Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test 1 — Questions & Solutions
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Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb: By the time the magistrate arrived, the clerk ____ the cause list.
ais preparing
bhad prepared
chas prepared
dwas preparing
Answer: B
The past perfect 'had prepared' is required to show an action completed before another past action ('arrived').
Q2English Language
Identify the tense of the underlined verb: The witnesses 'have been waiting' outside the courtroom since morning.
aPresent Perfect Tense
bPresent Perfect Continuous Tense
cPast Perfect Continuous Tense
dPresent Continuous Tense
Answer: B
'Have been waiting' is the Present Perfect Continuous Tense, formed with has/have + been + present participle, denoting an action begun in the past and still continuing.
Q3English Language
Pick the correct synonym for the word: CANDID
aFrank
bDeceptive
cReserved
dHostile
Answer: A
'Candid' means open and honest in expression; its closest synonym is 'frank'.
Q4English Language
Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to: FRUGAL
aPrudent
bEconomical
cExtravagant
dThrifty
Answer: C
'Frugal' means sparing or economical with resources; its antonym is 'extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish.
Q5English Language
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase: 'To turn a deaf ear'
aTo suffer from a hearing defect
bTo whisper a secret
cTo refuse to listen or pay attention
dTo listen attentively
Answer: C
'To turn a deaf ear' means to ignore or refuse to listen to what someone says.
Q6English Language
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase: 'To smell a rat'
aTo detect a foul odour
bTo make a false accusation
cTo suspect something wrong or deceitful
dTo clean a dirty place
Answer: C
'To smell a rat' means to suspect that something is wrong or that one is being deceived.
Q7English Language
Identify the correct indirect speech: She said to him, "Why did you sign the deed without reading it?"
aShe asked him why he signed the deed without reading it.
bShe asked him why he had signed the deed without reading it.
cShe told him why did he sign the deed without reading it.
dShe said to him why he has signed the deed without reading it.
Answer: B
An interrogative beginning with 'why' is reported with 'asked' and no question mark; the past simple 'did sign' shifts to past perfect 'had signed'.
Q8English Language
Identify the correct indirect speech: The advocate said to the bench, "I shall file the rejoinder tomorrow."
aThe advocate told the bench that he shall file the rejoinder tomorrow.
bThe advocate said the bench that he would file the rejoinder tomorrow.
cThe advocate told the bench that he will file the rejoinder the following day.
dThe advocate told the bench that he would file the rejoinder the next day.
Answer: D
'Shall' becomes 'would' in reported speech and 'tomorrow' becomes 'the next day'.
Q9English Language
Mark the correct passive voice of the given sentence: The court has dismissed the appeal.
aThe appeal had been dismissed by the court.
bThe appeal is dismissed by the court.
cThe appeal was dismissed by the court.
dThe appeal has been dismissed by the court.
Answer: D
The present perfect active 'has dismissed' becomes 'has been dismissed' in the passive voice.
Q10English Language
Mark the correct passive voice of the given sentence: The registrar is examining the documents.
aThe documents are examined by the registrar.
bThe documents have been examined by the registrar.
cThe documents were being examined by the registrar.
dThe documents are being examined by the registrar.
Answer: D
The present continuous active 'is examining' becomes 'are being examined' in the passive voice.
Q11English Language
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: He is the most honest ____ of all the officers in the department.
aa man
bthe man
cmen
dman
Answer: D
After a superlative ('the most honest') referring to one person, the singular noun 'man' is required.
Q12English Language
Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks: ____ honest judge is ____ asset to society.
aAn, a
bA, a
cAn, an
dThe, the
Answer: A
'Honest' begins with a silent 'h' (vowel sound), so 'An' is used; 'asset' begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is used.
Q13English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: The accused was charged ____ theft under the Penal Code.
afor
bof
cwith
dfrom
Answer: C
The correct collocation is 'charged with' an offence; one is charged with theft, not 'for' or 'of' theft.
Q14English Language
Choose the correctly spelt word.
aMaintainance
bMaintainence
cMaintenence
dMaintenance
Answer: D
The correct spelling is 'maintenance'.
Q15English Language
Choose the option that correctly fills both blanks: Neither the petitioner nor the respondents ____ present when the matter ____ called.
awere, was
bwas, was
cwere, were
dwas, were
Answer: A
With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject 'respondents' (plural), giving 'were'; in the passive clause, the singular subject 'the matter' takes 'was called'.
