Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test 8 — Questions & Solutions
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An application for anticipatory bail, i.e. a direction for release on bail in the event of arrest for a non-bailable offence, lies under Section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 before:
aThe High Court or the Court of Session
bThe Superintendent of Police
cThe Magistrate of the first class only
dThe Director of Prosecution
Answer: A
Section 482 BNSS (corresponding to Section 438 CrPC) vests the power to grant anticipatory bail in the High Court or the Court of Session.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the right of a person arrested for a bailable offence to be released on bail is governed by:
aSection 482
bSection 480
cSection 483
dSection 478
Answer: D
Section 478 BNSS (corresponding to Section 436 CrPC) confers the right to be released on bail when arrested for a bailable offence, including release of indigent persons on personal bond.
Under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender), the Court shall not commence the trial unless a period has elapsed from the date of framing of the charge, of:
aThirty days
bSixty days
cNinety days
dOne hundred and eighty days
Answer: C
Section 356 BNSS, a new provision permitting trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, mandates a waiting period of ninety days from the date of framing of the charge before the trial commences.
A woman who has been fatally assaulted makes a statement to a Magistrate naming her assailant and describing how she was attacked, and dies thereafter before trial. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, her statement is relevant as a dying declaration under:
aSection 26
bSection 22
cSection 6
dSection 119
Answer: A
Section 26 of the BSA, 2023 makes statements by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death, relevant when the cause of death is in question. This corresponds to the old Section 32(1) of the Evidence Act.
Two friends, A and B, were alone in a room bolted from the inside. In the morning A is found murdered and B is unable to explain how. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the burden of explaining the manner of death may be cast on B by virtue of:
aSection 105 (on whom burden lies)
bSection 104 (general burden of proof)
cSection 109 (burden of proving fact especially within knowledge)
dSection 119 (court may presume existence of facts)
Answer: C
Section 109 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 106, Evidence Act) places the burden of proving a fact especially within a person's knowledge upon that person. Where two persons are in a locked room, the survivor must explain the death.
It is shown that soon before her death a married woman was subjected to cruelty by her husband in connection with a demand for dowry, and her death was caused otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of marriage. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court:
aMust hold that no presumption arises until ossification proves age
bMay presume that the husband caused the dowry death
cShall presume that the husband caused the dowry death
dShall presume innocence and place the entire burden on prosecution
Answer: C
Section 118 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 113B, Evidence Act) is a mandatory presumption: the Court 'shall presume' that the accused caused the dowry death once the foundational facts of cruelty/harassment soon before death are established.
In a criminal trial the prosecution produces a single eyewitness whose testimony the Court finds wholly reliable. The defence argues that conviction on the word of one witness is impermissible. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the correct position is:
aNo particular number of witnesses is required for proof of any fact
bCorroboration by a second witness is mandatory for conviction
cAt least two witnesses are required to prove a fact
dThree witnesses are required in a case triable by Sessions
Answer: A
Section 139 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 134, Evidence Act) provides that no particular number of witnesses is required for proof of any fact; evidence is weighed, not counted.
An accomplice turns approver and deposes against the accused. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which statement is correct regarding his evidence?
aAn accomplice is a competent witness, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice
bAn accomplice is not a competent witness against the accused
cThe evidence of an accomplice is conclusive proof of guilt
dAn accomplice's evidence cannot be acted upon under any circumstances
Answer: A
Section 138 of the BSA, 2023 as enacted provides: 'An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person; and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice.' This differs from the repealed Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which spoke of conviction being not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice; the BSA text now refers to corroborated testimony.
In a civil suit for breach of contract, the plaintiff seeks to lead evidence of the defendant's bad character to show he was likely to have committed the breach. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, such evidence of character is:
aRelevant to determine the amount of damages alone
bRelevant only if the defendant first leads evidence of good character
cRelevant, since character is always a fact in issue
dGenerally irrelevant, except in so far as such character appears from facts otherwise relevant
Answer: D
Section 46 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 52, Evidence Act) makes evidence of character in civil cases irrelevant for showing probable conduct, except in so far as it appears from facts otherwise relevant.
Z, a newly married woman, dies of burns within five years of marriage and it is shown she was subjected to cruelty by her husband in connection with a demand for dowry soon before her death. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the husband is liable for dowry death punishable under:
aSection 103
bSection 80
cSection 304B
dSection 85
Answer: B
Dowry death is dealt with by Section 80 of the BNS, 2023 (corresponding to the former Section 304B IPC), carrying imprisonment not less than seven years which may extend to life; the death must occur within seven years of marriage.
A servant entrusted with his employer's money to deposit in a bank dishonestly uses it for his own purposes. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A is guilty of criminal breach of trust punishable under:
aSection 316
bSection 406
cSection 318
dSection 303
Answer: A
Criminal breach of trust is dealt with by Section 316 of the BNS, 2023 (corresponding to the former Section 406 IPC); dishonest misappropriation of property entrusted to a person constitutes the offence.
Q14Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, a transfer of land by a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to a person who is not a member of such caste or tribe, made in contravention of Section 42, is:
aValid but subject to payment of penalty
bVoidable at the option of the transferor only
cValid if subsequently confirmed by the Sub-Divisional Officer
dVoid
Answer: D
Section 42 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 imposes a general restriction on sale, gift or bequest by a Khatedar tenant who is a member of a Scheduled Caste/Tribe to a non-member, and such a transfer is void. The land is liable to vest in the State on contravention.
