the students ___ aware of the change in schedule.'

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, which gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions, added which Part and Schedule to the Constitution of India?

In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Government announced the setting up of a 'Makhana Board' to promote its production and marketing in which State?

How many revenue divisions and districts respectively does the State of Bihar presently have?

Which alliance won a majority in the Bihar Legislative Assembly election held in 2025?

The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025 was awarded to which person for promoting democratic rights in Venezuela?

India won the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2024 by defeating which country in the final?

The ancient university of Nalanda, whose ruins are in present-day Bihar, was founded during the reign of which dynasty?

Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' on account of the recurrent floods it causes in the State's northern plains?

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, led by Mahatma Gandhi in Bihar, was directed against the exploitation of cultivators growing which crop?

Under the Constitution of India, the provisions relating to Panchayats are contained in which Part?

Which one of the following gases is the most abundant constituent of the Earth's atmosphere by volume?

The deficiency of which vitamin in the human body causes the disease scurvy?

Which of the following pairs of a national park and its State is correctly matched?

A man walks 5 km towards the East, then turns left and walks 3 km, then turns left again and walks 5 km. In which direction is he now facing?

If in a certain code language LAW is written as MBX, then how will COURT be written in that code?

The first major battle that established Babur's rule in India and ended the Lodi dynasty was fought at which place?

On which date every year is 'Bihar Diwas' celebrated to mark the carving out of the separate Province of Bihar and Orissa from the Bengal Presidency in 1912?

In which year was the 'Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara' in Bihar inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List?

In the 2025 Bihar Legislative Assembly election, who took oath as Chief Minister of Bihar following the NDA's victory?

How many districts does the State of Bihar currently have for administrative purposes?

The 'Champaran Satyagraha' of 1917, the first civil disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in India, was directed against the exploitative cultivation system imposed on peasants for growing which crop?

Which river, known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' owing to its frequent and devastating floods and shifting course, is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganga?

Patna, the capital of Bihar, was known by which name when it served as the capital of the Mauryan and Gupta empires in ancient times?

Vaishali in Bihar is historically significant as it is regarded as one of the world's earliest examples of which form of governance?

Under the Constitution of India, which Article empowers the President to declare a 'financial emergency' if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened?

Which physical quantity is measured in the SI unit 'pascal'?

Which vitamin, synthesised in human skin on exposure to sunlight, is essential for the absorption of calcium and the prevention of rickets?

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'Neither the principal nor the teachers ____ satisfied with the new examination schedule.'

If in a certain code language 'PAINT' is written as 'QBJOU', how will the word 'STORM' be written in the same code?

A man bought an article for Rs. 800 and sold it for Rs. 920. What is his percentage of profit?

Find the next number in the series: 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ?

Bihar Diwas, marking the day on which the Province of Bihar and Orissa was carved out of the Bengal Presidency, is observed every year on

The ancient Nalanda Mahavihara in present-day Bihar is traditionally believed to have been founded by which Gupta ruler?

For administrative purposes, the State of Bihar is presently divided into how many divisions (prashasanik prabhag)?

Mahatma Gandhi launched his first Satyagraha in India in 1917 against the indigo planters' oppression in which district of Bihar?

Which Indian state's legislature is bicameral, having both a Vidhan Sabha and a Vidhan Parishad, as is the case in Bihar?

The Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy from the Constitution of

The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states of India?

The Kosi river, often called the 'Sorrow of Bihar' for its frequent course changes and floods, is a tributary of which major river?

Which gland in the human body is known as the 'master gland' because it controls the secretions of several other endocrine glands?

The chemical that is commonly used for the artificial ripening of fruits such as mangoes and bananas is

The SI unit of electric resistance is the

In which year did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the central banking institution of the country, commence operations?

The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which lists the languages given official recognition, currently contains how many languages?

Who took oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar in November 2025, becoming the longest-serving head of the state's government to be sworn in for a record number of terms?

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado for her work promoting democratic rights in which country?

At the 2024 Paris Olympic Games, how many medals in total did India win?

According to the Census of 2011, which is the most populous district of Bihar?