Q16CrPC
Under the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where an offence is one in respect of which forensic evidence is to be collected, a forensic expert is mandatorily required to visit the crime scene where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term of:
aSeven years or more
bThree years or more
cTen years or more
dFive years or more
Answer: A
Section 176(3) BNSS makes it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more.
An accused is in custody in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to ten years but for which no minimum sentence of ten years is prescribed. Under the BNSS, 2023, the indefeasible right to default bail accrues if the investigation is not completed within:
a60 days
b120 days
c90 days
d180 days
Answer: A
Under Section 187(3) BNSS, the 90-day period applies only where the offence carries a minimum of ten years or is punishable with death or life imprisonment; where the offence is merely punishable with imprisonment up to ten years, the 60-day period applies.
Under Section 230 of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in a case instituted on a police report, the Magistrate must furnish to the accused free of cost copies of the police report and other documents:
aAt the time of framing of the charge
bWithin seven days from cognizance
cWithout delay, and in no case beyond fourteen days from production or appearance of the accused
dWithin thirty days from the date of filing of the charge-sheet
Answer: C
Section 230 BNSS requires the Magistrate to supply copies without delay and in no case beyond fourteen days from the date of production or appearance of the accused, with voluminous documents permitted to be furnished electronically.
Which provision of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces, for the first time, the trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial with no immediate prospect of arrest?
aSection 299
bSection 84
cSection 356
dSection 339
Answer: C
Section 356 BNSS provides for trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender; his absconding is deemed to operate as a waiver of his right to be present and tried in person.
Under Section 105 of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the search and seizure and the preparation of the list of seized articles must be:
aCarried out only during daytime hours
bConducted only in the presence of a Magistrate
cRecorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone
dAttested by at least four independent witnesses
Answer: C
Section 105 BNSS mandates that the process of search and seizure, including preparation of the list of seized items, be recorded through audio-video electronic means (preferably a mobile phone), and the recording forwarded to the Magistrate.
Under Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023, on credible information that a person has committed a cognizable offence, a police officer may arrest him without a warrant and without a Magistrate's order only where the offence is punishable with imprisonment:
aFor a term which may extend to three years
bFor more than five years
cFor any term, irrespective of the maximum prescribed
dFor more than seven years, or with imprisonment for life or with death
Answer: D
Under Section 35 BNSS, arrest without warrant on credible information that a cognizable offence has been committed is permitted where the offence is punishable with imprisonment exceeding seven years, or with imprisonment for life or death.
Under the BNSS, 2023, a judgment in a sessions trial is required to be pronounced after the conclusion of arguments within:
a30 days, extendable up to 45 days for reasons recorded in writing
b15 days, extendable up to 30 days
c45 days, extendable up to 60 days
d60 days, extendable up to 90 days
Answer: A
Section 258(1) BNSS requires the sessions judgment to be pronounced within thirty days of completion of arguments, extendable to forty-five days for reasons recorded in writing.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no confession made by a person while in the custody of a police officer can be proved against him unless it is made:
aIn the immediate presence of a Magistrate
bIn the presence of two independent witnesses of the locality
cAfter the accused has been produced before the Superintendent of Police
dIn the presence of an officer above the rank of Inspector
Answer: A
Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023 bars proof of a confession made in police custody unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. This carries forward the rule that was contained in Section 26 of the repealed Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
During interrogation, an accused in police custody states 'I have buried the knife under the tulsi plant in my courtyard', and the knife is recovered from that exact spot. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the admissible portion of this statement is governed by:
aThe proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA (discovery of fact)
bSection 24 of the BSA, as a confession affecting a co-accused
cSection 22 of the BSA, as a confession caused by inducement
dSection 26 of the BSA, as a dying declaration
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023 permits proof of so much of the information received from an accused in custody as relates distinctly to the fact discovered, whether or not it amounts to a confession. This corresponds to the erstwhile Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A woman, who is the victim of an acid attack, makes a statement to the Investigating Officer regarding the cause of her injuries and the identity of her assailant, and dies of those injuries a week later. Under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is this dying declaration relevant?
