Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test 7 — Questions & Solutions
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Fill in the blank with the correct article or determiner: "He is ______ honourable man whose integrity has never been questioned."
aa
bno article required
cthe
dan
Answer: D
The 'h' in 'honourable' is silent, so the word begins with a vowel sound and takes 'an'.
Q2English Language
Choose the correct passive form of: "The court has dismissed the petition."
aThe petition was dismissed by the court.
bThe petition is dismissed by the court.
cThe petition has been dismissed by the court.
dThe petition had been dismissed by the court.
Answer: C
Present perfect active 'has dismissed' becomes 'has been dismissed' in the passive voice.
Q3English Language
Select the option that correctly completes the sentence: "If the witness ______ the truth, the outcome would have been different."
awould tell
bhas told
ctold
dhad told
Answer: D
A past unreal (third) conditional requires 'had + past participle' in the if-clause: 'If the witness had told the truth...'.
Q4English Language
Choose the word that best fits: "The lawyer's ______ argument left no room for doubt and persuaded the entire bench."
aspurious
btenuous
ccogent
dnebulous
Answer: C
'Cogent' means clear, logical and convincing, which fits an argument that persuades. The other words denote weakness or falsity.
Q5English Language
Identify the part of speech of the underlined word: "The order was passed notwithstanding the objections raised by the defence."
aPreposition
bAdjective
cConjunction
dAdverb
Answer: A
Here 'notwithstanding' governs the noun phrase 'the objections' and functions as a preposition meaning 'in spite of'.
Q6English Language
Choose the word that is MOST NEARLY OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'ABROGATE'.
aRepeal
bEstablish
cNullify
dCancel
Answer: B
'Abrogate' means to formally abolish or annul a law; its antonym is 'establish' (to set up or enact). Repeal, cancel and nullify are synonyms.
Q7English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ____ the charge of theft for want of evidence.'
awith
bfrom
cof
dagainst
Answer: C
The verb 'acquit' is idiomatically followed by 'of' when naming the charge — 'acquitted of the charge'.
Q8English Language
Choose the word that is SYNONYMOUS with 'PERFUNCTORY'.
aEnthusiastic
bDiligent
cCareless
dThorough
Answer: C
'Perfunctory' means done routinely with little care or interest; 'careless' is its closest synonym, while thorough, enthusiastic and diligent are antonyms.
Q9English Language
Select the correctly spelt word.
aMaintainence
bMaintenence
cMaintainance
dMaintenance
Answer: D
The correct spelling is 'maintenance' — the 'tain' of 'maintain' changes to 'ten' in the noun form.
Q10English Language
Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom: 'To cry over spilt milk'.
aTo waste valuable resources
bTo complain about trivial matters
cTo weep bitterly in distress
dTo regret something that cannot now be undone
Answer: D
The idiom 'to cry over spilt milk' means to waste time regretting an irreversible loss or mistake.
Q11CrPC
During the search of a place under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Section 105 requires that the conduct of search and the preparation of the list of seized things and signing of such list be:
aForwarded to the High Court within twenty-four hours
bRecorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably mobile phone
cAttested by at least four independent witnesses
dDone only in the presence of a Judicial Magistrate
Answer: B
Section 105 BNSS is a new provision requiring that the search, seizure and preparation of the list of seized articles be recorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone, and forwarded to the Magistrate.
Which of the following statements regarding trials and proceedings under Section 530 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
aProceedings in electronic mode are permitted only with the consent of the accused in every case
bElectronic mode is permissible only at the appellate stage
cAll trials, inquiries and proceedings, including issuance and service of summons and recording of evidence, may be held in electronic mode
dOnly the examination of witnesses, and no other proceeding, may be held in electronic mode
Answer: C
Section 530 BNSS permits all trials, inquiries and proceedings, including the issuance, service and execution of summons and warrants, examination of complainant and witnesses, recording of evidence and appellate proceedings, to be held in electronic mode.
In a complaint case instituted otherwise than on a police report, before issuing process against the accused, the Magistrate is required to examine the complainant and the witnesses present on oath. This requirement is contained in:
aSection 223 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
bSection 175 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
cSection 210 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
dSection 190 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Answer: A
Section 223 BNSS (corresponding to Section 200 of the old CrPC) requires the Magistrate taking cognizance on a complaint to examine the complainant and witnesses on oath, and additionally provides that the accused be given an opportunity of being heard before cognizance.
Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the fifteen days of police custody of an accused:
aMust be taken in one continuous spell at the very commencement of detention
bMay be authorised in whole or in parts at any time during the initial forty or sixty days of the detention period
cCan be authorised only by the Court of Session
dCan never exceed three days in the aggregate
Answer: B
Section 187(3) BNSS allows the fifteen days of police custody to be granted in whole or in parts at any time during the initial forty days (out of sixty) or sixty days (out of ninety) of the detention period, departing from the earlier continuous-fifteen-days rule.
Under Section 35(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a police officer does not consider it necessary to arrest a person against whom a reasonable complaint of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment up to seven years exists, the officer shall:
aObtain prior sanction of the Superintendent of Police before recording the complaint
bIssue a notice directing the person to appear before him or at such place as may be specified
cRefer the matter to the Magistrate for an order under Section 175
dForthwith arrest the person and produce him before the Magistrate within 24 hours
Answer: B
Section 35(3) BNSS (corresponding to Section 41A CrPC) requires the police officer, where arrest is not necessary, to issue a written notice directing the person to appear; arrest is not permitted so long as he complies, unless reasons are recorded.
Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an accused becomes entitled to default (statutory) bail if the investigation is not completed within ninety days where the offence is punishable with:
aImprisonment up to three years
bDeath, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years
cFine only
dImprisonment up to seven years
Answer: B
Section 187(3) BNSS prescribes the ninety-day outer limit for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of not less than ten years; the limit is sixty days for other offences, on the expiry of which default bail accrues.
Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 provides that a first-time offender (one never previously convicted of any offence) shall be released on bond by the Court if he has undergone detention as an undertrial for a period extending up to:
aOne-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for such offence
bOne-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for such offence
cThe full maximum period of imprisonment specified for such offence
dOne-fourth of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for such offence
Answer: A
Under the first proviso to Section 479(1) BNSS, a first-time offender is to be released on bond after detention up to one-third of the maximum sentence, as against one-half for other undertrials.
A cognizable offence is committed within the jurisdiction of Police Station 'X' in Jodhpur, but the informant approaches Police Station 'Y' situated outside that jurisdiction. Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the officer in charge of Police Station 'Y':
aShall record it only as a non-cognizable entry in the station diary
bMay record the information only after obtaining the permission of the Magistrate
cShall register the information irrespective of the area where the offence is committed and forward it to the concerned police station (Zero FIR)
dMust refuse to record the information and direct the informant to the correct police station
Answer: C
Section 173(1) BNSS gives statutory recognition to the Zero FIR, allowing registration of a cognizable offence at any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, with subsequent transfer to the competent station.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a question which suggests the answer that the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is a leading question; such a question, if objected to by the adverse party, must NOT be asked in:
aRe-examination only, but freely in examination-in-chief
bAny examination whatsoever
cExamination-in-chief or re-examination, except with the permission of the Court, under Section 146
dCross-examination
Answer: C
Under Section 146 of the BSA, 2023, leading questions must not, if objected to by the adverse party, be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination except with the permission of the Court, though they may be asked in cross-examination.
A party's own witness turns hostile and begins to depose against the party calling him. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court may, in its discretion, permit that party to put questions to the witness which might be put in cross-examination, by virtue of:
aSection 157
bSection 138
cSection 142
dSection 146
Answer: A
Section 157 of the BSA, 2023 empowers the Court, in its discretion, to permit the party calling a witness to put to him any question that might be put in cross-examination by the adverse party (the 'hostile witness' provision).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with respect to the proof of any fact, the requirement as to the number of witnesses is that:
aThree witnesses are required in cases of capital offences
bThe number is to be fixed by the Court in each case
cNo particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact, under Section 139
dAt least two witnesses are required in every case
Answer: C
Section 139 of the BSA, 2023 provides that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact, reflecting the principle that evidence is weighed, not counted.
A is accused of murder. While in police custody, A tells the investigating officer that he had thrown the knife into a well, and the knife is consequently recovered from that well. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how much of A's statement is provable against him?
aOnly so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact discovered
bNothing, because every statement made in police custody is barred
cThe entire statement, as it led to recovery of the weapon
dThe whole statement, but only if a Magistrate was present
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023 (re-enacting the old Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) permits proof of only that part of the information which relates distinctly to the fact discovered. The accusatory or confessional surplus is inadmissible.
During investigation a confession is recorded from the accused while he is in the custody of a police officer. Under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, such confession can be proved against him only if it was made:
aIn the presence of a Gazetted Officer
bIn the immediate presence of a Magistrate
cIn the presence of two independent witnesses of the locality
dBefore the Superintendent of Police
Answer: B
Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023 bars proof of a confession made by a person while in the custody of a police officer unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. (Section 23(1) bars a confession made to a police officer.)
An accused, while being interrogated, confesses after the investigating officer holds out a promise that he will be made an approver and let off lightly. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, such a confession is:
aAdmissible against co-accused but not against the maker
bRelevant and admissible because it is voluntary in form
cIrrelevant, as it appears to have been caused by an inducement or promise having reference to the charge, proceeding from a person in authority
dAdmissible only if later corroborated by recovery
Answer: C
Section 22 of the BSA, 2023 renders a confession irrelevant in a criminal proceeding if it appears to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise having reference to the charge and proceeding from a person in authority.
A entrusts B, his agent, with goods to be sold on A's behalf. B dishonestly sells the goods and keeps the entire proceeds for himself. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, B is guilty of:
aTheft under Section 303
bCriminal breach of trust under Section 316
cExtortion under Section 308
dCheating under Section 318
Answer: B
Where property is entrusted and then dishonestly misappropriated or converted, the offence is criminal breach of trust under Section 316 BNS (formerly Section 405 IPC).
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the newly introduced offence of 'snatching' is dealt with by:
aSection 316 (Criminal breach of trust)
bSection 309 (Robbery)
cSection 304
dSection 303 (Theft)
Answer: C
Snatching is a fresh offence introduced by Section 304 of the BNS, 2023 (there was no separate IPC provision); theft is dealt with by Section 303 and robbery by Section 309.
A, B, C, D and E, a group of five persons, jointly beat Z to death on the ground that he belongs to a particular caste. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the specific provision attracting punishment with death or life imprisonment for such murder by a group is:
aSection 103(1)
bSection 103(2)
cSection 105
dSection 111
Answer: B
Section 103(2) of the BNS, 2023 specifically punishes murder committed by a group of five or more persons on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, with death or life imprisonment and fine.
Q29Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957, applications by a debtor for determination of debts are entertained by:
aThe civil court of the district
bThe Tehsildar having jurisdiction
cThe Collector of the district
dA Debt Relief Court constituted under the Act
Answer: D
The Act constitutes Debt Relief Courts, before which a debtor may apply for determination of his debts; the Debt Relief Court having jurisdiction over the area where he resides or earns his livelihood deals with such applications.
Q30Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
For the purposes of the Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957, the expression 'agriculture' does NOT include:
aBee farming and collecting honey
bHorticulture
cReserving land for fodder, grazing or thatching grass
dBreeding of cattle, camels, sheep or goats
Answer: A
The inclusive definition of 'agriculture' under the 1957 Act covers horticulture, breeding of livestock and reserving land for fodder/grazing/thatching grass, but does not extend to bee farming and collecting honey.
Q31Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, an instrument not duly stamped that is produced before a person having authority to receive evidence is liable to be:
aImpounded by that person
bForwarded straightaway to the Rajasthan High Court for adjudication
cTreated as void and destroyed
dReturned at once to the party with a direction to get it stamped afresh
Answer: A
Section 33 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 obliges every person having by law or consent of parties authority to receive evidence, and every public officer, to impound an instrument that is not duly stamped when it is produced or comes before him. It is not destroyed but impounded for realisation of duty and penalty.
Q32Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
A person aggrieved by an order of the Collector under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 may file a revision under Section 65 of the Act before the:
aState Government
bDistrict and Sessions Judge
cChief Controlling Revenue Authority
dInspector General of Registration and Stamps
Answer: C
Section 65 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 provides that any person aggrieved by an order of the Collector may apply for revision to the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority. The revisional power is thus vested in the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority, not the State Government or the High Court.
While conducting the preliminary assessment under Section 15 of the JJ Act, 2015, the Board is NOT required to assess:
aThe circumstances in which the child allegedly committed the offence
bThe mental capacity of the child to commit such offence
cThe financial capacity of the child to pay compensation
dThe ability of the child to understand the consequences of the offence
Answer: C
Section 15 confines the preliminary assessment to the child's mental and physical capacity to commit the offence, ability to understand its consequences, and the circumstances of the alleged offence. The Board may take the assistance of psychologists or experts.
An appeal against an order of the Juvenile Justice Board passed under Section 15 (preliminary assessment) of the JJ Act, 2015 lies to the Court of Sessions, and under Section 101 such appeal must be preferred within:
aSeven days from the date of the order
bFifteen days from the date of the order
cSixty days from the date of the order
dThirty days from the date of the order
Answer: D
Section 101(1) prescribes a thirty-day limitation for appeals against orders of the Board or Committee, and Section 101(2) provides a specific appeal to the Court of Sessions against a preliminary assessment order under Section 15, with the appellate court empowered to take expert assistance.
Where the Board, after preliminary assessment under Section 15, finds that a child above sixteen who has committed a heinous offence needs to be tried as an adult, it shall, under Section 18(3) of the JJ Act, 2015:
aCommit the case directly to the High Court
bItself try the child following the procedure under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
cReturn the charge-sheet to the investigating officer
dTransfer the trial of the case to the Children's Court having jurisdiction to try such offences
Answer: D
Section 18(3) provides that where the Board, after preliminary assessment under Section 15, is satisfied that there is a need for trial of the child as an adult, it may transfer the trial of the case to the Children's Court having jurisdiction.
In Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma, (2020) 9 SCC 1, the Supreme Court held that, in order for a daughter to claim coparcenary rights under the amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
athe daughter must be unmarried as on 9.9.2005
bthe daughter must have been born after 9.9.2005
cthe father coparcener must have been alive on 9.9.2005
dit is not necessary that the father coparcener should be living as on 9.9.2005, since the right is by birth
Answer: D
The Supreme Court held that the coparcenary right of the daughter is by birth, so it is not necessary that the father coparcener be living as on 9.9.2005; the daughter born earlier can claim the right with effect from that date, subject to the statutory savings.
Under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the property of a male Hindu dying intestate devolves in which order?
aFirstly on Class II heirs, then Class I heirs, then cognates, then agnates
bFirstly on Class I heirs, then Class II heirs, then agnates, then cognates
cFirstly on agnates, then cognates, then Class I heirs, then Class II heirs
dEqually among all heirs specified in the Schedule
Answer: B
Section 8 provides that the property devolves firstly upon the heirs in Class I of the Schedule; if none, then upon Class II heirs; failing both, upon agnates; and lastly upon cognates of the deceased.
Which of the following relatives is NOT a Class I heir under the Schedule to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
aMother of the intestate
bFather of the intestate
cWidow of the intestate
dSon of a predeceased son of the intestate
Answer: B
The father of the intestate is a Class II heir, not a Class I heir. The widow, mother and son of a predeceased son all figure among the Class I heirs in the Schedule.
A second appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only if:
athe case involves a substantial question of law
bthere is an error of fact apparent on the record
cthe lower appellate court reversed the trial court's finding
dthe value of the subject-matter exceeds one lakh rupees
Answer: A
Section 100 CPC, as substituted by the 1976 Amendment, permits a second appeal to the High Court only where the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated by the court.
The doctrine that the court has inherent power to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of court is contained in which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSection 151
bSection 153
cSection 144
dSection 148
Answer: A
Section 151 CPC preserves the inherent powers of the court to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court.
Under Order I Rule 10(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court may strike out or add parties:
aonly with the consent of all existing parties
bonly on the application of the plaintiff
conly before the settlement of issues
dat any stage of the proceedings, either upon or without the application of either party
Answer: D
Order I Rule 10(2) CPC empowers the court, at any stage of the proceedings, either upon or without the application of either party, to order that the name of any improperly joined party be struck out or that a necessary party be added.
In Divisional Personnel Officer, Southern Railway v. T.R. Challappan, AIR 1975 SC 2216, the Supreme Court held that the benefit of Section 12 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 (removal of disqualification):
abars any departmental enquiry in every case
bwipes out the conviction itself for all purposes
cdoes not take away the conduct or the antecedents of the employee, so departmental disciplinary action for misconduct is not barred
dapplies only to offences under the Indian Penal Code
Answer: C
In T.R. Challappan the Court held that Section 12 removes statutory disqualifications attaching to conviction but does not obliterate the misconduct itself, so the employer may still take disciplinary action on the conduct.
Under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, when a court releases an offender on probation of good conduct, the bond to appear and receive sentence when called upon may be for such period as the court may direct, but:
anot exceeding one year
bnot exceeding two years
cnot exceeding three years
dnot exceeding five years
Answer: C
Section 4(1) permits release on a bond, with or without sureties, to appear and receive sentence when called upon during such period 'not exceeding three years' as the court may direct.
Which of the following is correctly excepted from compulsory registration by Section 17(2) of the Registration Act, 1908, even though it may affect immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards?
aA certificate of sale granted to the purchaser of property sold by public auction by a civil or revenue officer
bAn instrument of gift of immovable property
cA sale deed of immovable property
dA lease reserving a yearly rent
Answer: A
Section 17(2)(xii) excepts from clauses (b) and (c) of Section 17(1) any certificate of sale granted to a purchaser of property sold by public auction by a civil or revenue officer; gifts, sale deeds and yearly-rent leases remain compulsorily registrable.
Under the Registration Act, 1908, no document (other than a will) shall be accepted for registration unless presented to the proper officer within a period from the date of its execution of:
aFour months
bEight months
cThree months
dSix months
Answer: A
Section 23 of the Registration Act, 1908 requires every document, other than a will, to be presented for registration within four months from the date of its execution. A will may be presented at any time.
Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, dealing with the extent of judicial intervention, provides that notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, in matters governed by Part I:
athe civil court retains concurrent jurisdiction over the dispute
bno judicial authority shall intervene except where so provided in Part I
cjudicial intervention is permissible only with the consent of the arbitral tribunal
da judicial authority may intervene at any stage of the arbitral proceedings
Answer: B
Section 5 limits judicial intervention by providing that no judicial authority shall intervene in matters governed by Part I except where so provided in that Part, reflecting the Act's policy of minimal court interference.
Under Section 34(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an application for setting aside an arbitral award may be entertained by the Court within a further period beyond the prescribed three months, on showing sufficient cause, of:
aSixty days, but not thereafter
bSuch period as the Court in its discretion may allow
cThirty days, but not thereafter
dNinety days, but not thereafter
Answer: C
Section 34(3) bars an application made after three months from receipt of the award, though the Court may entertain it within a further period of thirty days on sufficient cause, but not thereafter. The thirty-day extension is the absolute outer limit.
The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 contains a non-obstante clause giving its provisions overriding effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law. This overriding effect is provided by:
aSection 19 of the Act
bSection 20 of the Act
cSection 22 of the Act
dSection 21 of the Act
Answer: B
Section 20 provides that the provisions of the Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force.
Under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, for the purpose of providing speedy trial, a 'Special Court' specified under Section 14 is:
aA Court of the Chief Judicial Magistrate of the district
bA Court of Session specified by the State Government with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court
cA Court of Metropolitan Magistrate notified by the Central Government
dA separate court constituted afresh independent of the existing courts of session
Answer: B
Section 14 provides that the State Government, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, shall, by notification, specify a Court of Session to be a Special Court (or establish an Exclusive Special Court) to try offences under the Act for speedy trial. The Special Court is therefore a designated Court of Session, not a newly created court.
In Attorney General for India v. Satish (2021), the Supreme Court, while reversing the 'skin-to-skin' ruling of the Bombay High Court, held that the most important ingredient for constituting the offence of sexual assault under Section 7 of the POCSO Act is:
aPenetration of any kind
bSexual intent, and not the act of skin-to-skin contact
cDirect skin-to-skin contact
dThe age of the accused
Answer: B
The Supreme Court held that 'sexual intent' is the crucial ingredient of Section 7, and that the touching of a child's sexual parts (or any physical contact with sexual intent) amounts to sexual assault irrespective of whether it is skin-to-skin.
Under Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, the expression 'child' means any person below the age of:
aSixteen years
bTwenty-one years
cEighteen years
dFifteen years
Answer: C
Section 2(1)(d) defines 'child' as any person below the age of eighteen years; the definition is uniform and does not vary with the gender of the victim.
Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the authority empowered to constitute Rent Tribunals by notification is:
athe High Court of Rajasthan
bthe Chief Justice of the High Court
cthe District Collector
dthe State Government
Answer: D
Under Section 13, the State Government constitutes such number of Rent Tribunals as it considers necessary by notification, while the Presiding Officer is appointed by the High Court.
Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord may apply for eviction of a tenant on the ground of non-payment of rent only where the tenant has neither paid nor tendered the amount of rent due for a period of, and has failed to pay arrears within the statutory notice period of:
asix months' rent; sixty days' notice
bfour months' rent; thirty days' notice
cthree months' rent; one month's notice
dtwo months' rent; fifteen days' notice
Answer: B
Section 9 of the Act permits eviction for default where the tenant has not paid rent due for four months and, after a notice by registered post, fails to pay the arrears within thirty days.
Q54Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
The expression 'motor vehicle' is defined under which sub-section of Section 2 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?
aSection 2(28)
bSection 2(30)
cSection 2(47)
dSection 2(8)
Answer: A
Section 2(28) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 defines 'motor vehicle' or 'vehicle' as any mechanically propelled vehicle adapted for use upon roads, with stated exclusions such as vehicles running on fixed rails.
Q55Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
Under Section 135 of the Electricity Act, 2003, a person who dishonestly abstracts, consumes or uses electricity by tampering with a meter is liable, on first conviction in respect of a load not exceeding 10 kW, to be punished with:
aFine only, which shall not be less than six times the financial gain on account of such theft
bImprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both, with no minimum fine prescribed
cImprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both, and the fine shall not be less than three times the financial gain on account of such theft
dImprisonment up to five years and a mandatory minimum fine of ten thousand rupees
Answer: C
Section 135(1) makes theft of electricity punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both; for a first conviction where the load is up to 10 kW the fine shall not be less than three times the financial gain on account of such theft.
An offence punishable under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is, by virtue of Section 147 of the Act:
aCognizable and non-bailable
bNon-compoundable in every case
cCompoundable
dTriable exclusively by the Court of Session
Answer: C
Section 147, a non-obstante provision overriding the Code of Criminal Procedure, declares every offence punishable under the Negotiable Instruments Act to be compoundable.
Under the proviso to Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, after the cheque is returned by the bank unpaid, the payee or holder in due course must make a demand for payment by giving notice in writing to the drawer within:
aFifteen days of receiving information from the bank regarding the return of the cheque as unpaid
bThree months of the cheque being drawn
cForty-five days of the cheque being drawn
dThirty days of receiving information from the bank regarding the return of the cheque as unpaid
Answer: D
Clause (b) of the proviso to Section 138 requires the demand notice to be made within thirty days of receipt of information from the bank that the cheque was returned unpaid (the period was raised from 15 to 30 days). The drawer then gets 15 days to pay under clause (c).
Where a contravention under the Information Technology Act, 2000 is committed by a company, every person who at the time of the contravention was in charge of and responsible to the company for the conduct of its business is deemed guilty under Section 85, unless he proves that:
aHe had resigned before the proceedings began
bThe contravention took place without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent it
cThe company had a turnover below one crore rupees
dHe was not a director of the company
Answer: B
Section 85 fixes vicarious liability on persons in charge of a company, but provides a defence where the person proves the contravention occurred without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent it.
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a person who commits the offence of cyber terrorism is liable to be punished with:
aImprisonment which may extend to three years and fine
bImprisonment which may extend to ten years only
cImprisonment which may extend to seven years and fine of ten lakh rupees
dImprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life
Answer: D
Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000 makes cyber terrorism punishable with imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life, the most stringent penalty under the Act.
In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), the Supreme Court struck down Clause (4) of Article 329-A primarily on the ground that it violated:
athe doctrine of pleasure
bthe doctrine of colourable legislation
cthe basic structure of the Constitution, particularly free and fair elections and the rule of law
dthe rule against double jeopardy
Answer: C
The Court applied the basic structure doctrine to a constitutional amendment for the first time, striking down Article 329-A(4) as it violated free and fair elections, judicial review and the rule of law.