The ancient university of Nalanda, whose ruins are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in which present-day state of India?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the grounds on which a foreign judgment shall NOT be conclusive between the parties are enumerated in

A suit for the recovery of immovable property situate within the local limits of the jurisdiction of one court is, as a general rule, to be instituted in the court within whose local limits the property is situate. This rule is contained in

No suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done by such public officer in his official capacity until the expiration of a notice. The period of such notice and the section providing for it are

Where it appears to the court that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, the court may formulate the terms and refer the dispute for arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat, or mediation. This power is conferred by

An appeal from every decree passed by any court exercising original jurisdiction lies to the court authorised to hear appeals; but no appeal lies from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties. The latter prohibition is contained in

A second appeal lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves

The High Court may call for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies and pass orders where the subordinate court appears to have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity. This revisional power is conferred by

Where and in so far as a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, the court of first instance shall, on the application of any party entitled to a benefit by way of restitution, cause such restitution to be made as will place the parties in the position which they would have occupied but for such decree. This provision is

The provision in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 which saves the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court is

A person who apprehends that a suit or proceeding is going to be instituted against him may lodge a caveat in the court. Such caveat, unless an application is made before its expiry, shall not remain in force after the expiry of

A defendant is required to present a written statement of his defence within thirty days from the date of service of summons; the court may, for reasons to be recorded, allow it to be filed on a later day, not later than

The court may at any stage of the proceedings allow either party to alter or amend his pleadings in such manner and on such terms as may be just, where such amendment is necessary for determining the real questions in controversy. The provision dealing with amendment of pleadings is

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant when that person commits a cognizable offence in the presence of such officer. Which provision embodies this power?

Where the offence alleged is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years and the person to be arrested is infirm or above sixty years of age, the BNSS bars arrest without the prior permission of an officer not below which rank?

The concept of a 'Zero FIR'—registration of information relating to a cognizable offence irrespective of the area where the offence is committed—is statutorily recognised under which section of the BNSS?

Anticipatory bail—a direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence—is now governed by which provision of the BNSS?

Under the BNSS, a Judicial Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding—

Section 187 of the BNSS prescribes the maximum period of detention beyond which an accused acquires the right to default bail. For an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more, that period is—

Under Section 479 of the BNSS, a first-time offender (with no previous conviction) is entitled to release on bond once he has undergone detention up to what fraction of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence?

A novel feature of the BNSS is the mandatory audio-video recording of the process of search and seizure by the police officer conducting it. This requirement is contained in—

Inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial, with no immediate prospect of arrest, is a new procedure introduced by the BNSS under—

Under the BNSS, every State Government is statutorily mandated to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme. This obligation is laid down in—

The BNSS provides a statutory framework for a mercy petition by a convict under sentence of death, prescribing a thirty-day window to file it after the prescribed intimation by the jail Superintendent. This provision is—

Under the BNSS, on completion of investigation the police report (charge-sheet) is forwarded to the Magistrate under which section?

The Supreme Court has recently held that for offences punishable with imprisonment up to seven years, issuance of notice rather than arrest is the rule. The notice directing the accused to appear before the police officer is issued under—

An application for regular bail by a person arrested or detained without warrant for a non-bailable offence, before any court other than the High Court or Court of Session, is governed under the BNSS by—

Under the BNSS, the court may, after framing charge, postpone or adjourn proceedings, but the power to grant adjournments is curbed. In an inquiry or trial relating to certain sexual offences under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the trial must ordinarily be completed within what period from the date of filing of the charge-sheet?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the inherent powers of the High Court to prevent abuse of the process of any court or to secure the ends of justice are saved by

Information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, be registered at any police station (the so-called 'Zero FIR'). This is now statutorily recognised under which section of the BNSS, 2023?

Under the BNSS, 2023, the total period of police custody of an accused that may be granted is

Where the offence is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years and the person to be arrested is infirm or is above sixty years of age, under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023 arrest shall be made only with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of

Under the BNSS, 2023, the visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence is made mandatory in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of

A convict under sentence of death may file a mercy petition before the Governor or the President under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023 within how many days from the date the Superintendent of jail informs him of the dismissal of his appeal or the confirmation of the death sentence?

Under the BNSS, 2023, the obligation to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme (Section 398) is cast upon

The recording of the entire process of search and seizure, including the preparation and signing of the seizure list, through audio-video electronic means is mandated under which section of the BNSS, 2023?

Under the BNSS, 2023, a Court of Session or Magistrate may proceed with the trial of a proclaimed offender in his absence (trial in absentia) where he has absconded to evade trial and there is no immediate prospect of arresting him. This new provision is contained in

Under Section 230 of the BNSS, 2023, in a case instituted on a police report the Magistrate must furnish the accused free of cost with copies of the police report and other documents within

Under the BNSS, 2023, in a complaint case the Magistrate, before taking cognizance of an offence against a proposed accused, must give the accused an opportunity of being heard. This safeguard, absent under the old Section 200 CrPC, appears in the proviso to

Withdrawal from prosecution by the Public Prosecutor, with the consent of the Court and after hearing the victim, is provided for under which section of the BNSS, 2023?