aSection 32
bSection 26(a)
cSection 60
dSection 158
Answer: B
Section 26(a) of the BSA, 2023 makes a statement by a person, as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in death, relevant when the cause of that person's death is in question, in any proceeding civil or criminal. It re-enacts Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Two friends, A and B, slept in a room bolted from the inside. In the morning A is found murdered and B is the only other person who was present. To call upon B to explain how the death occurred, the prosecution would invoke which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 119 (presumption of legitimacy)
bSection 104 (burden of proof generally)
cSection 105 (burden of proving a particular fact)
dSection 109 (fact especially within knowledge)
Answer: D
Section 109 of the BSA, 2023 provides that when a fact is especially within the knowledge of a person, the burden of proving that fact lies on him. As B alone knew how the death occurred in the bolted room, the burden shifts to him. This re-enacts Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Where a question arises whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman, and it is shown that soon before her death she had been subjected by such person to cruelty in connection with a demand for dowry, the Court 'shall presume' that such person caused the dowry death. This presumption is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 118
bSection 120
cSection 116
dSection 117
Answer: A
Section 118 of the BSA, 2023 raises a mandatory presumption ('shall presume') as to dowry death, and 'dowry death' carries the meaning given in Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. It corresponds to Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with respect to the testimony of an accomplice, which of the following statements is correct?
aAn accomplice can testify only with the prior sanction of the High Court
bAn accomplice is not a competent witness against the accused
cAn accomplice is a competent witness, but a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon his corroborated testimony
dAn accomplice is a competent witness, and conviction on his uncorroborated testimony is always legal
Answer: C
Section 138 of the BSA, 2023 declares an accomplice a competent witness and provides that a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. The enacted BSA text substitutes 'corroborated' for the word 'uncorroborated' used in Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A group of seven persons, acting in concert, beats Z to death on the ground that Z belongs to a particular caste. Each member of the group is liable to be punished under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 under:
aSection 105
bSection 103(1)
cSection 117(4)
dSection 103(2)
Answer: D
Section 103(2) BNS punishes murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, with each member being liable.
A, a major, instigates B, a child of unsound mind, to commit suicide, and B does so. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A is liable to be punished under:
aSection 107
bSection 108
cSection 106(1)
dSection 103(1)
Answer: A
Section 107 BNS deals with abetment of suicide of a child or a person of unsound mind, delirious, or intoxicated person, punishable with death, life imprisonment, or up to ten years and fine; Section 108 covers abetment of suicide of any other person.
Q34Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, for the purpose of stamp duty 'market value' of property which is the subject matter of an instrument means:
aThe price the property would fetch in open market on the date of registration only
bThe circle rate fixed by the District Collector irrespective of the consideration
cThe price the property would fetch in open market on the date of execution OR the consideration stated in the instrument, whichever is higher
dThe consideration stated in the instrument in every case
Answer: C
Section 2(xxiii) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 defines 'market value' as the price the property would fetch if sold in open market on the date of execution of the instrument, or the consideration stated in the instrument, whichever is higher.
Q35Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under Section 2 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, the expressions 'executed' and 'execution', when used with reference to instruments, mean:
aRegistered and registration
bSigned and signature
cStamped and stamping
dAttested and attestation
Answer: B
Section 2(xiii) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 provides that 'executed' and 'execution', used with reference to instruments, mean 'signed' and 'signature'.
Q36Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Which of the following is included in the definition of 'immovable property' under Section 2(xv) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998?
aStanding timber
bGrass
cGrowing crops
dBenefits to arise out of land
Answer: D
Section 2(xv) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 includes land, benefits to arise out of land and things attached to the earth within 'immovable property', but expressly excludes standing timber, growing crops or grass.
Q37Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957, a 'Debt Relief Court' is a court established under:
aSection 2 of the Act
bSection 10 of the Act
cSection 6 of the Act
dSection 3 of the Act
Answer: D
Section 2(d) defines 'Debt Relief Court' as a debt relief court established under Section 3 of the Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957, which empowers the State Government to establish such courts.
Under Section 2(13) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, a "child in conflict with law" means a child who is alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed:
atwenty-one years of age on the date of commission of such offence
bsixteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
ceighteen years of age on the date of his apprehension
deighteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
Answer: D
Section 2(13) of the JJ Act, 2015 defines a child in conflict with law as one who has not completed eighteen years of age as on the date of commission of the alleged offence. The reckoning date is the date of the offence, not apprehension.
As per Section 2(33) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, "heinous offences" are offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law is:
aimprisonment for five years or more
bimprisonment for three years or more
cimprisonment for life or death
dimprisonment for seven years or more
Answer: D
Section 2(33) defines heinous offences as those for which the minimum punishment under the IPC or any other law in force is imprisonment for seven years or more. The Supreme Court in Shilpa Mittal v. State (NCT of Delhi) clarified that offences having no prescribed minimum sentence fall outside this category.
Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, "serious offences" as defined in Section 2(54) are offences for which the punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law is imprisonment for a term of:
amore than seven years
bless than three years
cseven years to ten years
dthree years to seven years
Answer: D
Section 2(54) defines a serious offence as one for which the punishment under the IPC or any other law is imprisonment between three and seven years; petty offences (Section 2(45)) carry up to three years and heinous offences (Section 2(33)) carry a minimum of seven years.
Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the condition relating to the prohibited degrees of relationship may be relaxed where:
aBoth parties give written consent before a Marriage Officer
bThe parties belong to the same gotra
cA custom or usage governing each of the parties permits a marriage between the two
dThe District Court grants prior permission
Answer: C
Section 5(iv) bars marriage within the degrees of prohibited relationship unless the custom or usage governing each of the parties permits such a marriage between the two. The same custom-based exception applies to sapinda relationship under Section 5(v).
Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, conversion of a spouse to another religion is a ground for:
aDivorce at the instance of the other party under Section 13(1)(ii)
bJudicial separation only
cRestitution of conjugal rights
dNullity of marriage under Section 11
Answer: A
Section 13(1)(ii) makes it a ground for divorce where the other party has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion. It is a fault ground available to the non-converting spouse.
After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, a daughter of a coparcener in a joint Hindu family governed by Mitakshara law:
aAcquires coparcenary rights only if she is unmarried on the date of partition
bGets a share only in her father's separate property, not coparcenary property
cBecomes a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son
dHas no right in coparcenary property but only a right to maintenance
Answer: C
Amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes the daughter a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son, with the same rights and liabilities. Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020) held this right is not contingent on the father being alive on 9-9-2005.
Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature:
aexcepting suits relating to property situated within the local limits of another court
bonly where their cognizance is expressly conferred by a statute
cexcepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
donly after obtaining prior sanction of the District Judge
Answer: C
Section 9 provides that the Courts shall (subject to the provisions of the Code) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.
As per Explanation IV to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the doctrine of constructive res judicata applies to:
amatters pending before a foreign court
bany matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit
conly those matters which were actually and substantially in issue in the former suit
dmatters decided by a court of limited jurisdiction only
Answer: B
Explanation IV to Section 11 embodies constructive res judicata: any matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack in the former suit is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue.
Under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no suit shall ordinarily be instituted against the Government until the expiration of:
athree months next after notice in writing has been delivered
bone month next after notice in writing has been delivered
ctwo months next after notice in writing has been delivered
dsix months next after notice in writing has been delivered
Answer: C
Section 80(1) bars institution of a suit against the Government or a public officer (in respect of his official acts) until the expiration of two months next after notice in writing has been delivered or left at the office of the prescribed authority.
Under Section 4(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, a court releasing an offender on probation of good conduct may require him to enter into a bond to appear and receive sentence when called upon during a period not exceeding:
athree years
bfive years
ctwo years
done year
Answer: A
Section 4(1) permits release on a bond to appear and receive sentence when called upon during such period 'not exceeding three years' as the court may direct.
The benefit of release on probation of good conduct under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is NOT available where the offence is punishable with:
adeath or imprisonment for life
bfine only
cimprisonment for two years
dimprisonment for seven years
Answer: A
Section 4(1) applies only when a person is found guilty of an offence 'not punishable with death or imprisonment for life'; such offences are excluded from its scope.
Under Section 17(1) of the Registration Act, 1908, which of the following documents is NOT compulsorily registrable irrespective of the value of the property?
aAn instrument of gift of immovable property
bA will in respect of immovable property
cA lease of immovable property from year to year
dA non-testamentary instrument creating an interest of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards in immovable property
Answer: B
Under Section 17(1), gifts of immovable property and leases from year to year are compulsorily registrable, as are instruments creating interest of Rs. 100 and upwards; a will is expressly a testamentary instrument whose registration remains optional under Section 18(e).
Under Section 17(1)(d) of the Registration Act, 1908, a lease of immovable property is compulsorily registrable when it is:
afor any term not exceeding one year
bfrom year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent
ca monthly tenancy in all cases
dfor a term exceeding three years only
Answer: B
Section 17(1)(d) makes compulsorily registrable leases of immovable property from year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent; a lease not exceeding one year is only optionally registrable under Section 18(c).
Under Section 10 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators, provided that:
asuch number shall not be less than three
bsuch number shall not exceed five
csuch number shall not be an even number
dsuch number shall always be a sole arbitrator
Answer: C
Section 10(1) permits the parties to fix the number of arbitrators but expressly provides that such number shall not be an even number; failing such determination, the tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator under Section 10(2).
Under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the arbitral award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made within a period of:
asix months from the date of the arbitration agreement
btwelve months from the date the tribunal enters upon reference
ceighteen months from the date of appointment of the arbitrator
dtwelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under Section 23(4)
Answer: D
As amended in 2019, Section 29A(1) requires the award in domestic arbitration to be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under sub-section (4) of Section 23.
Under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the provision that bars the grant of anticipatory bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to a person accused of an offence under the Act is contained in:
aSection 19
bSection 18
cSection 20
dSection 14
Answer: B
Section 18 expressly provides that Section 438 CrPC (anticipatory bail) shall not apply to any case involving the arrest of a person on an accusation of having committed an offence under the Act.
Section 18A, inserted into the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 by the Amendment Act of 2018, principally provides that:
aNo preliminary enquiry is required for registration of an FIR and the investigating officer needs no approval for arrest
bA preliminary enquiry is mandatory before registration of an FIR and prior approval is required for arrest
cCompensation to the victim must be paid within seven days of the FIR
dThe Special Court must dispose of every appeal within three months
Answer: A
Section 18A(1) provides that a preliminary enquiry shall not be required for registration of an FIR and that the investigating officer shall not require approval for arrest; Section 18A(2) reaffirms that Section 438 CrPC shall not apply.
Whoever commits penetrative sexual assault, as defined under Section 3 of the POCSO Act, 2012, is punishable under Section 4 (after the 2019 Amendment) with imprisonment for a term not less than:
aFive years
bSeven years
cThree years
dTen years
Answer: D
After the POCSO (Amendment) Act, 2019, Section 4 provides a minimum of ten years (extendable to life) for penetrative sexual assault, raised from the earlier seven-year minimum.
Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, an eviction petition filed before the Rent Tribunal is required to be disposed of within which period from the date of service of notice on the tenant?
aNinety days
bOne hundred and eighty days
cThree hundred and sixty-five days
dTwo hundred and forty days
Answer: D
Section 15 of the Act mandates that the petition for eviction be disposed of within two hundred and forty days from the date of service of notice on the tenant, in line with the Act's object of speedy adjudication.
Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the Rent Tribunal shall not pass an order for eviction of a tenant on the ground of non-payment of rent unless the tenant has neither paid nor tendered the rent due for a continuous period of at least:
atwo months
bsix months
cthree months
dfour months
Answer: D
Under Section 9, the ground of default in payment of rent is attracted where the tenant has neither paid nor tendered the amount of rent due for a period of four months.
Q59Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
Under the Electricity Act, 2003, the offence of 'theft of electricity' is dealt with under:
aSection 135
bSection 140
cSection 126
dSection 138
Answer: A
Section 135 of the Electricity Act, 2003 specifically deals with theft of electricity, which requires a dishonest abstraction or use of electricity; Section 126 concerns assessment for mere unauthorised use.
Q60Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
On detecting unauthorised use of electricity under Section 126 of the Electricity Act, 2003, the assessing officer shall provisionally assess the charges at a rate equal to:
aTwice the tariff applicable
bThrice the tariff applicable
cOne and a half times the tariff applicable
dThe normal tariff applicable
Answer: A
Under Section 126(6) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the assessment for unauthorised use of electricity is made at a rate equal to twice the tariff applicable for the relevant category of service.
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, an instrument which directs a specified banker to pay a certain sum of money only on demand, and which includes the electronic image of a truncated cheque, is:
aA promissory note under Section 4
bA hundi
cA cheque under Section 6
dA bill of exchange under Section 5
Answer: C
Section 6 defines a 'cheque' as a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand, and it expressly includes the electronic image of a truncated cheque and a cheque in the electronic form.
For the offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 to be made out, the cheque must be presented to the bank within:
aSix months from the date on which it is drawn, or within its period of validity, whichever is earlier
bThree months from the date on which it is drawn, or within its period of validity, whichever is earlier
cOne month from the date on which it is drawn
dOne year from the date on which it is drawn
Answer: B
Proviso (a) to Section 138 requires presentation within the period of its validity; pursuant to the RBI notification of November 2011, the validity of a cheque is three months from the date it bears, so presentation must be within that three-month period (or validity, whichever is earlier).
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, the offence of 'cyber terrorism' and its punishment of imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life is contained in:
aSection 70
bSection 67B
cSection 66E
dSection 66F
Answer: D
Section 66F, inserted by the 2008 Amendment, defines cyber terrorism and prescribes punishment which may extend to imprisonment for life. It is the only IT Act offence carrying a life term.
Whoever knowingly or intentionally conceals, destroys or alters any computer source code required to be kept or maintained by law is punishable under Section 65 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 with imprisonment which may extend to:
aThree years, or fine which may extend to two lakh rupees, or both
bSeven years and fine
cTwo years, or fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or both
dFive years, or fine which may extend to five lakh rupees, or both
Answer: A
Section 65 punishes tampering with computer source documents with imprisonment up to three years, or fine up to two lakh rupees, or both.
Under Article 61 of the Constitution of India, a resolution to prefer a charge for the impeachment of the President must be passed by:
aa majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting only
ba simple majority of the members present and voting in the House in which it is moved
ca majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House in which it has been moved
da majority of the total membership of the House
Answer: C
Article 61(3) requires that an impeachment resolution be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House in which it originates, after the initiating notice signed by at least one-fourth of the members.
In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court declared which paragraph of the Tenth Schedule unconstitutional for want of ratification under the proviso to Article 368(2)?
aParagraph 7
bParagraph 8
cParagraph 2
dParagraph 6
Answer: A
The Court upheld the Tenth Schedule but struck down Paragraph 7 (which barred the jurisdiction of courts) as it required ratification by the States under the proviso to Article 368(2) and had not been so ratified.
Under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the expression 'commercial quantity', in relation to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances, means:
aAny quantity greater than the quantity prescribed in the Schedule to the Act itself
bAny quantity greater than one kilogram of the drug concerned
cAny quantity greater than the quantity specified by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette
dAny quantity fixed by the State Government for the area concerned
Answer: C
Section 2(viia) defines 'commercial quantity' as any quantity greater than the quantity specified by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette; it is not fixed in the bare Act or by the State Government.
An empowered officer, having reason to believe that a search warrant cannot be obtained without affording the offender an opportunity to conceal evidence, conducts a search of a building between sunset and sunrise. Under Section 42 of the NDPS Act, 1985, he is required to:
aConduct the search only in the presence of a Gazetted Officer
bPostpone the search until after sunrise in every case
cRecord the grounds of his belief before conducting such search
dObtain prior written sanction of the Magistrate before entry
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 42(1) permits search between sunset and sunrise without warrant or authorisation only where the officer records the grounds of his belief that delay would afford an opportunity for concealment or escape.
Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit instituted after the prescribed period of limitation:
aMay be entertained if the court records reasons in writing.
bShall be dismissed although limitation has not been set up as a defence.
cShall be returned to the plaintiff for presentation before the proper court.
dShall be dismissed only if limitation is set up as a defence by the defendant.
Answer: B
Section 3 makes the bar of limitation mandatory: every suit, appeal or application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed even though limitation has not been set up as a defence.
The power of a court to admit an appeal or application after the prescribed period on being satisfied of 'sufficient cause' is contained in:
aSection 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
bSection 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
cSection 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
dSection 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
Answer: A
Section 5 permits condonation of delay in appeals and applications (other than those under Order XXI CPC) where sufficient cause for the delay is shown; it does not apply to suits.
Under Section 6(a) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate (spes successionis):
aMay be transferred for consideration but not by way of gift
bMay be transferred only with the consent of the present owner of the estate
cCannot be transferred
dMay be transferred if the transfer is by a registered instrument
Answer: C
Section 6(a) expressly declares that the mere chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, or any other mere possibility of a like nature, cannot be transferred. Such an expectancy is not property capable of transfer.
A, falsely representing that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property, sells it for consideration to B. A in fact has no title at the time. Later A himself acquires good title to that very property. Under Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
aThe earlier transfer is void and B can claim only damages from A
bB may, at his option, compel the transfer to operate on the interest A subsequently acquired
cSection 43 has no application because A acted fraudulently
dThe subsequently acquired interest vests automatically in B without his option
Answer: B
Section 43 embodies the doctrine of feeding the grant by estoppel: where a person fraudulently or erroneously professes to transfer property for consideration and later acquires an interest in it, the transferee may, at his option, have the transfer operate on that interest.
Under the General Rules (Criminal), 1980 of the Rajasthan High Court, when a Court of Session passes a sentence of death, it shall commit the prisoner by warrant to jail and submit its proceedings to the High Court at the latest on which day after the sentence has been pronounced?
aOn the second day
bOn the fourth day
cOn the third day
dOn the seventh day
Answer: B
Rule 102 of the General Rules (Criminal), 1980 requires the Sessions Court to commit the condemned prisoner by warrant and submit its proceedings to the High Court (for confirmation under the Code) at the latest on the fourth day after the death sentence is pronounced.
Where a Court of Session sentences a woman to death, the General Rules (Criminal), 1980 require the Court, before submitting its proceedings, to ascertain and report to the High Court whether she is:
aa first offender
bpregnant
cbelow twenty-one years of age
dthe sole bread-winner of her family
Answer: B
Rule 104 of the General Rules (Criminal), 1980 directs the Court to enquire whether a female prisoner sentenced to death is pregnant, and if it appears likely, to have her medically examined and report the finding to the High Court.
Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer at the time of contract, the contract is called:
aAn agreement to sell
bA hire-purchase agreement
cA sale
dA bailment
Answer: C
Section 4(3) provides that where the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract is a 'sale'; where transfer is to take place at a future time or subject to a condition, it is an 'agreement to sell'.
Under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement entered into by a minor is:
avalid if ratified by the minor on attaining majority
bvoid ab initio
cvoidable at the option of the minor
denforceable against the minor to the extent of necessaries supplied
Answer: B
Section 11 requires a party to be of the age of majority. In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), the Privy Council held a minor's agreement is void ab initio, not merely voidable, and cannot be ratified.
Under Section 2(a) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, an 'aggrieved person' is:
aAny woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence
bAny woman or man subjected to cruelty by a spouse
cOnly a legally wedded wife residing in the matrimonial home
dAny female child below eighteen years of age living in a shared household
Answer: A
Section 2(a) defines 'aggrieved person' as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and alleges domestic violence. The definition is confined to a woman and is not restricted to a legally wedded wife.
Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, a Muslim wife is entitled to a decree dissolving her marriage on the ground that the whereabouts of her husband have not been known for a period of:
aThree years
bSeven years
cFour years
dTwo years
Answer: C
Section 2(i) of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 entitles the wife to a decree where the whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of four years. (Failure to maintain is 2 years; imprisonment is 7 years.)
Under Section 4 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, the land for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists, and the land on which the corresponding liability is imposed, are respectively termed:
aDominant heritage and servient heritage
bApparent heritage and continuous heritage
cServient heritage and dominant heritage
dQuasi-dominant tenement and quasi-servient tenement
Answer: A
Section 4 defines the land for whose beneficial enjoyment the right exists as the 'dominant heritage' and the land on which the liability is imposed as the 'servient heritage'.
Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a suit by a person dispossessed of immovable property without his consent and otherwise than in due course of law must be brought within:
aSix months from the date of dispossession
bOne year from the date of dispossession
cTwelve years from the date of dispossession
dThree years from the date of dispossession
Answer: A
Section 6(2) bars any such suit brought after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession, or against the Government.
Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the relation of partnership arises:
aFrom operation of law alone
bFrom status
cFrom status as well as contract
dFrom contract and not from status
Answer: D
Section 5 expressly declares that the relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status; members of a Hindu undivided family carrying on a family business as such are not partners.
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted to give effect to which Directive Principle of State Policy contained in the Constitution of India:
aArticle 39A
bArticle 38
cArticle 43A
dArticle 41
Answer: A
The Act gives effect to Article 39A of the Constitution, which directs the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid so that justice is not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Under Section 3 of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, 'Nazul Land' means:
aPasturage land reserved for the grazing of cattle of the village community
bAbadi land within the limits of a municipality, panchayat circle or a village, town or city, vesting in the State Government
cCulturable waste land assessed to land revenue but not yet allotted
dForest land notified as a reserved forest by the State Government
Answer: B
Clause (ib) of Section 3 defines 'Nazul Land' as abadi land within the limits of a municipality or a panchayat circle or a village, town or city, vesting in the State Government.
Under Section 6 of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, which is titled 'Multifarious suits', where a suit embraces two or more distinct and different reliefs founded on different causes of action, the court fee chargeable is computed on:
aThe relief carrying the highest value alone
bThe aggregate value of all the reliefs claimed
cAn average of the values of all the reliefs
dThe relief carrying the lowest value alone
Answer: B
Section 6 (Multifarious suits) provides that where a suit embraces two or more distinct and different reliefs, the fee is chargeable on the aggregate value of the reliefs. A separate fee is not avoided merely by joining the reliefs in one plaint.
The maxim 'Qui facit per alium facit per se' is best regarded as the foundation of which branch of law:
aThe law of specific performance
bThe law of limitation
cThe law of agency and the doctrine of vicarious liability
dThe law of negotiable instruments
Answer: C
The maxim means 'he who acts through another does the act himself', and is the basis of the law of agency and of a master's vicarious liability for the acts of his servant.
Choose the alternative that correctly expresses the 'Past Perfect Continuous' tense:
aThe lawyers were arguing the case for hours.
bThe lawyers had been arguing the case for three hours before the judge intervened.
cThe lawyers have argued the case for three hours.
dThe lawyers had argued the case for three hours.
Answer: B
The Past Perfect Continuous tense uses 'had been' + present participle (-ing) to show an action that continued up to a point in the past; only option (b) follows this structure.
Q87English Language
Supply the correct past form of the verb: 'The witness ______ the document to the magistrate before leaving the court.'
ahad hand
bhanded
chandled
dhands
Answer: B
The simple past of 'hand' (to give/pass) is 'handed'; 'handled' is a different verb meaning to manage or touch, which does not fit the context of passing a document.
Q88English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct article: '______ honest officer never accepts a bribe.'
aA
bAn
cNo article
dThe
Answer: B
The word 'honest' begins with a silent 'h' and a vowel sound, so the article 'an' is used before it.
Q89English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct determiner: 'There is ______ evidence on record to convict the accused.'
afew
ba number of
cmany
dlittle
Answer: D
'Evidence' is an uncountable noun, so the quantifier 'little' (meaning hardly any) is appropriate; 'many', 'few' and 'a number of' are used only with countable nouns.
Q90English Language
Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence: 'The court will deliver the judgment tomorrow.'
aThe judgment is being delivered tomorrow by the court.
bThe judgment will be delivered by the court tomorrow.
cThe judgment will deliver tomorrow by the court.
dThe judgment would be delivered by the court tomorrow.
Answer: B
In the future simple passive, 'will + verb' becomes 'will be + past participle'; thus 'will deliver' becomes 'will be delivered'.
Q91English Language
The idiom 'to throw in the towel' means:
ato admit defeat and give up
bto begin a new task
cto clean up a mess
dto challenge an opponent
Answer: A
'To throw in the towel' is an idiom borrowed from boxing meaning to surrender or admit defeat.
Q92English Language
The phrasal verb 'call off' in the sentence 'The hearing was called off' means:
asummoned
bcancelled
cshouted out
dpostponed indefinitely
Answer: B
'Call off' means to cancel something that was planned, such as a meeting or hearing.
Q93English Language
Complete the sentence with the correct subordinating conjunction: 'He could not file the appeal ______ he had lost the original decree.'
aunless
bwhereas
calthough
dbecause
Answer: D
'Because' introduces a reason, which is required here to explain why the appeal could not be filed.
Q94English Language
Choose the correct indirect speech: She said, 'I am revising my notes now.'
aShe said that she is revising her notes now.
bShe said that I was revising my notes then.
cShe told that she had been revising her notes.
dShe said that she was revising her notes then.
Answer: D
In indirect speech the present continuous changes to past continuous and 'now' changes to 'then', while the pronoun 'I' changes to 'she'.
Q95English Language
Identify the sentence in which the modal 'should' expresses advice:
aShould he call, please inform me.
bYou should reach the examination centre on time.
cI should think she is right.
dWe should overcome the difficulties someday.
Answer: B
In option (a), 'should' is used to give advice or recommendation; the other options use 'should' for condition, opinion and probability respectively.
Q96English Language
Pick the correct synonym for the word 'lucid':
aobscure
bdoubtful
clengthy
dclear
Answer: D
'Lucid' means easily understood or clearly expressed; its closest synonym is 'clear'.
Q97English Language
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to 'frugal':
aprudent
bthrifty
cextravagant
deconomical
Answer: C
'Frugal' means careful and economical with money; its antonym is 'extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish in spending.
Q98English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The petitioner is not entitled ______ any relief.'
ato
bfor
cwith
dof
Answer: A
The adjective 'entitled' is followed by the preposition 'to' when indicating what one has a right to.
Q99English Language
Choose the option that correctly completes the conditional sentence: 'If the accused ______ the truth, he would have been acquitted.'
ahas told
bhad told
ctells
dtold
Answer: B
This is a third (unreal past) conditional; the 'if' clause requires the past perfect 'had told' to match 'would have been' in the main clause.
Q100English Language
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: "Hardly had the judge entered the courtroom ______ the lawyers rose to their feet."
athen
bthan
cthat
dwhen
Answer: D
The correlative construction with the adverb "hardly" is "hardly ... when" (compare "no sooner ... than"); hence "when" is correct.
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