Q15Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, the class of tenant entitled to the widest bundle of rights, including a heritable and (subject to the Act) transferable interest in the holding, is the:
aKhatedar tenant
bTenant of Khudkasht
cSub-tenant
dGair Khatedar tenant
Answer: A
Under Section 15 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 a person who is a tenant of land (otherwise than as a sub-tenant or tenant of Khudkasht) becomes a Khatedar tenant entitled to all the rights conferred by the Act, which is the strongest category of tenancy.
Q16Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under Section 6 of the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, an agriculturist who has obtained financial assistance from a bank may create a charge in favour of the bank on land he owns by:
aExecuting a registered mortgage deed only
bMaking a declaration creating such charge in favour of the bank
cA decree of the Debt Relief Court
dObtaining the prior sanction of the Collector
Answer: B
Section 6 of the Act enables an agriculturist who has been given financial assistance by a bank to make a declaration whereby he creates in favour of the bank a charge on the land or his interest therein, dispensing with the usual formalities of a mortgage. This facilitates institutional agricultural credit.
Q17Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, the period within which the Public Hearing Officer is ordinarily required to provide an opportunity of hearing and dispose of an application is:
a7 days
b15 days
c45 days
d30 days
Answer: B
The Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012 requires the Public Hearing Officer to provide an opportunity of hearing and dispose of the application within fifteen days, recording reasons in writing if it is rejected. A first appeal thereafter is to be decided within twenty-one days.
A Children's Court, after trying a child as an adult under Section 19 of the JJ Act, 2015, may direct that the child be kept in a place of safety till he attains the age of twenty-one years, and thereafter the court must evaluate whether the child:
aShould be transferred to a jail to serve the remaining sentence
bShould be released unconditionally in every case
cHas undergone reformative changes and can be a contributing member of society
dShould be deported
Answer: C
Under Section 19, on the child attaining twenty-one years the Children's Court evaluates whether he has undergone reformative changes and can be a contributing member of society; depending on that evaluation he may be released on conditions or transferred to jail for the remaining term.
Section 21 of the JJ Act, 2015 provides that no child in conflict with law shall, in any case, be sentenced to:
aPayment of any fine
bDetention in a place of safety
cDeath or life imprisonment without the possibility of release
dCommunity service of any kind
Answer: C
Section 21 expressly bars a sentence of death or life imprisonment without the possibility of release for a child in conflict with law, irrespective of the gravity of the offence.
Under Section 24 of the JJ Act, 2015, a child who has committed an offence and dealt with under the Act shall not suffer disqualification attaching to a conviction. This benefit of removal of disqualification is, however, NOT available to:
aA child found to have committed a serious offence
bA child above sixteen years tried as an adult by the Children's Court for a heinous offence
cA child in need of care and protection
dA child found to have committed a petty offence
Answer: B
Section 24(1) removes the disqualification attaching to a conviction for a child dealt with under the Act, but expressly excepts a child who has completed or is above sixteen and is found to have committed a heinous offence and tried as an adult under Section 19.
Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, where a person adopts a child of the sex opposite to that of the adopter:
athe adopter must be at least eighteen years older than the child adopted
bthere is no requirement of any age difference
cthe adopter must be at least twenty-one years older than the child adopted
dthe adopter must be at least twenty-five years older than the child adopted
Answer: C
Section 11(iii) and (iv) require that where a male adopts a daughter, or a female adopts a son, the adoptive parent must be at least twenty-one years older than the child to be adopted.
Under Section 10 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following is a condition for a person to be capable of being taken in adoption?
aHe or she must not have completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is a custom or usage permitting otherwise
bHe or she must have completed the age of seven years
cHe or she must not have completed the age of eighteen years in all cases
dHe or she must be unmarried, with no exception of any kind
Answer: A
Section 10 lays down that the person to be adopted must be a Hindu, not already adopted, unmarried (unless custom permits) and must not have completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is a custom or usage permitting adoption of persons who are married or over fifteen.
Under Section 7 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a male Hindu having a wife living can validly take a child in adoption:
aonly with the prior permission of the District Court
bwithout any consent, in his absolute discretion
conly if the wife is also a party to the deed of adoption in every case
donly with the consent of his wife, unless she has finally renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu, or been declared of unsound mind
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 7 requires that if a male Hindu has a wife living, he shall not adopt except with her consent, unless she has completely and finally renounced the world, has ceased to be a Hindu, or has been declared by a competent court to be of unsound mind.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aA plaint shall be rejected where it does not disclose a cause of action
bA plaint can be rejected only after recording the defendant's evidence
cA plaint cannot be rejected for non-payment of the requisite court-fee
dRejection of a plaint operates as a bar to a fresh suit on the same cause of action
Answer: A
Order VII Rule 11 CPC requires rejection of a plaint inter alia where it does not disclose a cause of action or where the requisite court-fee is not supplied; under Order VII Rule 13 such rejection does not bar a fresh plaint on the same cause of action.
Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (as amended in 2002), the defendant shall present a written statement of his defence within a period which the court may extend, but not beyond:
asixty days from the date of service of summons
bninety days from the date of service of summons
cthirty days from the date of service of summons
done hundred and twenty days from the date of service of summons
Answer: B
Order VIII Rule 1 CPC, post the 2002 Amendment, requires the written statement within thirty days, extendable for reasons recorded but not later than ninety days from the date of service of summons.
An ex parte decree passed against a defendant may be set aside under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, if the defendant satisfies the court that:
athe summons was not duly served, or he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing
bthe suit was wrongly valued by the plaintiff
ca substantial question of law arises in the suit
dthe decree was passed by a court without pecuniary jurisdiction
Answer: A
Order IX Rule 13 CPC allows an ex parte decree to be set aside where the defendant proves that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing.
Under Section 6 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, when a person under twenty-one years of age is found guilty of an offence punishable with imprisonment (but not with imprisonment for life), the court:
ashall not sentence him to imprisonment unless satisfied it would not be desirable to deal with him under Section 3 or Section 4, recording its reasons
bmay sentence him to imprisonment without recording any reasons
cmust mandatorily release him after admonition under Section 3
dis barred in every case from passing any sentence of imprisonment
Answer: A
Section 6(1) directs that such an offender shall not be sentenced to imprisonment unless the court is satisfied that it would not be desirable to deal with him under Section 3 or 4, and if it imposes imprisonment it must record its reasons.
Where an offender released on probation fails to observe the conditions of his bond for the first time, Section 9(3) of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 empowers the court, without prejudice to the continuance in force of the bond, to impose a penalty not exceeding:
aone hundred rupees
bfifty rupees
cfive hundred rupees
done thousand rupees
Answer: B
Section 9(3)(b) provides that where the failure to observe the bond conditions is for the first time, the court may, without prejudice to the bond's continuance, impose a penalty 'not exceeding fifty rupees'.
Where, owing to urgent necessity or unavoidable accident, a document is not presented within the prescribed time, the Registrar may, where the delay does not exceed four months, direct registration on payment of a fine not exceeding:
aTen times the amount of the proper registration fee
bFive times the amount of the proper registration fee
cTwice the amount of the proper registration fee
dTwenty times the amount of the proper registration fee
Answer: A
Under Section 25 of the Registration Act, 1908, where delay in presentation is due to urgent necessity or unavoidable accident and does not exceed four months, the Registrar may admit the document on payment of a fine not exceeding ten times the amount of the proper registration fee.
A sale deed of immovable property is executed on 1st January and registered on 1st March of the same year. Under the Registration Act, 1908, the registered document shall operate from:
a1st January, the date of execution
b1st March, the date of registration
cThe date on which the Sub-Registrar enters it in the register book
dThe date on which the document is copied under Section 61
Answer: A
Section 47 of the Registration Act, 1908 provides that a registered document operates from the time from which it would have commenced to operate had no registration been required or made, i.e. the date of execution, and not from the date of registration.
Under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in a matter other than international commercial arbitration, the arbitral award shall be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings; the parties may, by consent, extend this period for a further period not exceeding:
aSuch period as the arbitral tribunal may fix
bTwelve months
cSix months
dThree months
Answer: C
Section 29A(1) fixes twelve months from completion of pleadings (under Section 23(4)), and Section 29A(3) permits the parties, by consent, to extend the period for making the award for a further period not exceeding six months.
Under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement:
aMust always be in the form of a separate agreement and cannot be a clause in a contract
bMay be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract or in the form of a separate agreement, and shall be in writing
cMust be a clause in the contract itself and cannot be contained in a separate agreement
dNeed not be in writing if its existence can be proved by oral evidence
Answer: B
Section 7(2) provides that an arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract or in the form of a separate agreement, while Section 7(3) requires that it shall be in writing.
Under Section 4 of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, a public servant (not being a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe) who wilfully neglects the duties required of him under the Act is punishable with imprisonment for a term which:
amay extend to six months only
bmay extend to three years
cshall not be less than one year but may extend to two years
dshall not be less than six months but may extend to one year
Answer: D
Section 4(1) provides that a public servant, not being a member of an SC or ST, who wilfully neglects duties required to be performed under the Act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term not less than six months but which may extend to one year.
Which of the following provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is expressly excluded in its application to persons accused of an offence under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
aSection 197 (sanction for prosecution of public servants)
bSection 482 (inherent powers of the High Court)
cSection 438 (anticipatory bail)
dSection 437 (bail in non-bailable offences)
Answer: C
Section 18 of the Act provides that nothing in Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (anticipatory bail) shall apply in relation to any case involving the arrest of any person on an accusation of having committed an offence under the Act.
Under Section 4 of the POCSO Act, 2012 (as amended in 2019), the punishment for penetrative sexual assault committed on a child who is not below sixteen years of age shall be imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:
aThree years, extendable to seven years, and fine
bTwenty years, extendable to imprisonment for life, and fine
cSeven years, extendable to imprisonment for life, and fine
dTen years, extendable to imprisonment for life, and fine
Answer: D
After the 2019 amendment, Section 4(1) prescribes a minimum of ten years (extendable to life imprisonment) with fine for penetrative sexual assault; the higher minimum of twenty years under Section 4(2) applies only where the child is below sixteen years.
A Special Judge trying an offence under the POCSO Act, 2012 invokes the statutory presumption that the accused has committed the offence unless the contrary is proved. This presumption under Section 29 of the Act is attracted in prosecutions for offences under:
aAll offences punishable under the Act
bSections 11 and 12 of the Act
cSections 3, 5, 7 and 9 of the Act
dSections 13, 14 and 15 of the Act
Answer: C
Section 29 directs the Special Court to presume guilt, unless the contrary is proved, only where a person is prosecuted for committing, abetting or attempting offences under Sections 3, 5, 7 and 9; it does not extend to every offence under the Act.
Under Section 6 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, in respect of premises let out before the commencement of the Act, the rent may be increased annually at the rate of:
a5 per cent per annum
b7.5 per cent per annum
c10 per cent per annum
d15 per cent per annum
Answer: B
For pre-commencement tenancies Section 6 permits an increase at 7.5% per annum (5% per annum for tenancies created after commencement), with the increase merging into the rent after ten years.
From every final order passed by the Rent Tribunal under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, an appeal lies to the Appellate Rent Tribunal. Such appeal is required to be filed within:
aforty-five days from the date of the final order
bninety days from the date of the final order
cthirty days from the date of the final order
dsixty days from the date of the final order
Answer: D
Section 19 of the Act provides that an appeal to the Appellate Rent Tribunal shall be filed within sixty days from the date of the final order, along with a copy of that order.
Q39Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
Under the Electricity Act, 2003, in respect of a matter which an assessing officer under Section 126, an appellate authority under Section 127 or an adjudicating officer is empowered to determine, the jurisdiction of a civil court is:
aAvailable, but subject to prior sanction of the State Commission
bAvailable concurrently with the assessing officer
cBarred only in matters relating to theft of electricity under Section 135
dBarred by Section 145, and no injunction can be granted in respect of any action taken under the Act
Answer: D
Section 145 ousts the jurisdiction of civil courts in respect of matters which the assessing officer (Section 126), appellate authority (Section 127) or adjudicating officer is empowered to determine, and bars the grant of any injunction in respect of action taken under the Act.
Q40Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
Under Section 152 of the Electricity Act, 2003, where the Appropriate Government or its authorised officer accepts a sum of money by way of compounding of an offence, the acceptance of such sum shall be deemed to amount to:
aA conviction recorded by a Special Court
bA discharge under Section 245 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
cA withdrawal of prosecution requiring the consent of the Special Court
dAn acquittal within the meaning of Section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Answer: D
Under Section 152(3) of the Electricity Act, 2003, acceptance of the compounding sum is deemed to amount to an acquittal within the meaning of Section 300 CrPC; compounding under the section is allowed only once for any person or consumer.
An offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is deemed to have been committed only when, after receipt of the notice of demand, the drawer fails to make payment of the said amount of money within:
aSeven days from the date of receipt of the notice
bFifteen days from the date of receipt of the notice
cThirty days from the date of receipt of the notice
dOne month from the date of dishonour of the cheque
Answer: B
Clause (c) of the proviso to Section 138 requires the drawer to make payment within fifteen days of receipt of the demand notice; the offence is complete only on his failure to do so within that period.
Under Section 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a complaint in respect of an offence under Section 138 can be taken cognizance of only if it is made in writing by the payee or holder in due course within:
aOne month of the date on which the cause of action arises under clause (c) of the proviso to Section 138
bThree months of the dishonour of the cheque
cFifteen days of the cause of action arising
dSix months of the cheque being drawn
Answer: A
Section 142(1)(b) requires the complaint to be made within one month of the date on which the cause of action arises under clause (c) of the proviso to Section 138 (the court may, however, condone delay for sufficient cause).
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, the punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form, on first conviction, is imprisonment up to three years and fine up to:
aTwo lakh rupees
bOne lakh rupees
cFive lakh rupees
dTen lakh rupees
Answer: C
Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000 prescribes, on first conviction, imprisonment up to three years and fine up to five lakh rupees; on a subsequent conviction it rises to five years and ten lakh rupees.
Which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with punishment for publishing or transmitting material containing sexually explicit act or conduct in electronic form?
aSection 67B
bSection 66E
cSection 67A
dSection 67
Answer: C
Section 67A penalises publishing/transmitting material containing a sexually explicit act in electronic form (up to five years and ten lakh rupees on first conviction); Section 67B deals specifically with child sexually abusive material.
Article 13(1) declares that pre-Constitution laws inconsistent with fundamental rights shall be void 'to the extent of such inconsistency'. The expression 'to the extent of such inconsistency' is the constitutional basis of which doctrine?
aDoctrine of territorial nexus
bDoctrine of severability
cDoctrine of pith and substance
dDoctrine of colourable legislation
Answer: B
By rendering a law void only 'to the extent of such inconsistency', Article 13(1) invalidates only the offending portion and keeps the rest of the statute operative, which is the doctrine of severability.
Under Article 110 of the Constitution of India, if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision is:
aOf the Supreme Court on a reference under Article 143
bOf the Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and is final
cOf the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), and is final
dOf the President of India, and is final
Answer: C
Article 110(3) provides that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.
Under Section 50 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, when an empowered officer is about to search a person, the person to be searched has a right to require that the search be conducted in the presence of:
athe nearest Gazetted Officer of any of the departments mentioned in Section 42 or the nearest Magistrate
btwo independent witnesses of the locality only
cany officer not below the rank of Inspector
dhis own legal counsel
Answer: A
Section 50 confers on the suspect the right to be searched before the nearest Gazetted Officer or the nearest Magistrate; in Vijaysinh Chandubha Jadeja v. State of Gujarat the Supreme Court held that informing the person of this right is mandatory.
Under Section 27 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the punishment for consumption of a narcotic drug other than cocaine, morphine or diacetyl-morphine is imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
aone year, or fine up to twenty thousand rupees, or both
bthree years and a mandatory fine of one lakh rupees
csix months, or fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both
dtwo years, or fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both
Answer: C
Section 27 prescribes rigorous imprisonment up to one year or fine up to Rs 20,000 (or both) for consuming cocaine, morphine or diacetyl-morphine, but for any other narcotic drug the punishment is imprisonment up to six months or fine up to Rs 10,000, or both.
The benefit of extension of the prescribed period on the ground of 'sufficient cause' under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is available to:
aAny appeal or any application, other than an application under any of the provisions of Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure, but not to suits
bOnly execution applications under Order XXI CPC
cSuits and appeals only, but not applications
dEvery suit, appeal and application alike
Answer: A
Section 5 permits condonation of delay for an appeal or application (excluding applications under Order XXI CPC) on showing sufficient cause; it does not apply to suits, whose limitation is governed strictly by Section 3.
Under Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963, on the determination of the period limited to a person for instituting a suit for possession of property:
aOnly his remedy by way of suit is barred, but his title survives
bHis right to such property shall be extinguished
cThe court may, for sufficient cause, revive the period
dHis title is suspended for a further period of twelve years
Answer: B
Section 27 is an exception to the general rule that limitation bars only the remedy; it extinguishes the right (title) to the property itself once the period for a possession suit expires, which is the statutory basis of adverse possession.
In a usufructuary mortgage as defined under Section 58(d) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following is the correct statement of the mortgagee's position?
aThe mortgagor remains personally liable to pay the mortgage-money on a fixed date and the mortgagee may sell on default
bThe mortgagee may sue for the mortgage-money and is entitled to foreclose the property
cOwnership in the property passes absolutely to the mortgagee subject to a covenant to retransfer
dThe mortgagee retains possession and appropriates rents and profits in lieu of interest or towards the mortgage-money, but cannot foreclose or sue for sale
Answer: D
In a usufructuary mortgage the mortgagee is put in possession and appropriates the rents and profits in lieu of interest or in payment of the mortgage-money; there is no personal covenant to pay and the mortgagee can neither foreclose nor sue for sale.
'X', the real owner, allows his brother 'Y' to be recorded and to deal with certain immovable property as its apparent owner. 'Y' sells the property for value to 'Z', who, after taking reasonable care to ascertain 'Y's power to transfer, acts in good faith. On a later claim by 'X', which provision protects 'Z' and on what footing?
aSection 6(a) — the transfer is valid as a transfer of a mere expectancy
bSection 53A — 'Z' is protected only as a defence to retain possession
cSection 43 — 'Z' may compel 'X' to feed the grant by estoppel
dSection 41 — the transfer shall not be voidable on the ground that the transferor was not authorised to make it
Answer: D
Section 41 protects a transferee for consideration from an ostensible owner who holds with the consent (express or implied) of the real owner, provided the transferee acted in good faith after taking reasonable care; the transfer is then not voidable for want of the transferor's authority.
Where investigation cannot be completed within the prescribed period, under Section 187(3) of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a Magistrate cannot authorise detention of an accused beyond ninety days where the offence is punishable with:
aImprisonment for a term exactly up to seven years
bImprisonment for a term of less than seven years
cDeath, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more
dFine only, in addition to a term not exceeding three years
Answer: C
Under Section 187(3) BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 167(2) CrPC), the maximum detention is ninety days where the offence is punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of ten years or more, and sixty days for any other offence; thereafter the accused is entitled to default bail.
On a complaint instituted before a Magistrate under Section 223 of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is a mandatory requirement before cognizance is taken upon such complaint?
aThe complainant must first lodge a First Information Report
bThe complaint must be supported by an affidavit of two independent witnesses
cSanction of the District Magistrate must invariably be obtained
dThe accused must be given an opportunity of being heard before cognizance is taken
Answer: D
Section 223(1) BNSS, 2023 requires the Magistrate to examine the complainant and witnesses on oath; its first proviso (a new safeguard over the old Section 200 CrPC) bars taking cognizance without first giving the accused an opportunity of being heard.
Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the unpaid seller of goods who is in possession of them is entitled to retain possession until payment or tender of the price. This right is known as the:
aUnpaid seller's lien
bRight of stoppage in transit
cRight of resale
dRight of withholding delivery
Answer: A
Section 47 confers the unpaid seller's lien, entitling a seller in possession to retain the goods until payment where the sale is without credit, the credit term has expired, or the buyer becomes insolvent.
Two parties entered into an agreement, the consideration or object of which was such that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of a law. Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, such an agreement is:
avoidable at the option of either party
bvalid
cvoid, the consideration or object being unlawful
denforceable if both parties were aware of the illegality
Answer: C
Under Section 23, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful, inter alia, where it would defeat the provisions of any law; every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
Under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, breach of a protection order or an interim protection order by the respondent is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
aTwo years, or fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both
bOne year, or fine up to twenty thousand rupees, or both
cSix months, or fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both
dThree years, or fine up to one lakh rupees, or both
Answer: B
Section 31(1) makes breach of a protection order an offence punishable with imprisonment of either description which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees, or with both.
Under the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, which of the following forms of dissolution of marriage is expressly named in Section 2 as a matter governed by Muslim Personal Law?
aRestitution of conjugal rights
bDecree of nullity by a civil court
cKhula and mubaraat
dJudicial separation
Answer: C
Section 2 of the Shariat Application Act, 1937 lists dissolution of marriage including talaq, ila, zihar, lian, khula and mubaraat among the matters to be decided according to Muslim Personal Law.
Under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted to restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit in which the injunction is sought, unless:
aThe proceeding is before a court inferior to the one from which the injunction is sought
bBoth parties consent in writing to the restraint
cThe plaintiff offers adequate security for costs
dSuch restraint is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings
Answer: D
Section 41(a) prohibits an injunction restraining a person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit, except where it is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings.
A suit by a partner of an unregistered firm against the firm or other partners to enforce a right arising from the contract of partnership is, under Section 69(1) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932:
aBarred for a period of one year after constitution of the firm
bMaintainable without any restriction
cBarred unless the firm is registered and the suing partner is shown in the Register of Firms as a partner
dMaintainable only in the High Court
Answer: C
Section 69(1) bars a suit to enforce a right arising from the contract or conferred by the Act by a person suing as a partner against the firm or other partners unless the firm is registered and the person is shown as a partner in the Register of Firms.
Under Section 22 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, for the purpose of holding any determination, a Lok Adalat or Permanent Lok Adalat is vested with the same powers as are vested in:
aThe High Court under Article 227 of the Constitution
bA Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 while trying a suit
cAn arbitral tribunal under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
dA Court of Session under the Code of Criminal Procedure
Answer: B
Section 22 vests a Lok Adalat/Permanent Lok Adalat with the powers of a Civil Court under the CPC, 1908 (such as summoning witnesses, discovery of documents, and reception of evidence), and its proceedings are deemed to be judicial proceedings.
Under Section 259 of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, the jurisdiction of civil courts is excluded with respect to matters arising under the Act; however, a civil suit may still be brought where:
aA boundary or other dispute between estate-holders involves a question of title
bAn appeal to the Board has been dismissed on the ground of limitation
cThe Collector has refused to grant a stay of recovery proceedings
dThe amount of land revenue assessed exceeds rupees ten thousand
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 259 permits a civil suit where, in a boundary dispute or any other dispute between estate-holders, a question of title is involved.
Under the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, an appellate court that remands a suit for fresh decision may direct a refund of the court fee under:
aSection 6
bSection 24
cSection 61
dSection 62
Answer: D
Section 62 ('Refund in cases of remand') provides for refund of the appeal fee where the appellate court remands the case for a fresh decision, distinct from the rejection-of-plaint refund under Section 61.
The rule of evidence captured by 'Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus' is described by Indian courts as:
aA mandatory rule of law binding the court to reject the entire testimony
bMerely a rule of caution and not a rule of law in India
cA rule that the burden of proof never shifts
dA presumption of innocence in favour of the accused
Answer: B
'Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus' means false in one thing, false in everything; the Supreme Court of India has consistently held it is not a rule of law but at most a rule of caution.
Latin-derived comparatives like 'senior', 'junior', 'superior' take 'to', not 'than'.
Q67English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct article: "He was granted _____ unconditional bail by the Sessions Court."
athe
ban
ca
dno article
Answer: B
'Unconditional' begins with a vowel sound, so the article 'an' is used.
Q68English Language
Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence: "The judge asked the counsel ___ have you examined the principal witness ___"
a, "; "?
b; have you examined the principal witness.
c, "Have you examined the principal witness?"
d: have you examined the principal witness!
Answer: C
A direct question in quoted speech begins with a capital letter, is enclosed in quotation marks, and ends with a question mark inside the closing quote.
Q69English Language
Select the word that means the same as 'CONTUMACIOUS':
aDefiant of authority
bObedient
cContagious
dTalkative
Answer: A
'Contumacious' means stubbornly disobedient to authority, a term frequently used in contempt-of-court contexts.
Q70English Language
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: "Neither the judge nor the advocates ____ aware that the file had been misplaced."
ais
bhave been
cwere
dwas
Answer: C
In a 'neither...nor' construction, the verb agrees with the nearer subject, which here is the plural 'advocates', so the correct verb is 'were'.
Q71English Language
Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: "The accused, along with his accomplices, (a)/ were produced (b)/ before the magistrate (c)/ this morning. (d)"
athis morning.
bbefore the magistrate
cThe accused, along with his accomplices,
dwere produced
Answer: D
The phrase 'along with his accomplices' is parenthetical and does not change the singular subject 'The accused', so the verb should be 'was produced', not 'were produced'.
Q72English Language
Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: "to take something with a pinch of salt."
ato feel deeply offended by it
bto regard it with scepticism or reservation
cto accept it as completely true
dto add flavour to a dull task
Answer: B
The idiom 'to take something with a pinch of salt' means to view a statement with doubt or not to accept it fully at face value.
Q73English Language
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition: "The tenant was held liable ____ the damage caused to the leased premises."
afrom
bfor
cof
dwith
Answer: B
The standard collocation is 'liable for' something, indicating responsibility for the damage.
Q74English Language
Choose the word that is closest in meaning to 'CANDID'.
aCautious
bFrank
cDeceitful
dReluctant
Answer: B
'Candid' means open and honest in expression; its closest synonym among the options is 'frank'.
Q75English Language
Select the correctly punctuated sentence.
aThe witness said that he had seen the accused.
bThe witness said, that he had seen the accused.
cThe witness said "that he had seen the accused."
dThe witness, said that he had seen the accused.
Answer: A
Reported (indirect) speech introduced by 'that' takes no comma and no quotation marks, so option (b) is correctly punctuated.
Q76English Language
Choose the correct passive form of: "The court has dismissed the appeal."
aThe appeal had been dismissed by the court.
bThe appeal has been dismissed by the court.
cThe appeal is being dismissed by the court.
dThe appeal was dismissed by the court.
Answer: B
The active sentence is in the present perfect tense; its passive form is 'has been dismissed', preserving the tense.
Q77English Language
Identify the correctly spelt word.
aPriviledge
bPrivilege
cPrivilage
dPrivelege
Answer: B
The correct spelling is 'privilege', with no 'd' and an 'e' in the second syllable.
Q78English Language
Choose the one word that best substitutes the phrase: "a statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death."
aDying declaration
bAffidavit
cTestimony
dDeposition
Answer: A
A 'dying declaration' is the precise term for a statement by a person, since deceased, as to the cause or circumstances of his death.
Q79English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct article: "He is ____ honest officer who never accepts bribes."
ano article
bthe
ca
dan
Answer: D
The word 'honest' begins with a silent 'h' and a vowel sound, so it takes the article 'an'.
Q80English Language
Choose the option that correctly changes the sentence into indirect speech: He said to me, "Where were you yesterday?"
aHe asked me where I was the previous day.
bHe asked me where had I been yesterday.
cHe asked me where was I the day before.
dHe told me where I had been the previous day.
Answer: A
In indirect speech the question becomes a statement order, 'yesterday' becomes 'the previous day', and 'were' shifts back to 'was'; option (a) applies all three correctly.
Q81CrPC
Under Section 175(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, before a Magistrate may order an investigation upon a complaint disclosing a cognizable offence, the Magistrate must, in addition to considering the police officer's submissions, be satisfied that the complainant has:
aObtained prior sanction from the Director of Prosecution
bFiled an affidavit before the Sessions Court
cMade an application under Section 173(4) to the Superintendent of Police after the officer in charge refused to register the FIR
dDeposited the prescribed court fee
Answer: C
Unlike the old Section 156(3) CrPC, Section 175(3) BNSS requires the complainant first to have approached the Superintendent of Police under Section 173(4), and the Magistrate to consider the police officer's submissions, before ordering investigation.
Under the proviso to Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the police officer is required to inform the victim or informant about the progress of the investigation by any means, within a period of:
aSixty days
bNinety days
cThirty days
dFifteen days
Answer: B
Section 193 BNSS introduces a victim-centric safeguard requiring the police to update the victim or informant on the progress of investigation within ninety days, a duty absent in the old Section 173 CrPC.
Under Section 346 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, dealing with the power to postpone or adjourn proceedings, the personal attendance of the accused, where required, is expressly stated to include attendance:
aBy a representation filed by the public prosecutor
bThrough a power-of-attorney holder
cThrough audio-video electronic means
dOnly in physical form before the Court
Answer: C
Section 346 BNSS modernises the old Section 309 CrPC by expressly providing that personal attendance of the accused includes attendance through audio-video electronic means.
Under Section 35(7) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no person who is infirm or above sixty years of age, accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of less than three years, shall be arrested except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:
aSub-Inspector of Police
bInspector of Police
cDeputy Superintendent of Police
dSuperintendent of Police
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 35(7) BNSS, 2023 requires prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police before arresting an infirm person or one above sixty years for an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years.
Under Section 187(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention beyond which an accused acquires the right to be released on bail on default in completion of investigation is ninety days where the investigation relates to:
aany offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of seven years or more
ban offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years
cany cognizable and non-bailable offence
dan offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more
Answer: D
Section 187(3)(i) BNSS, 2023 fixes the ninety-day outer limit for offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more; for any other offence the period is sixty days under clause (ii).
Statement 'A' - Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may be given orally or by electronic communication, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed. Statement 'B' - Where such information is given by electronic communication, it shall be taken on record on being signed by the person giving it within three days.
aOnly Statement 'A' is correct
bOnly Statement 'B' is correct
cBoth Statements 'A' and 'B' are incorrect
dBoth Statements 'A' and 'B' are correct
Answer: D
Section 173(1) BNSS, 2023 permits oral or electronic information regardless of the area of the offence (codifying the Zero FIR), and requires electronic information to be signed within three days to be taken on record.
Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender who has never been convicted of any offence in the past shall be released by the Court on bond if he has undergone detention up to:
athe entire maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
bone-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
cone-fourth of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
done-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence
Answer: D
The first proviso to Section 479(1) BNSS, 2023 entitles a first-time offender (never previously convicted) to release on bond on undergoing detention of one-third of the maximum imprisonment specified, against the one-half rule applicable to others.
Under Section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (anticipatory bail), when a person apprehending arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence applies to the High Court or the Court of Session, the Court may direct that in the event of arrest he shall be released on bail. Which of the following is the correct position?
aEither the High Court or the Court of Session may grant such a direction
bThe direction can be granted only after the person is actually arrested
cThe application lies only before the Magistrate having jurisdiction
dThe application can be made only to the High Court and not to the Court of Session
Answer: A
Section 482(1) BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to former Section 438 CrPC) empowers both the High Court and the Court of Session to direct that a person apprehending arrest for a non-bailable offence be released on bail in the event of arrest.
The Court has to form an opinion on the genuineness of a disputed finger impression and on a question of computer forensics. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant under:
aSection 119
bSection 39
cSection 104
dSection 26
Answer: B
Section 39 of the BSA, 2023 makes expert opinion relevant on foreign law, science, art, 'any other field', and identity of handwriting or finger impressions, broadening the old Section 45 of the Evidence Act.
A child is born to a woman during the continuance of a valid marriage with a man, the birth occurring while the marriage subsists. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this fact is:
aA rebuttable presumption of legitimacy
bConclusive proof of legitimacy and incapable of being displaced by any evidence
cIrrelevant to the question of legitimacy
dConclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access between the parties is shown
Answer: D
Section 116 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 112, Evidence Act) makes birth during a valid marriage conclusive proof of legitimacy, but this can be displaced by showing non-access between the spouses at the relevant time.
A intentionally and falsely represents to B that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy it. Later A acquires that very land and sues to recover it from B. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, A is prevented from denying his earlier representation by the principle of:
aConclusive proof under Section 116
bAdmission under Section 15
cRes gestae under Section 4
dEstoppel under Section 121
Answer: D
Section 121 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 115, Evidence Act) embodies the doctrine of estoppel: a person who by declaration, act or omission intentionally causes another to believe a thing and act on it cannot later deny its truth.
During cross-examination a party wishes to put a question suggesting the answer he desires to a hostile or opposing witness. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, such leading questions:
aRequire the prior written consent of the witness
bCan never be asked at any stage of examination
cMay be asked only in examination-in-chief
dMay be asked in cross-examination, but in examination-in-chief and re-examination only with the Court's permission
Answer: D
Section 146 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 143, Evidence Act) permits leading questions in cross-examination; in examination-in-chief and re-examination they may be asked only if the Court permits.
A makes a confession in police custody implicating both himself and a co-accused B, and both are tried jointly for the same offence. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, A's confession against B:
aIs substantive evidence sufficient by itself to convict B
bIs wholly inadmissible against B for any purpose
cBecomes conclusive proof of B's guilt
dMay be taken into consideration against B, but only as a weak corroborative piece, not as substantive evidence
Answer: D
Section 24 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 30, Indian Evidence Act, 1872) allows a confession of one accused affecting himself and a co-accused, jointly tried for the same offence, to be 'taken into consideration' against the co-accused, but it is only a supporting factor and cannot form the sole basis of conviction.
A statement, oral, documentary or contained in electronic form, which suggests an inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact and is made by a party or other person specified in the Act, is termed under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 as:
aAn admission under Section 15
bA dying declaration under Section 26
cA confession under Section 22
dAn estoppel under Section 121
Answer: A
Section 15 of the BSA, 2023 defines an 'admission' as a statement (oral, documentary or in electronic form) suggesting an inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact, made by persons mentioned in the succeeding sections. The express inclusion of electronic form is a BSA addition.
X, intending to take Z's life, fires a shot at Z but Z escapes unhurt. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, X has committed the offence of attempt to murder punishable under:
aSection 103
bSection 307
cSection 109
dSection 105
Answer: C
Attempt to murder is punishable under Section 109 of the BNS, 2023 (corresponding to the former Section 307 IPC).
A continuously harasses and humiliates his wife Z, in consequence of which Z commits suicide. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, abetment of suicide is punishable under:
aSection 108
bSection 111
cSection 106
dSection 306
Answer: A
Abetment of suicide is punishable under Section 108 of the BNS, 2023 (corresponding to the former Section 306 IPC).
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is NOT designated as 'grievous hurt' under Section 116?
aFracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
bA simple bruise that heals within three days
cEmasculation
dPermanent privation of the sight of either eye
Answer: B
Section 116 of the BNS, 2023 enumerates the kinds of hurt designated as grievous (emasculation, loss of sight, fracture/dislocation, etc.); a simple bruise healing within a few days is mere hurt, not grievous hurt.
Z is suddenly and gravely provoked by A's act and, deprived of self-control, instantly kills A. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, by virtue of the first exception to murder, the offence is reduced to culpable homicide not amounting to murder, the punishment for which is provided in:
aSection 304
bSection 105
cSection 101
dSection 103
Answer: B
Where the first exception (grave and sudden provocation) to Section 101 applies, the offence becomes culpable homicide not amounting to murder, punishable under Section 105 of the BNS, 2023 (corresponding to the former Section 304 IPC).
Q99Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, where the second appellate authority finds that the Public Hearing Officer failed without reasonable cause to provide an opportunity of hearing within time, it may impose a penalty which:
aShall not be less than Rs. 500 and not more than Rs. 5,000
bShall not be less than Rs. 250 and not more than Rs. 2,500
cShall not exceed Rs. 1,000
dShall be a fixed sum of Rs. 10,000
Answer: A
Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012 the second appellate authority may impose on the defaulting Public Hearing Officer a penalty not less than five hundred rupees and not more than five thousand rupees. The penalty is recoverable and may be deducted from the officer's salary.
Q100Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, a motion of no-confidence against the Chairperson of a Panchayati Raj Institution can be carried only if it is supported by not less than:
aOne-half of the total elected members
bThree-fourths of the total elected members
cA simple majority of the members present and voting
dTwo-thirds of the total elected members
Answer: B
Under Section 37 of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, the no-confidence motion is initiated on a notice signed by not less than one-third of the directly elected members and is carried only if supported by not less than three-fourths of the elected members of the institution.
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