Under the BNSS, 2023, after a police report is filed, further investigation may be carried out and ordinarily must be completed within ninety days, any extension requiring the permission of the

Where an accused is investigated for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to seven years, the Supreme Court has held that issuance of a notice of appearance under Section 35(3) of the BNSS, 2023 is

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, an accused acquires an indefeasible right to default bail where the investigation is not completed and the report is not filed within sixty days, in the case of an offence punishable with imprisonment

The maxim that the law of equity refuses relief to a person who has himself acted unfairly in the matter is expressed as

The maxim 'Delay defeats equity' is also expressed as

Where there is a contest between two equitable claims and the equities are equal, the rule is that

The definition of 'trust' in the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 is contained in

Under Section 3 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, the person who reposes or declares the confidence is called

Under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, the subject-matter of a trust is called

Which one of the following is NOT one of the three certainties required for the creation of a valid private trust?

Under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, a trust is extinguished when its purpose becomes unlawful. This is provided in

Revocation of a trust under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 is governed by

Under Section 78 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, a trust created by will may be revoked

By virtue of Section 1 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, the Act does not affect the rules of

Specific performance of a contract is a remedy granted under

The Specific Relief Act, 1963 repealed the earlier

Contracts which are not specifically enforceable are enumerated in the Specific Relief Act, 1963 under

An equitable remedy such as injunction or specific performance, being discretionary, means that the plaintiff

Under Section 3 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, a 'trust' is best described as

Under Section 6 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, which of the following is NOT one of the matters that the author of the trust must indicate with reasonable certainty for a valid trust to be created?

Under Section 7 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, a trust may be created by

Under Section 10 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, a minor may be a trustee but he cannot execute the trust where

Under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, where a trustee commits a breach of trust, his liability under Section 23 is to

The rule that a trustee cannot use or deal with the trust property for his own profit or for any other purpose unconnected with the trust is contained in which section of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?

Where a person bound in a fiduciary character to protect the interests of another, by availing himself of that character, gains for himself a pecuniary advantage, Section 88 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 requires him to

Under Section 4 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, a trust is valid only if its purpose is

The equitable maxim 'Vigilantibus non dormientibus aequitas subvenit' (equity aids the vigilant, not those who sleep on their rights) is the foundation of the

The maxim 'He who seeks equity must do equity' principally requires that

The maxim 'Equity acts in personam' signifies that

Under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a contract which is in its nature determinable

Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a contract the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise

Under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted to restrain a person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit, EXCEPT where

Which of the following persons is NOT essential to the creation of a private trust under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882?

Under Section 3(f) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the sapinda relationship in the line of ascent through the mother extends up to which generation (inclusive), counting the person concerned as the first generation?

Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the minimum age prescribed for the bridegroom and the bride respectively at the time of marriage is:

A marriage solemnised in contravention of which of the following clauses of Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 renders the marriage void under Section 11?

Under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, where the customary rites include the saptapadi, the marriage becomes complete and binding when:

The provision for restitution of conjugal rights under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is contained in:

Under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition for divorce by mutual consent can be presented only if the parties have been living separately for a period of:

In Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that a Hindu husband who converts to Islam and contracts a second marriage during the subsistence of his first Hindu marriage:

After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, the daughter of a coparcener in a Mitakshara joint Hindu family:

In Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020), the Supreme Court held that a daughter's coparcenary right under the amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act:

Under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the property of a male Hindu dying intestate devolves first upon:

Under Section 15(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the property of a female Hindu dying intestate devolves, in the first instance, upon:

Under the proviso to Section 15(2) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, where a female Hindu dies intestate without any son or daughter, property inherited by her from her husband or father-in-law devolves upon:

Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardian of a Hindu minor boy or an unmarried girl is:

Under Section 8 read with Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a female Hindu adopts a male child, the adoptive mother must be older than the child to be adopted by at least:

Under Section 7 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a male Hindu having a wife living can take a child in adoption:

Under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, where the customary rites and ceremonies of either party include the Saptapadi, the marriage becomes complete and binding

Under Section 3(f) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the Sapinda relationship of a person extends, in the line of ascent, up to

A marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is null and void under Section 11 only if it contravenes the condition specified in

Non-consummation of marriage owing to the impotence of the respondent renders a Hindu marriage

A petition for divorce by mutual consent under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 requires that the parties have been living separately for a period of

Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the second motion for divorce by mutual consent must be moved by both parties not earlier than six months and not later than

Under the proviso to Section 6(a) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with the

In Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India (1999), the Supreme Court interpreted the word 'after' in Section 6(a) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 to mean that the mother

Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a male adopts a female (or a female adopts a male), the age difference between the adopter and the person to be adopted must be at least

Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu may adopt a daughter only if, at the time of adoption, he or she does not have a living

