Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test 3 — Questions & Solutions
Every question from this prelims mock with the correct answer and a detailed, source-backed solution. Free to read. Want the real exam feel — a timer, instant scoring, and a subject-wise weakness report? Take it as a test.
100
Questions
33
Subjects
+ solutions
Every question
Take this as a timed mock test — instant score + subject-wise analytics. First mock free, then ₹999/year for unlimited.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for the offence of rape (in cases not otherwise specially provided for) is rigorous imprisonment for a term which:
aShall not be less than ten years but may extend to imprisonment for life
bShall not be less than seven years
cShall not be less than twenty years
dMay extend to ten years only
Answer: A
Section 64 BNS prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years, which may extend to imprisonment for life, and also fine, for the ordinary offence of rape (rape being defined in Section 63 BNS).
The offence of organised crime, introduced for the first time as a distinct offence in the general criminal code, finds place in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:
aSection 113
bSection 152
cSection 109
dSection 111
Answer: D
Section 111 BNS deals with organised crime, while Section 112 covers petty organised crime and Section 113 covers terrorist acts; these are new offences not present in the IPC.
A entrusts B with goods for safe keeping. B dishonestly converts the goods to his own use. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, B has committed the offence of:
aCheating under Section 318
bCriminal breach of trust under Section 316
cTheft under Section 303
dExtortion under Section 308
Answer: B
Criminal breach of trust (entrustment of property followed by dishonest misappropriation or conversion) is dealt with under Section 316 BNS, which consolidates the provisions of Sections 405-409 IPC.
Q4Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, the penalty that the second appellate authority may impose on a Public Hearing Officer for failing to provide an opportunity of hearing within the stipulated time limit, without sufficient cause, is:
aNot less than Rs. 250 but not exceeding Rs. 2,500
bNot less than Rs. 1,000 but not exceeding Rs. 10,000
cNot less than Rs. 500 but not exceeding Rs. 5,000
dA fixed penalty of Rs. 5,000
Answer: C
Section 7(1) of the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012 empowers the second appellate authority to impose a penalty which shall not be less than five hundred rupees but shall not exceed five thousand rupees, recoverable from the salary of the Public Hearing Officer.
Q5Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
The definition of 'complaint' under Section 2(a) of the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012 does NOT include a grievance relating to:
aDelay in providing a benefit under a State scheme
bAny matter under the Right to Information Act, 2005, or service matters of a public servant
cFailure in the functioning of a public authority
dViolation of any law in force in the State
Answer: B
Section 2(a) excludes from 'complaint' grievances relating to service matters of a public servant, any matter in which a Court or Tribunal has jurisdiction, matters under the Right to Information Act, 2005, and services notified under the Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011.
Q6Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, where an agriculturist creates a charge on land in favour of a bank by a declaration under Section 6, with respect to the Registration Act, 1908 such charge:
aMust be compulsorily registered under the Registration Act, 1908
bIs wholly exempt and need not even be communicated to the Sub-Registrar
cShall be deemed to have been duly registered under Section 9, notwithstanding the Registration Act, 1908
dIs void unless attested by two witnesses and registered
Answer: C
Section 9 of the Act provides that, notwithstanding the Registration Act, 1908, a charge created by declaration under Section 6 shall be deemed to be duly registered, provided the bank sends a certified copy to the Sub-Registrar within the stipulated time by registered post acknowledgement due.
Q7Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under Section 11 of the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, an agriculturist who has availed financial assistance from a bank by creating a charge or mortgage, so long as the assistance remains outstanding:
aCannot lease or create fresh tenancy rights on the land without the prior written permission of the bank; any lease in contravention is void
bIs barred from cultivating the land himself
cMay freely lease or create tenancy rights on the land without any restriction
dMay lease the land only with the permission of the Tehsildar
Answer: A
Section 11(1) restricts the agriculturist borrower from leasing or creating fresh tenancy rights without the prior written permission of the bank, and Section 11(2) declares any lease or tenancy created in contravention to be void.
Under Section 14 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, the inquiry by the Juvenile Justice Board into a child in conflict with law shall ordinarily be completed within a period of:
afour months from the date of first production, extendable for reasons recorded
bsix months from the date of first production, with no extension
ctwo months from the date of first production, extendable to four months
dninety days from the date of apprehension
Answer: A
Section 14 requires the inquiry to be completed within four months from the date of first production of the child, which may be extended by the Board after recording reasons; for petty offences the proceedings stand terminated if not completed within six months.
Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, the Juvenile Justice Board conducts a preliminary assessment under Section 15 in respect of a child who:
ais alleged to have committed any serious offence irrespective of age
bis below eighteen years and has committed a petty offence
chas completed or is above sixteen years of age and is alleged to have committed a heinous offence
dhas committed any offence and is below sixteen years of age
Answer: C
Section 15 provides for a preliminary assessment only where a child who has completed or is above sixteen years of age is alleged to have committed a heinous offence, to assess his mental and physical capacity, ability to understand the consequences, and the circumstances of the offence.
The preliminary assessment under Section 15 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 is:
aa trial to determine guilt of the child
ba determination of the quantum of sentence
cnot a trial, but only an assessment of the child's mental and physical capacity to commit and understand the consequences of the offence
da conviction order disguised as an assessment
Answer: C
The Explanation to Section 15 expressly clarifies that the preliminary assessment is not a trial but is to assess the child's capacity to commit and understand the consequences of the alleged offence; the Board may take the assistance of experienced psychologists or psycho-social workers.
Under Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, children born of a marriage which is null and void under Section 11:
aAre illegitimate and have no right of inheritance whatsoever
bAre deemed legitimate and may inherit the property of their parents, but not of any other relation
cAre legitimate and entitled to inherit from all coparceners
dAcquire legitimacy only if the marriage is later validated by a court
Answer: B
Section 16 deems children of void and voidable marriages to be legitimate, but Section 16(3) restricts their inheritance rights to the property of their parents and confers no rights in the property of any other person.
Under Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired before or after the commencement of the Act, is:
aHeld only as stridhana incapable of alienation
bHeld in trust for her husband's heirs
cHeld by her as a limited estate which reverts on her death
dHeld by her as a full owner and not as a limited owner
Answer: D
Section 14(1) converts a female Hindu's limited ownership into absolute ownership, declaring she holds such property as full owner and not as a limited owner. Section 14(2) carves out an exception for property acquired under an instrument prescribing a restricted estate.
On the death of a male Hindu dying intestate, if he leaves behind a widow, a son, and his mother, the property devolving under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 will:
aGo entirely to the son as the only male Class I heir
bDevolve upon Class II heirs as no Class I heir exists
cDevolve equally upon the widow, son and mother as Class I heirs
dGo half to the widow and half to the son, excluding the mother
Answer: C
Mother, widow and son are all Class I heirs in the Schedule to the Act. Under Section 10, each takes one share, so the property is divided equally among the three.
The power of a court to enlarge the time fixed or granted for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, even though the period originally fixed has expired, is contained in:
aSection 152
bSection 153
cSection 151
dSection 148
Answer: D
Section 148 empowers the court, in its discretion, to enlarge the period fixed or granted for doing any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, even after expiry of the originally fixed period, subject to the statutory ceiling of thirty days.
An application for setting aside an ex parte decree passed against a defendant is made under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aOrder VIII Rule 10
bOrder IX Rule 7
cOrder IX Rule 9
dOrder IX Rule 13
Answer: D
Order IX Rule 13 enables a defendant against whom an ex parte decree is passed to apply to the court to set it aside on showing sufficient cause for non-appearance or non-service of summons.
Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, after the commencement of trial, no application for amendment of pleadings shall be allowed unless the court comes to the conclusion that:
athe amendment relates only to a clerical error
bin spite of due diligence the party could not have raised the matter before the commencement of trial
cthe suit has not yet been listed for final arguments
dthe opposite party consents to the amendment
Answer: B
The proviso to Order VI Rule 17 bars amendment after trial has commenced unless the court concludes that in spite of due diligence the party could not have raised the matter before the commencement of trial.
Under Section 6 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the special protection against imprisonment is available to an offender who, at the relevant time, is:
aunder eighteen years of age
bunder sixteen years of age
cunder twenty-five years of age
dunder twenty-one years of age
Answer: D
Section 6 restricts imprisonment of offenders 'under twenty-one years of age' found guilty of an offence punishable with imprisonment (but not imprisonment for life).
Under Section 6(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, where a court does sentence an offender under twenty-one years of age to imprisonment instead of dealing with him under Section 3 or 4, the court:
ashall record its reasons for doing so
bmust obtain prior sanction of the High Court
cneed not give any reasons
dmust refer the matter to the Sessions Judge
Answer: A
Section 6(1) mandates that if the court passes a sentence of imprisonment on such an offender, 'it shall record its reasons for doing so'.
Under Section 32 of the Registration Act, 1908, a document to be registered (whether registration is compulsory or optional) shall be presented at the proper registration office by all of the following EXCEPT:
athe representative or assignee of such a person
bany attesting witness to the document of his own accord
csome person executing or claiming under the document
dthe agent of such person duly authorised by a power-of-attorney executed and authenticated as prescribed
Answer: B
Section 32 permits presentation only by a person executing or claiming under the document, his representative or assignee, or a duly authenticated power-of-attorney agent; a mere attesting witness has no such right.
Under Section 40 of the Registration Act, 1908, a will may, after the death of the testator, be presented for registration by:
aonly the Sub-Registrar suo motu
bonly the executor named in the will
cany person claiming as executor or otherwise under the will
donly a person related to the testator by blood
Answer: C
Section 40(1) provides that the testator, or after his death any person claiming as executor or otherwise under the will, may present it to any Registrar or Sub-Registrar for registration.
An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, may not be made after three months from receipt of the award; however, the Court may, on sufficient cause being shown, entertain the application within a further period of:
athirty days, but not thereafter
bsixty days, but not thereafter
cninety days, but not thereafter
dsuch period as it deems fit in the interest of justice
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 34(3) permits the Court, if satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause, to entertain the application within a further period of thirty days, but not thereafter, thereby excluding Section 5 of the Limitation Act.
Which of the following orders is NOT appealable under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
aAn order of the arbitral tribunal rejecting a plea that it has no jurisdiction
bAn order granting or refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 9
cAn order setting aside or refusing to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34
dAn order refusing to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8
Answer: A
Section 37(2)(a) allows an appeal only from an order of the tribunal accepting a plea under Section 16(2) or (3) that it has no jurisdiction; an order rejecting such a plea (i.e., upholding jurisdiction) is not appealable and can only be challenged with the award under Section 34.
An order rejecting a bail application passed by the Special Court under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is challenged before the High Court. The correct remedy is to file:
aA petition under Section 482 CrPC
bA revision under Section 397 CrPC before the Sessions Court
cA fresh bail application under Section 439 CrPC
dAn appeal under Section 14A of the Act before the High Court
Answer: D
Section 14A provides that an appeal shall lie to the High Court against any judgment, sentence or order, including an order granting or refusing bail, of a Special or Exclusive Special Court.
Under Section 14A of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, an appeal to the High Court against a judgment, sentence or order of a Special Court (other than an interlocutory order) shall ordinarily be preferred within:
a60 days
b90 days
c30 days
d180 days
Answer: B
Section 14A(3) provides a limitation of ninety days for filing such an appeal, extendable at the court's discretion; the proviso prescribing a 180-day outer bar was struck down by the courts.
Under Section 7 of the POCSO Act, 2012, 'sexual assault' is committed where a person, with sexual intent, touches the vagina, penis, anus or breast of the child, or makes the child touch such parts, or does any other act with sexual intent involving:
aOnly verbal communication
bShowing of objects
cPhysical contact without penetration
dPenetration
Answer: C
Section 7 covers acts of physical contact done with sexual intent but without penetration; penetration would instead attract Section 3.
Under Section 8 of the POCSO Act, 2012, the punishment for sexual assault is imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than three years but which may extend to:
aSeven years
bFive years
cTen years
dTwo years
Answer: B
Section 8 prescribes imprisonment of not less than three years extendable to five years, and fine, for the offence of sexual assault under Section 7.
Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, who is qualified to be appointed as the Presiding Officer of a Rent Tribunal?
aAn officer of the Rajasthan Administrative Service not below the rank of Sub-Divisional Officer
bAn advocate of not less than seven years' standing
cA member of the Rajasthan Judicial Service not below the rank of Civil Judge (Senior Division)
dA retired District Judge
Answer: C
Under Section 13, the Rent Tribunal consists of a single Presiding Officer appointed by the High Court who must be a member of the Rajasthan Judicial Service not below the rank of Civil Judge (Senior Division).
Under Section 3 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the provisions of Chapters II and III do not apply to premises let out after the commencement of the Act through a registered instrument for a period of:
anot less than five years
bnot less than two years
cnot less than three years
dnot less than ten years
Answer: A
Section 3 exempts from Chapters II and III premises let out after commencement of the Act for a period of not less than five years through a registered instrument.
Q29Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
Under Section 153 of the Electricity Act, 2003, a Special Court for speedy trial of offences referred to in Sections 135 to 139 is constituted by:
aThe Central Electricity Authority
bThe Central Government
cThe State Government with the concurrence of the High Court
dThe High Court alone
Answer: C
Section 153 of the Electricity Act, 2003 empowers the State Government, with the concurrence of the High Court, to constitute Special Courts presided over by a person who has been an Additional District and Sessions Judge.
A complaint for the offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 must be made in writing, within one month of the date on which the cause of action arises, to a:
aMetropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class
bCourt of Session
cMagistrate of the second class
dExecutive Magistrate
Answer: A
Section 142(1)(b) requires the complaint to be made within one month of the date on which the cause of action arises, and Section 142(1)(c) provides that no court inferior to a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class shall try such an offence.
The offence of intentionally capturing, publishing or transmitting the image of a private area of any person without consent, in circumstances violating that person's privacy, is punishable under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
aSection 72
bSection 66E
cSection 67
dSection 66F
Answer: B
Section 66E (violation of privacy) punishes capturing/publishing/transmitting the image of a private area without consent with imprisonment up to three years or fine not exceeding two lakh rupees, or both.
Under Section 67 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, a person convicted on first conviction for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form is liable to imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine which may extend to:
aTwo lakh rupees
bOne lakh rupees
cFive lakh rupees
dTen lakh rupees
Answer: C
Section 67 prescribes, on first conviction, imprisonment up to three years and fine up to five lakh rupees; on second/subsequent conviction, up to five years and fine up to ten lakh rupees.
Which of the following statements regarding Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution is correct?
aArticle 32 can be invoked for enforcement of both fundamental and ordinary legal rights, whereas Article 226 is confined to fundamental rights
bBoth Articles confer concurrent jurisdiction limited strictly to the enforcement of fundamental rights
cArticle 32 is available against private persons while Article 226 is available only against the State
dArticle 226 is wider than Article 32 because it can be exercised for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as for any other purpose
Answer: D
Article 32 is itself a fundamental right limited to enforcement of Part III rights, while Article 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs both for enforcement of fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', making it wider in scope.
The doctrine of severability, applied where only a part of a statute is inconsistent with Part III, finds its textual basis in which Article of the Constitution?
aArticle 14
bArticle 19
cArticle 13
dArticle 12
Answer: C
Article 13(1) and (2) render laws void only 'to the extent of' their inconsistency with fundamental rights, which is the textual foundation of the doctrine of severability.
The twin/limiting conditions for the grant of bail in respect of offences involving commercial quantity, namely that the Public Prosecutor be given an opportunity to oppose and that the Court be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the accused is not guilty and is not likely to commit any offence while on bail, are imposed by:
aSection 36A of the NDPS Act, 1985
bSection 37 of the NDPS Act, 1985
cSection 31A of the NDPS Act, 1985
dSection 439 BNSS
Answer: B
Section 37 makes the listed offences cognizable and non-bailable and engrafts the additional twin conditions for bail, which operate in addition to the bail provisions of the BNSS.
For an offence under Section 21 of the NDPS Act, 1985 involving a quantity lesser than commercial quantity but greater than small quantity, the maximum punishment provided is:
aRigorous imprisonment up to 6 months, or fine up to Rs. 10,000, or both
bRigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine up to Rs. 1,00,000
cRigorous imprisonment of not less than 10 years extendable to 20 years and fine of Rs. 1,00,000 to Rs. 2,00,000
dRigorous imprisonment for life
Answer: B
For an intermediate quantity (more than small but less than commercial), Section 21(b) provides rigorous imprisonment up to ten years and fine which may extend to one lakh rupees.
In computing the period of limitation for any suit, the time during which the defendant has been absent from India and from the territories outside India under the administration of the Central Government is, under Section 15:
aExcluded in computing the period of limitation.
bTreated as extending the limitation by an equal period only with the court's leave.
cIrrelevant to the computation of limitation.
dIncluded in the period of limitation.
Answer: A
Section 15(5) directs that in computing limitation for a suit, the time during which the defendant has been absent from India (and from territories outside India under Central Government administration) is excluded.
Where a suit is based upon the fraud of the defendant, under Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963 the period of limitation does not begin to run until:
aThe defendant admits the fraud in writing.
bThe plaintiff has discovered the fraud or could, with reasonable diligence, have discovered it.
cThe right to sue first accrues, irrespective of discovery of the fraud.
dThe fraud is established by a competent criminal court.
Answer: B
Section 17 postpones the running of limitation in cases of fraud, mistake or concealment until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud/mistake or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.
During the pendency of a suit in which the right to specific immovable property is directly and specifically in question, a party transfers that property to a stranger. Under the doctrine of lis pendens in Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, such a transfer:
aIs void ab initio
bIs wholly unaffected by the decree subsequently passed
cIs valid but the transferee is bound by the result of the suit
dRequires the prior leave of the court only if the transferee has notice of the suit
Answer: C
Section 52 does not render a transfer pendente lite void; the transfer is valid but the transferee takes the property subject to, and bound by, the rights of the parties as finally determined by the decree in the pending suit.
Under Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a transfer by an ostensible owner for consideration shall not be voidable on the ground of want of authority, provided the transferee:
aHas taken reasonable care to ascertain that the transferor had power to transfer, and has acted in good faith
bHas registered the instrument of transfer within four months
cIs a relative of the real owner
dHas obtained the written consent of the real owner before the transfer
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 41 protects the transferee only if he took reasonable care to ascertain that the ostensible owner had power to make the transfer and acted in good faith. The real owner must also have consented, expressly or impliedly, to the ostensible ownership.
The proviso to Section 223(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces a procedural safeguard absent in Section 200 CrPC. It provides that on a complaint, no cognizance of an offence shall be taken by the Magistrate without:
athe prior sanction of the State Government
bdirecting investigation by the police
crecording the complainant's statement on affidavit
dgiving the accused an opportunity of being heard
Answer: D
The first proviso to Section 223(1) BNSS mandates that the Magistrate give the accused an opportunity of being heard before taking cognizance on a complaint, a requirement that did not exist under the CrPC.
Under Section 346 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where the circumstances are beyond the control of a party, the number of adjournments that may be granted by the Court, after hearing the objections of the other party and recording reasons in writing, shall not exceed:
aone
bno fixed limit
ctwo
dthree
Answer: C
The second proviso to Section 346 BNSS caps adjournments at not more than two, granted only for circumstances beyond a party's control, after hearing objections and recording reasons in writing.
A agrees to sell to B a specific consignment of apples lying in a particular warehouse. Before the risk passes to B, and without any fault of either party, the apples rot and become unfit. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 the agreement is:
aConverted into a contract of bailment
bVoidable at the option of the seller only
cThereby avoided
dBinding, and B must pay the price
Answer: C
Section 8 provides that where there is an agreement to sell specific goods which, without fault of either party, perish or are so damaged as no longer to answer to their description before risk passes to the buyer, the agreement is thereby avoided.
Under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in a contract of guarantee the person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given is called the:
aprincipal debtor
bindemnifier
ccreditor
dsurety
Answer: A
Section 126 defines the three parties: the person who gives the guarantee is the surety, the person to whom it is given is the creditor, and the person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given is the principal debtor.
Under Section 2(i) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, the 'Magistrate' competent to entertain an application means:
aAny Executive Magistrate appointed under the Code of Criminal Procedure
bThe Sessions Judge of the district
cThe District Magistrate or Collector
dThe Judicial Magistrate of the first class or the Metropolitan Magistrate exercising jurisdiction in the area concerned
Answer: D
Section 2(i) defines 'Magistrate' as the Judicial Magistrate of the first class or, as the case may be, the Metropolitan Magistrate exercising jurisdiction under the CrPC in the relevant area.
Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, a woman married by her father or guardian before she attained the age of 15 years may repudiate the marriage (option of puberty / khyar-ul-bulugh), provided the marriage was not consummated and she repudiated it before attaining the age of:
a16 years
b18 years
c21 years
d15 years
Answer: B
Section 2(vii) of the Act recognises the option of puberty: a woman given in marriage before age 15 by her father or guardian may repudiate the marriage before attaining 18 years, provided it was not consummated.
Under Section 15 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, where the property over which a right is claimed by prescription belongs to the Government, the prescriptive period of twenty years is to be read as:
aTwelve years
bTwenty years
cForty years
dThirty years
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 15 substitutes 'thirty years' for 'twenty years' where the servient property over which the right is claimed belongs to the Government.
After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, the specific performance of a contract under Section 10 of the Act shall be enforced by the court:
aAt the absolute discretion of the court in all cases
bOnly where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage
cOnly where the court, in its discretion, finds money compensation inadequate
dSubject to the provisions contained in sub-section (2) of Section 11, Section 14 and Section 16
Answer: D
The 2018 amendment substituted Section 10 to make specific performance the rule rather than the exception; it is now enforceable subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16, removing the earlier discretionary tests.
Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, every partner is liable for the acts of the firm done while he is a partner:
aSeverally only
bJointly with all the other partners and also severally
cOnly to the extent of his share in the firm
dJointly only with the other partners
Answer: B
Section 25 provides that every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and also severally, for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, who is the Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority:
aThe Chief Justice of India
bThe senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court
cThe Union Minister for Law and Justice
dThe President of India
Answer: A
Under Section 3 of the Act, the Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA, while the Executive Chairman is a serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Under the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, the headquarters of the Board of Revenue shall be at:
aJaipur
bJodhpur
cUdaipur
dAjmer
Answer: D
Section 6 fixes the headquarters of the Board of Revenue at Ajmer, though the Board may sit at any place within its jurisdiction subject to orders of the State Government.
Under Section 11 of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, where the defendant pleads that the subject-matter of the suit has not been properly valued or that the fee paid is insufficient, all such questions are required to be heard and decided:
aAfter the judgment is pronounced but before the decree is drawn up
bAt the discretion of the appellate court only
cBefore the hearing of the suit, that is before evidence is recorded on the merits
dOnly after the entire evidence on merits has been recorded
Answer: C
Section 11 ('Decision as to proper fee') requires that a plea of improper valuation or insufficient fee be heard and decided before the hearing of the suit, i.e. as a preliminary issue before evidence on the merits is taken.
In the law of torts, the maxim 'Volenti non fit injuria' signifies that:
aDamage caused without any legal injury gives no cause of action
bThe thing speaks for itself
cAn injury without legal damage is not actionable
dTo one who is willing, no harm is done, and consent bars an action
Answer: D
'Volenti non fit injuria' means that one who voluntarily consents to a known risk cannot maintain an action in tort for the harm so suffered; consent is a complete defence.
Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to: EPHEMERAL
aEverlasting
bFleeting
cTransient
dMomentary
Answer: A
'Ephemeral' means lasting for a very short time; its antonym is 'everlasting'. The other options (transient, fleeting, momentary) are synonyms of ephemeral.
Identify the correct indirect speech: She said, "What a beautiful painting this is!"
aShe exclaimed with joy that that was a very beautiful painting.
bShe said that it was a beautiful painting.
cShe told that what a beautiful painting that was.
dShe asked what a beautiful painting that was.
Answer: A
An exclamatory sentence in indirect speech is reported with a verb like 'exclaimed', the exclamatory structure is removed, and the present tense 'is' changes to 'was'.
Fill in the blank with the correct option: If I ___ the answer, I would have told you.
aknow
bhad known
cknew
dhave known
Answer: B
A third conditional referring to the unreal past uses 'if + past perfect' in the if-clause; hence 'had known' is correct, matching the 'would have told' main clause.
Change into the comparative degree: 'No other lawyer in the firm is as competent as Ravi.'
aRavi is more competent than any other lawyer in the firm.
bRavi is the most competent lawyer in the firm.
cVery few lawyers in the firm are as competent as Ravi.
dRavi is as competent as other lawyers in the firm.
Answer: A
A 'no other...as...as' superlative-sense sentence is converted to the comparative degree using 'more...than any other', giving 'more competent than any other lawyer'.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: "The witness deposed that he had seen the accused _______ the boundary wall on the night of the incident."
ascaled
bscaling
cto scaling
dscale
Answer: D
After the bare infinitive following the perception verb 'seen' (had seen the accused ___), the base form 'scale' is used to denote a completed, single observed action.
Q62English Language
Select the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE'.
aIncriminate
bPardon
cVindicate
dAcquit
Answer: A
'Exonerate' means to absolve from blame; its antonym is 'incriminate', meaning to make someone appear guilty. Acquit, pardon and vindicate are synonyms of exonerate.
Q63English Language
Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.
aThe Judge asked, where were you on the night of the murder?
bThe Judge asked; "Where were you on the night of the murder"?
cThe Judge asked "where were you on the night of the murder."
dThe Judge asked, "Where were you on the night of the murder?"
Answer: D
A direct question in quotation marks begins with a capital letter, is preceded by a comma, and ends with the question mark inside the closing quotes.
Q64English Language
Identify the figure of speech in the sentence: "The pen is mightier than the sword."
aHyperbole
bMetonymy
cPersonification
dSimile
Answer: B
'Pen' stands for the written word and 'sword' for military force; substituting an associated object for the thing itself is metonymy.
Q65English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "The decree was passed _______ default as the defendant failed to appear."
ain
bex
cfor
don
Answer: A
The fixed legal collocation is 'a decree passed in default' (i.e., ex parte for non-appearance); the idiomatic preposition is 'in'.
Q66English Language
Choose the option that best replaces the underlined part to make the sentence grammatically correct: "Neither the petitioner nor the respondents WAS present in court."
ais present
bwas present
cwere present
dhas present
Answer: C
In a 'neither...nor' construction the verb agrees with the nearer subject; 'respondents' is plural, so the verb must be 'were'.
Q67English Language
Select the correct meaning of the idiom: "to throw the book at someone".
aTo dismiss a case for lack of evidence
bTo recommend a useful reference
cTo punish or charge someone as severely as the law allows
dTo accuse someone falsely
Answer: C
'To throw the book at someone' means to impose the maximum possible punishment or list every possible charge against them.
Q68English Language
Choose the word correctly spelt.
aPrivillege
bPrivelege
cPrivilege
dPriviledge
Answer: C
The correct spelling is 'privilege' — no 'd' and a single 'l' followed by 'ege'.
Q69English Language
Change the following into indirect (reported) speech: He said, "I will file the appeal tomorrow."
aHe said that he will file the appeal the next day.
bHe said that he would file the appeal tomorrow.
cHe said that he will file the appeal tomorrow.
dHe said that he would file the appeal the next day.
Answer: D
In reported speech 'will' becomes 'would' and 'tomorrow' becomes 'the next day'; both shifts are required.
Q70English Language
Identify the part of speech of the word 'NOTWITHSTANDING' in the sentence: "Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, the order shall stand."
aAdjective
bAdverb
cConjunction
dPreposition
Answer: D
Here 'notwithstanding' governs the noun phrase 'anything contained in this Act' and functions as a preposition meaning 'in spite of'.
Q71CrPC
After the police report is filed in a warrant case instituted on a police report, copies of the police report, FIR, statements and other documents are to be supplied to the accused. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Magistrate shall ensure such supply:
aWithin ninety days of cognizance.
bAt the stage of final arguments.
cWithout delay and in no case beyond fourteen days from the date of production or appearance of the accused.
dOnly after the charge is framed.
Answer: C
Section 230 BNSS requires the Magistrate to supply, without delay and in no case beyond fourteen days from the date of production or appearance of the accused, copies of the police report, FIR, statements and other documents to the accused (and to the victim, where represented by an advocate).
Every State Government, in co-ordination with the Central Government, is required to prepare a scheme for providing funds for compensation to the victim or his dependents who have suffered loss or injury and require rehabilitation. This obligation is contained in:
aSection 398 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
bSection 357A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
cSection 396 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
dSection 357 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Answer: C
Section 396 BNSS embodies the Victim Compensation Scheme, requiring every State Government in co-ordination with the Central Government to prepare a scheme for compensating victims; the quantum is decided by the District or State Legal Services Authority.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the duty cast upon every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme is contained in:
aSection 398
bSection 396
cSection 356
dSection 183
Answer: A
Section 398 BNSS, a new provision, mandates every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for protecting witnesses, a statutory codification of the directions in Mahender Chawla v. Union of India.
A convict is sentenced to perform 'community service' as a form of punishment under the new criminal laws. Under the Explanation appended to the relevant provision, 'community service' means work which the convict is ordered to perform:
aFor which he shall be paid the minimum wage fixed by the State.
bIn lieu of payment of fine in every case.
cOnly with his prior written consent.
dAs a form of punishment that benefits the community, for which he shall not be entitled to any remuneration.
Answer: D
The Explanation to Section 23 BNS (with the procedural framework reflected in the BNSS) defines community service as work the Court may order a convict to perform as a form of punishment that benefits the community, for which he shall not be entitled to any remuneration.
An accused is arrested for an offence punishable with imprisonment for life. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, custody of the accused to the police (police custody of fifteen days) may be sought:
aOnly after filing of the charge-sheet.
bIn whole or in part, at any time during the initial forty or sixty days of the period of judicial custody.
cOnly in one continuous spell within the first fifteen days of arrest.
dNever, as police custody has been abolished.
Answer: B
Section 187 BNSS permits the fifteen days of police custody to be sought in whole or in part, in staggered intervals, during the initial forty days (for offences attracting up to sixty-day detention) or sixty days (for offences attracting up to ninety-day detention) of the detention period.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a person is arrested and detained in custody, and it appears that the investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours, the officer in charge shall forward the accused, along with a copy of the case diary entries, to the nearest:
aJudicial Magistrate, who may authorise detention under Section 187.
bExecutive Magistrate only.
cSessions Court.
dSuperintendent of Police.
Answer: A
Where investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours, Section 187 BNSS (read with Section 58) requires the accused to be forwarded to the nearest Judicial Magistrate, who alone may authorise detention beyond twenty-four hours.
A person lodges information about a cognizable offence committed in District Jaipur at a police station situated in District Jodhpur. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the officer in charge of the Jodhpur police station:
aMay record it only after obtaining sanction of the Superintendent of Police
bMust refuse to record the information for want of territorial jurisdiction
cShall register the information (Zero FIR) and forward it to the police station having jurisdiction
dShall direct the informant to approach the Magistrate at Jaipur
Answer: C
Section 173(1) BNSS allows information of a cognizable offence to be given irrespective of the area where the offence is committed; the receiving station registers the Zero FIR and transfers it to the station having jurisdiction.
Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the total period of detention authorised by a Magistrate, beyond which an accused becomes entitled to release on bail where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for less than ten years, is:
aSixty days
bForty-five days
cNinety days
dOne hundred and eighty days
Answer: A
Under Section 187(3) BNSS the detention limit is ninety days for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of ten years or more, and sixty days for other offences, after which default bail accrues.
When the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman, and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with a demand for dowry, the Court shall presume that such person caused the dowry death. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this presumption is contained in:
aSection 119
bSection 113-B
cSection 116
dSection 118
Answer: D
The presumption as to dowry death, earlier under Section 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is now Section 118 of the BSA; it is a 'shall presume' provision.
Two friends were alone in a room bolted from inside; in the morning one is found murdered. To shift onto the survivor the burden of explaining how the death occurred, the prosecution would invoke which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, dealing with a fact especially within a person's knowledge?
aSection 106
bSection 105
cSection 104
dSection 109
Answer: A
Section 106 of the BSA (corresponding to Section 106 of the old Act) places the burden of proving a fact especially within a person's knowledge upon that person.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the general rule that 'whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts must prove that those facts exist' is laid down in:
aSection 104
bSection 106
cSection 119
dSection 101
Answer: A
The general rule on burden of proof, formerly Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is now Section 104 of the BSA.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the opinion of a person specially skilled in foreign law, science or art, or in questions of identity of handwriting or finger impressions, is relevant under:
aSection 45
bSection 39
cSection 47
dSection 51
Answer: B
Expert opinion, earlier under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is now Section 39 of the BSA, which additionally widens the field to 'any other field'.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where the contents of an electronic record are sought to be admitted, a certificate identifying the electronic record and describing the manner of its production is required. Such certificate, signed by the person in charge of the device and by an expert, is provided for in:
aSection 65-B
bSection 63
cSection 62
dSection 39
Answer: B
Admissibility of electronic records, earlier Section 65-B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is now Section 63 of the BSA; sub-section (4) requires the certificate to be signed by the person in charge and an expert.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, causing death of any person by doing a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide (in cases other than by a registered medical practitioner) is punishable under Section 106(1) with imprisonment which may extend to:
aTwo years
bTen years
cSeven years
dFive years
Answer: D
Section 106(1) BNS punishes causing death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide with imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine.
The offence of cheating under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which consolidates the earlier Sections 417, 418 and 420 of the Indian Penal Code, is provided in:
aSection 316
bSection 420
cSection 303
dSection 318
Answer: D
Section 318 BNS deals with cheating, with sub-sections covering aggravated forms; it consolidates the cheating provisions earlier spread across Sections 417, 418 and 420 IPC.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of defamation is dealt with in:
aSection 499
bSection 356
cSection 351
dSection 303
Answer: B
Section 356 BNS deals with defamation (replacing Sections 499-500 IPC) and notably permits community service as one of the punishments; Section 351 BNS deals with criminal intimidation.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the principle that when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if the act were done by him alone, is contained in:
aSection 61
bSection 3(5)
cSection 190
dSection 34
Answer: B
Section 3(5) of the BNS, 2023 re-enacts the common intention principle of the former Section 34 IPC, fixing joint liability on each participant in the criminal act.
Q89Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under Section 13 of the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, an order passed by the prescribed authority for recovery of a bank's dues from an agriculturist:
aCan be executed only by the Board of Revenue
bIs merely recommendatory and requires a fresh civil suit for execution
cIs appealable to the High Court before execution
dShall be deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and is executed by the prescribed authority in the same manner
Answer: D
Section 13(2) provides that every order passed by the prescribed authority under sub-section (1) shall be deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and shall be executed by him in the same manner as a decree of such court; the Explanation deems the prescribed authority to be a Civil Court.
Q90Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
The power of review on the Board of Revenue and other revenue courts is conferred by which provision of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955?
aSection 207
bSection 229
cSection 221
dSection 230
Answer: D
Section 230 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 confers the power of review on the Board of Revenue and other revenue courts, while Section 229 deals with the power of revision.
Q91Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, the power of the State Government to remove a member, Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson of a Panchayati Raj Institution (after giving an opportunity of being heard) is contained in:
aSection 95 of the Act
bSection 119 of the Act
cSection 17 of the Act
dSection 38 of the Act
Answer: D
Section 38 of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994 empowers the State Government, after giving an opportunity of being heard and making necessary enquiry, to remove from office any member, including a Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson, of a Panchayati Raj Institution on the grounds specified therein.
Q92Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, an instrument chargeable with duty which is not duly stamped:
aShall not be admitted in evidence for any purpose by any person having authority to receive evidence, unless duty and penalty are paid
bIs void ab initio for all purposes
cMay be admitted in evidence freely, the defect going only to weight
dCan never be validated even on payment of duty and penalty
Answer: A
The Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 bars an instrument not duly stamped from being admitted in evidence for any purpose unless the requisite duty together with penalty is paid; the defect is curable on such payment and is not a permanent nullity.
Under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, where the Board after preliminary assessment under Section 15 is of the opinion that there is a need for trial of the child as an adult, it may:
atransfer the case to the Court of Session directly
btransfer the trial of the case to the Children's Court having jurisdiction
crelease the child unconditionally
ditself try the child as an adult
Answer: B
Section 18(3) provides that where the Board after preliminary assessment under Section 15 finds a need for trial of the child as an adult, it may pass an order transferring the trial of the case to the Children's Court having jurisdiction to try such offences.
Under Section 21 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, no child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to:
aany fine or compensation
bdeath or life imprisonment without the possibility of release
cimprisonment exceeding three years
dany imprisonment whatsoever
Answer: B
Section 21 bars sentencing of a child in conflict with law to death or to life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any offence under the Act or under any other law in force.
Under Section 9(2) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, a claim of juvenility may be raised before any court and shall be recognised:
aonly before the trial commences
bonly up to the stage of framing of charge
cat any stage, even after final disposal of the case
donly before the Juvenile Justice Board and not before any other court
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 9(2) permits the plea of juvenility to be raised before any court at any stage, even after final disposal of the case, and a delay in raising it cannot be a ground for rejection.
Under Section 18 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu wife is entitled to live separately from her husband without forfeiting her claim to maintenance where:
aThe husband is guilty of desertion or cruelty, or has any other wife living
bThe husband refuses to migrate to her parental town
cShe simply prefers to live separately for personal reasons
dShe has been married for less than one year
Answer: A
Section 18(2) lists grounds such as desertion, cruelty, the husband having any other wife living, his keeping a concubine, his conversion to another religion, etc., entitling the wife to separate residence and maintenance.
Which of the following is NOT one of the essential ceremonies of a valid Hindu marriage recognised by Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
aInvocation before the sacred fire, where the rites include it
bRegistration of the marriage under Section 8
cSaptapadi, where the rites include it
dSolemnisation in accordance with the customary rites of either party
Answer: B
Section 7 provides that a Hindu marriage may be solemnised in accordance with the customary rites and ceremonies of either party, the saptapadi being completed at the seventh step where included. Registration under Section 8 does not by itself constitute solemnisation and is not an essential ceremony.
A temporary injunction restraining the defendant from dispossessing the plaintiff or otherwise causing injury in relation to the property in dispute may be granted by the court under:
aOrder XXXVII Rule 2
bOrder XXXVIII Rules 1 and 2
cOrder XXXIX Rules 1 and 2
dOrder XL Rule 1
Answer: C
Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 empower the court to grant a temporary injunction to restrain acts such as waste, alienation, dispossession, or breach of contract/injury in relation to the property in dispute.
Under Section 24 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the power to transfer or withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before a subordinate court is exercisable by:
athe High Court or the District Court
bthe Supreme Court only
cthe State Government
dthe High Court only
Answer: A
Section 24 confers general power of transfer and withdrawal of suits, appeals or other proceedings on the High Court and the District Court, exercisable on application of a party or suo motu.
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.