Under Article 142(1) of the Constitution of India, a decree passed or order made by the Supreme Court for doing complete justice in a cause or matter pending before it shall be enforceable:
aOnly after confirmation by the High Court concerned
bOnly within the State where the cause of action arose
cOnly with the prior sanction of the President
dThroughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament
Answer: D
Article 142(1) empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decree or order as is necessary for doing complete justice, and such decree/order is enforceable throughout the territory of India in the manner prescribed by or under a law made by Parliament (or, until then, as the President may by order prescribe).
Under the NDPS Act, 1985, offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of more than three years are, by virtue of Section 36A, triable by:
aThe Court of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
bAn Executive Magistrate
cThe High Court in its original jurisdiction
dA Special Court constituted under Section 36 of the Act
Answer: D
Section 36 empowers the Government to constitute Special Courts, and Section 36A provides that offences punishable with imprisonment for more than three years shall be tried only by such Special Court.
Under Section 37 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, for offences involving commercial quantity, in addition to the conditions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, an accused shall not be released on bail unless the court is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for believing:
athat he is a first-time offender and is gainfully employed
bthat the investigating officer has no objection to his release
cthat he will deposit the fine amount in advance with the court
dthat he is not guilty of such offence and that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail
Answer: D
Section 37 makes offences under the Act cognizable and, for commercial quantity, imposes twin conditions for bail: the court must be satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty and that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.
Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 allows exclusion of the time spent in prosecuting another civil proceeding only where that earlier proceeding was prosecuted:
aBefore any court, irrespective of good faith.
bOnly where the earlier proceeding was decided on merits.
cWith good faith in a court which, from defect of jurisdiction or other like cause, was unable to entertain it.
dOnly before a criminal court of competent jurisdiction.
Answer: C
Section 14 excludes time spent bona fide and with due diligence in prosecuting another civil proceeding relating to the same matter in a court that was unable to entertain it due to defect of jurisdiction or other like cause.
Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit instituted after the prescribed period of limitation shall be:
aDecided on merits, limitation being merely a procedural irregularity
bDismissed, although limitation has not been set up as a defence
cDismissed only if the defendant pleads limitation as a defence
dStayed until the plaintiff explains the delay
Answer: B
Section 3 makes the bar of limitation mandatory and casts a duty on the court to dismiss a time-barred suit, appeal or application even where limitation has not been set up as a defence.
A gift is made and accepted, and thereafter the donor purports to revoke it on the ground that he has changed his mind. Under Section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, such a gift:
aCannot be revoked merely at the will of the donor; a gift revocable wholly or in part at the mere pleasure of the donor is void
bCan always be revoked within three years of the date of the gift
cCan be revoked only with the consent of the donee's legal heirs
dCan be revoked at the mere will of the donor at any time
Answer: A
Under Section 126, a gift may be revoked only on grounds (other than failure of consideration) on which a contract may be rescinded, or by an agreed condition not depending on the donor's will. A gift revocable at the mere pleasure of the donor is void.
'A' files a suit against 'B' for specific performance of an agreement to sell a house. During the pendency of the suit, 'B' sells the same house to 'C', who has no notice of the suit. Which of the following correctly states the position under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
aThe sale to 'C' is voidable at the option of 'A'
bThe sale to 'C' is valid but 'C' is bound by the decree passed in the pending suit
cThe sale to 'C' is wholly unaffected because 'C' had no notice of the suit
dThe sale to 'C' is void ab initio
Answer: B
Under the doctrine of lis pendens in Section 52, a transfer pendente lite is not void; it remains valid inter partes but the transferee takes the property subject to and bound by the result of the pending suit, whether or not he had notice.
The Latin maxim 'audi alteram partem', which is a foundational rule of practice and natural justice frequently applied by courts, means:
ahear the other side / let the other party also be heard
ban act of the court shall prejudice no one
cno one shall be a judge in his own cause
dhe who comes to equity must come with clean hands
Answer: A
'Audi alteram partem' means 'hear the other side' — the principle that no one should be condemned unheard; the rule against bias is captured by the separate maxim 'nemo judex in causa sua'.
A police officer arrests a person without a warrant and without an order of a Magistrate on credible information that he has committed a cognizable offence. Under Section 35 of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the officer is required to:
aProduce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 12 hours
bServe a notice of appearance in every case before arresting
cObtain prior sanction of the Superintendent of Police before effecting the arrest
dRecord his reasons in writing for making, or not making, such arrest
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 35(1) BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 41 CrPC) requires the police officer to record in writing the reasons for making, or not making, the arrest in cases falling under clause (b). No prior SP sanction is needed.
S sells goods to B but remains in possession of them; S then sells and delivers the same goods to C, who buys in good faith and without notice of the earlier sale. Under Section 30(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, C acquires:
aA title voidable at the option of B
bNo title, as S had already sold to B
cTitle only to the extent of the price he paid
dA good title to the goods as against B
Answer: D
Section 30(1) is an exception to nemo dat: where a seller continues in possession after sale and transfers the goods to a bona fide purchaser without notice, that transfer is as valid as if expressly authorised by the first buyer.
Under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, the aggrieved party is entitled to receive reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named:
aonly where the breach is wilful and dishonest
bwhether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused by the breach
conly if actual loss or damage is strictly proved
donly if the contract is in writing and registered
Answer: B
Section 74 entitles the party complaining of the breach to reasonable compensation not exceeding the sum named, whether or not actual damage or loss is proved; the named sum operates as an upper ceiling.
Under Section 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, an appeal against an order of the Magistrate lies to the Court of Session and must be preferred within:
aThirty days from the date on which the order is served on the aggrieved person or the respondent, whichever is later
bSixty days from the date the order is pronounced
cForty-five days from the date of knowledge of the order
dNinety days from the date of the order
Answer: A
Section 29 provides that an appeal shall lie to the Court of Session within thirty days from the date on which the order made by the Magistrate is served on the aggrieved person or the respondent, whichever is later.
On the death of the husband, the period of iddat to be observed by a Muslim widow (who is not pregnant) is:
aFour months and ten days
bSix months
cThree menstrual courses
dThree lunar months
Answer: A
Where a marriage is dissolved by the death of the husband, the widow (if not pregnant) must observe iddat for four months and ten days, as distinguished from the iddat following divorce.
Under the Indian Easements Act, 1882, which of the following is an essential characteristic of an easement as flowing from its definition in Section 4?
aIt is a right which the owner of the dominant heritage possesses over the soil of his own land
bIt is a personal right unconnected with the ownership of any land
cIt is a right enjoyed by the owner of the dominant heritage for the beneficial enjoyment of that heritage over the servient heritage which is not his own
dIt may exist independently of any dominant heritage
Answer: C
Section 4 defines an easement as a right which the owner or occupier of certain land (dominant heritage) possesses, for the beneficial enjoyment of that land, to do or prevent something in respect of other land (servient heritage) not his own.
Under the proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a court shall NOT make a declaration of legal character or right where the plaintiff:
aIs a minor acting through a guardian
bSeeks declaration against the Government
cHas already obtained an injunction in an earlier suit
dBeing able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 34 bars a bare declaratory decree where the plaintiff, being able to seek further (consequential) relief, omits to do so, thereby preventing multiplicity of suits.
Subject to a contract between the partners, a firm constituted for a fixed term is dissolved by the expiry of that term under which provision of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
aSection 41
bSection 40
cSection 42
dSection 43
Answer: C
Section 42 provides for dissolution on the happening of certain contingencies, including dissolution of a firm constituted for a fixed term by the expiry of that term, subject to contract between the partners.
In relation to a State Legal Services Authority constituted under Section 6 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the Patron-in-Chief is:
aThe Advocate General of the State
bThe Chief Justice of the High Court
cThe Chief Minister of the State
dThe Governor of the State
Answer: B
Under Section 6, the Chief Justice of the High Court is the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Services Authority, while a serving or retired Judge of the High Court is nominated as its Executive Chairman.
Where a plaint is rejected and the plaintiff later seeks a refund of the court fee paid, the relevant provision of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961 is:
aSection 11 (Decision as to proper fee)
bSection 47 (Appeals)
cSection 62 (Refund in cases of remand)
dSection 61 (Refund in cases of rejection of plaint etc.)
Answer: D
Section 61 ('Refund in cases of rejection of plaint etc.') empowers the court to direct refund of the whole or part of the fee where a plaint is rejected, whereas remand refunds fall under Section 62.
The maxim 'Ex turpi causa non oritur actio' bars a claim where:
aThe cause of action arises out of the plaintiff's own illegal or immoral act
bThe same matter has already been adjudicated
cThe plaintiff has suffered damage without legal injury
dThe plaintiff consented to the risk of harm
Answer: A
'Ex turpi causa non oritur actio' means no action arises from an illegal or immoral cause; a court will not assist a plaintiff whose claim is founded on his own wrongdoing.
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word: 'The witness gave a ____ account of the incident, leaving no detail out.'
avague
bgraphic
ccursory
dterse
Answer: B
'Graphic' means vividly detailed, fitting 'leaving no detail out'. Cursory, terse and vague all suggest brevity or lack of detail.
Q82English Language
Choose the correct passive form of: 'The court will deliver the judgment tomorrow.'
aThe judgment would be delivered by the court tomorrow.
bThe judgment is delivered by the court tomorrow.
cThe judgment will be delivered by the court tomorrow.
dThe judgment will deliver by the court tomorrow.
Answer: C
Simple future active 'will deliver' becomes 'will be + past participle' in the passive, giving 'will be delivered'.
Q83English Language
Select the word that correctly completes the analogy: 'PLAINTIFF : DEFENDANT :: PROSECUTION : ____'.
aJudge
bWitness
cAdvocate
dAccused
Answer: D
A plaintiff opposes a defendant in a civil suit; correspondingly, the prosecution opposes the accused in a criminal trial.
Q84English Language
Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'One of the most important factor (a)/ that influences a verdict (b)/ is the credibility (c)/ of the witness. (d)'
aOne of the most important factor
bof the witness.
cis the credibility
dthat influences a verdict
Answer: A
After 'one of the most important', the noun must be plural — it should read 'one of the most important factors'.
Q85English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct article or determiner: 'It was such ____ unprecedented decision that even senior counsel were taken aback.'
aan
ba
cno article
dthe
Answer: A
'Unprecedented' begins with a vowel sound, so the indefinite article 'an' is required after 'such'.
Q86English Language
Choose the option that correctly turns the sentence into reported speech: He said, "I am drafting the petition now."
aHe said that I was drafting the petition then.
bHe said that he had drafted the petition now.
cHe said that he is drafting the petition now.
dHe said that he was drafting the petition then.
Answer: D
In reported speech the present continuous 'am drafting' shifts to past continuous 'was drafting', and 'now' becomes 'then'.
Q87English Language
Select the word that means 'a person who is fluent in or uses many languages'.
aDemagogue
bPundit
cPolyglot
dPedagogue
Answer: C
A 'polyglot' is a person who knows and is able to use several languages. A pedagogue is a teacher and a demagogue is a rabble-rousing leader.
Q88English Language
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: "Neither the lawyers nor the judge _____ aware that the witness had already left the court."
awas
bare
chave been
dwere
Answer: A
With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. Here the nearer noun 'judge' is singular, so the singular verb 'was' is correct.
Q89English Language
Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: "One of the witnesses (a)/ who were examined (b)/ have turned hostile (c)/ during the trial. (d)"
aOne of the witnesses
bwho were examined
cduring the trial
dhave turned hostile
Answer: D
The subject of the main clause is 'One' (singular), so the verb must be 'has turned', not 'have turned'.
Q90English Language
Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE':
aIncriminate
bAbsolve
cAcquit
dPardon
Answer: A
'Exonerate' means to clear of blame; its antonym is 'incriminate', meaning to make someone appear guilty.
Q91English Language
Select the correct meaning of the idiom: 'to throw in the towel'.
aTo admit defeat and give up
bTo clean up thoroughly
cTo start afresh
dTo insult someone
Answer: A
'To throw in the towel' is an idiom borrowed from boxing meaning to surrender or admit defeat.
Q92English Language
Choose the word that is the synonym of 'PERSPICACIOUS':
aStubborn
bShrewd
cGenerous
dSweaty
Answer: B
'Perspicacious' means having keen insight or being mentally sharp, i.e., shrewd.
Q93English Language
Change the following into indirect speech: He said, "I will appear before the court tomorrow."
aHe said that he would appear before the court the next day.
bHe said that he will appear before the court the next day.
cHe said that I would appear before the court tomorrow.
dHe said that he will appear before the court tomorrow.
Answer: A
In indirect speech 'will' becomes 'would' and 'tomorrow' becomes 'the next day'.
Q94English Language
Select the option that best replaces the underlined phrase: "The contract was rendered null and void because both parties had failed _____ their obligations."
afor discharging
bat discharging
cin discharging
dto discharge
Answer: D
'Fail' is followed by the to-infinitive: 'failed to discharge'.
Q95English Language
Choose the one-word substitute for: 'A statement that is taken to be true without proof, used as a starting point.'
aTheorem
bAxiom
cCorollary
dHypothesis
Answer: B
An 'axiom' is a self-evident truth or premise accepted without proof.
Q96CrPC
Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, it is mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence and for the process to be videographed, in respect of any offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of:
aThree years or more
bFive years or more
cSeven years or more
dTen years or more
Answer: C
Section 176(3) BNSS mandates that for offences punishable with seven years or more, the officer in charge shall cause a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and videograph the collection of evidence.
Under Section 230 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in a case instituted on a police report the Magistrate is required to supply to the accused (and the victim, if represented) copies of the police report and other documents without delay, and in any event not later than:
aFourteen days from the date of production or appearance of the accused
bThirty days from the filing of the charge-sheet
cThe date of framing of the charge
dSeven days from the date of appearance of the accused
Answer: A
Section 230 BNSS imposes an outer limit of fourteen days from the production or appearance of the accused for furnishing the police report, FIR, statements and other documents, a new time-bound safeguard absent in the old Section 207 CrPC.
Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death may submit a mercy petition to the President of India or the Governor of the State within a period of:
aThirty days from the date the jail Superintendent informs him of the dismissal of his appeal or confirmation of sentence
bSeven days from the date of confirmation of the sentence
cNinety days from the date of arrest
dSixty days from the date of the trial court's judgment
Answer: A
Section 472(1) BNSS, a new provision, prescribes a thirty-day window from the date the jail Superintendent communicates dismissal of the appeal/SLP or confirmation of the death sentence, for filing a mercy petition.
Plea bargaining under Sections 289 to 300 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is NOT available in respect of an offence:
aPunishable with imprisonment up to three years
bPunishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years, or committed against a woman or a child below eighteen years
cFor which the accused is a first-time offender
dTriable by a Magistrate of the first class
Answer: B
Plea bargaining under BNSS is barred for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment exceeding seven years, offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, and offences committed against a woman or a child below eighteen.
An order for monthly maintenance in favour of a wife, child or parent who is unable to maintain himself or herself, against a person having sufficient means who neglects them, is passed by a Magistrate under which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023:
aSection 125
bSection 144
cSection 482
dSection 164
Answer: B
Section 144 BNSS re-enacts the old Section 125 CrPC, empowering a Magistrate to order maintenance for wives, children and parents unable to maintain themselves.
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