Under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, where a male Hindu dies intestate leaving no heir of Class I and no heir of Class II, the property devolves

Which of the following is NOT a Class I heir of a male Hindu dying intestate under the Schedule to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

In Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020), the Supreme Court held that the right conferred on a daughter as a coparcener under the amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is

Under Section 15(2) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, where a female Hindu dies intestate without leaving any son or daughter (or children of a predeceased son or daughter), property inherited by her from her father or mother devolves upon

Under Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a child of a marriage which is null and void under Section 11

Under Section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, at the time of marriage the bridegroom must have completed the age of

Where the customary rites and ceremonies of a Hindu marriage include the saptapadi, the marriage becomes complete and binding under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

A Hindu marriage solemnised in contravention of the condition prohibiting marriage between parties within the degrees of prohibited relationship, where no permissive custom exists, is

Provision for divorce by mutual consent was introduced into the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 by the 1976 Amendment under

The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is provided in

A Hindu male of 25 years of age adopts a female child of 6 years of age. The adoption is

Under Section 7 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a married Hindu male having a living wife seeks to adopt, the adoption is valid only if

Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardian of an illegitimate Hindu boy is

In Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India (1999), the Supreme Court held that the word 'after' in Section 6(a) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 means

On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, a daughter of a coparcener in a Mitakshara joint family

Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 provides that any property possessed by a female Hindu shall be held by her

Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which of the following is NOT a Class I heir of a Hindu male dying intestate?

Under Section 18 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu wife loses her right to separate residence and maintenance from her husband if she

In Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that where a Hindu husband converts to Islam and contracts a second marriage during the subsistence of his first marriage, the second marriage is

Under Section 19 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a widowed daughter-in-law is entitled to be maintained, after the death of her husband, by

Under Section 3 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the 'sapinda relationship' with reference to any person extends, in the line of ascent through the father, up to which generation (inclusive), the person concerned being counted as the first generation?

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, where a marriage is solemnized with rites that include the saptapadi, at what point does the marriage become complete and binding?

In Bhaurao Shankar Lokhande v. State of Maharashtra (AIR 1965 SC 1564), the Supreme Court acquitted the accused of bigamy under Section 494 IPC mainly because:

Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a motion for divorce by mutual consent may be made by both parties not earlier than and not later than which periods after presentation of the petition?

Under Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (restitution of conjugal rights), on whom does the burden of proving reasonable excuse for withdrawal from the society of the other lie?

Under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired before or after the commencement of the Act, is held by her as:

In Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020) 9 SCC 1, the Supreme Court held that a daughter becomes a coparcener by birth under the substituted Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:

Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, when a male Hindu dies intestate leaving property, that property devolves firstly upon his heirs in:

Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, in an adoption of a son the adoptive father or mother must not have a living Hindu:

Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where the adoption is of a female by a male, the adoptive father must be older than the person to be adopted by at least:

Under Section 9 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 (as amended), the father and mother, if alive, have an equal right to give a son or daughter in adoption, but neither may exercise that right without the consent of the other, except where the other:

Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with:

Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the property of a Hindu minor in respect of which the father and mother are natural guardians EXCLUDES:

Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage between two persons who are sapindas of each other is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which section declares that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence?

A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death (dying declaration) is made relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 by:

For a statement as to the cause of death to be relevant as a dying declaration under Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, it is necessary that:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the opinions of experts upon a point of foreign law, science, art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, are dealt with under:

In which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is the expression 'conclusive proof' defined, that is, where on proof of one fact the Court shall regard the other as proved and shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, in criminal proceedings the fact that the accused person has a previous good character is:

The general rule that the burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on the person who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, oral evidence must in all cases be direct. This rule is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the provision dealing with primary evidence and secondary evidence is found respectively in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the rule that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact is laid down in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. This is provided by:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, leading questions must not, if objected to by the adverse party, be asked in examination-in-chief or in re-examination except with the permission of the Court. This rule appears in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the question of who may testify, that is, that all persons are competent to testify unless prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers, is governed by:

The definition clause of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 expands the meaning of 'evidence' to include, in addition to oral and documentary evidence:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the provision that facts of which the Court must take judicial notice need not be proved is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no confession made to a police officer can be proved against a person accused of an offence. This rule is contained in which provision?

Where a fact is discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody, so much of such information as relates distinctly to the fact discovered may be proved. Under the BSA, 2023 this is found in the proviso to which section?

A man, while dying of injuries, names his assailant before a Magistrate. Under the BSA, 2023, the relevancy of such a statement by a person who cannot be called as a witness is governed by:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the opinion of experts upon a point of foreign law, science, art, handwriting or finger impressions is made relevant by: