Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test 9 — Questions & Solutions
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Q1Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under Section 17 of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, the normal term of a Panchayati Raj Institution, unless sooner dissolved, is:
aSix years from the date of notification
bThree years from the date of its constitution
cFour years from the date of the first meeting
dFive years from the date appointed for its first meeting
Answer: D
Section 17 of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994 provides that every Panchayati Raj Institution, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer, mirroring Article 243-E of the Constitution.
Q2Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957, a person is a 'debtor' entitled to relief only where he is an agriculturist (or a member of a Scheduled Caste/Tribe) liable for debts aggregating to:
aFive hundred rupees or more
bOne hundred rupees or more
cOne thousand rupees or more
dFifty rupees or more
Answer: B
The Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957 defines 'debtor' as an agriculturist, or a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe, who is liable for debts aggregating to one hundred rupees or more. Such debts are scaled down by the Debt Relief Court constituted under Section 3.
Under Section 94 of the JJ Act, 2015, where the Board has reasonable grounds for doubt regarding the age of a person, age determination is to be sought, in the first instance, from:
aAn affidavit sworn by the parents
bAn Aadhaar card produced by the person
cAn ossification test or other latest medical age determination test
dThe date of birth certificate from the school or matriculation/equivalent certificate from the examination board
Answer: D
Section 94 prescribes the order of preference: first, the date of birth certificate from school or matriculation/equivalent certificate; in its absence, the birth certificate from a corporation/municipal authority/panchayat; and only in the absence of both, an ossification or other medical test.
Section 74 of the JJ Act, 2015 prohibits disclosure, in any newspaper, report, magazine or media, of the name, address, school or any particular which may lead to the identification of a child in conflict with law or a child in need of care and protection. Such report MAY be permitted:
aIn no circumstances whatsoever
bBy the Board or Committee holding the inquiry, if in the interest of the child and after recording reasons
cBy the police officer recording the FIR
dBy the editor of the newspaper at his discretion
Answer: B
Section 74 prohibits disclosure of a child's identity, but permits the Board or Committee holding the inquiry to allow such disclosure, for reasons to be recorded in writing, if it is in the best interest of the child. Contravention is punishable under Section 74(3).
Under the JJ Act, 2015, a child who is found begging, or who is found working in contravention of labour laws, or who has a parent unfit to exercise control over him, is best classified as:
aA child in need of care and protection
bA child legally adopted under the Act
cA child in conflict with law
dAn adult offender
Answer: A
Section 2(14) defines a 'child in need of care and protection' through an inclusive list covering, among others, a child found begging, a child working in contravention of labour laws, and a child whose parent or guardian is unfit or unable to exercise control. A 'child in conflict with law' under Section 2(13) is one alleged to have committed an offence.
Under Section 19 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu widow is entitled to be maintained by her father-in-law:
aonly during the lifetime of her husband
bonly if she has no children of her own
conly to the extent that she is unable to maintain herself out of her own earnings or property, or from the estate of her husband, parents, son or daughter
din all circumstances, irrespective of her own means
Answer: C
Section 19 obliges the father-in-law to maintain a widowed daughter-in-law only to the extent she is unable to maintain herself out of her own earnings or property, or from the estate of her husband, her father or mother, or her son or daughter; and such obligation ceases on her remarriage.
Under Section 18 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu wife is entitled to live separately from her husband without forfeiting her claim to maintenance in which of the following cases?
aWhere the husband is guilty of desertion or has treated her with cruelty
bWhere the husband keeps a concubine in the same house in which his wife is living
cWhere the husband has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion
dIn all of the above cases
Answer: D
Section 18(2) enumerates several grounds on which a Hindu wife may live separately without forfeiting maintenance, including the husband's desertion, cruelty, keeping a concubine in the same house, and conversion to another religion, among others.
Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the custody of a Hindu minor who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with:
athe father
bthe paternal grandfather
cthe mother
dthe person nominated by the court in every case
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 6(a) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 provides that although the father is the natural guardian of a minor, the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with the mother.
The doctrine of restitution embodied in Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, is founded on the principle:
aactus curiae neminem gravabit
bubi jus ibi remedium
cnemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa
dactus reus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
Answer: A
Section 144 CPC, providing for restitution where a decree is varied or reversed, rests on the maxim actus curiae neminem gravabit, that an act of the court shall prejudice no man.
Under Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a temporary injunction may be granted by the court where:
athe property in dispute is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by any party
bthe defendant resides outside the local limits of the court's jurisdiction
cthe plaintiff has merely a prima facie case but the balance of convenience is against him
dthe suit has been valued at more than rupees one lakh
Answer: A
Order XXXIX Rule 1 CPC permits grant of a temporary injunction where the property in dispute is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated, or wrongfully sold in execution, by any party to the suit.
Order XXIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, dealing with withdrawal of suit, provides that where the plaintiff withdraws a suit without the permission of the court to file a fresh suit, he:
amay institute a fresh suit on the same subject-matter at any time
bmay file a fresh suit subject to payment of double court-fee
cshall be precluded from instituting any fresh suit in respect of the same subject-matter
dmay file a fresh suit only with the consent of the defendant
Answer: C
Order XXIII Rule 1(4) CPC provides that where a plaintiff abandons or withdraws a suit without the court's permission to bring a fresh suit, he is precluded from instituting any fresh suit in respect of the same subject-matter and is liable for costs.
Section 12 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 provides that a person dealt with under Section 3 or Section 4 shall not suffer disqualification attaching to conviction. The proviso to Section 12 makes this removal of disqualification inapplicable to a person who:
afails to pay compensation ordered under Section 5
bhas a previous conviction proved against him
cis above twenty-one years of age at the time of the offence
dafter his release under Section 4 is subsequently sentenced for the original offence
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 12 states that nothing in the section shall apply to a person who, after his release under Section 4, is subsequently sentenced for the original offence.
Under Section 6 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the bar against sentencing an offender below twenty-one years of age to imprisonment (without recording reasons after considering the probation officer's report) does NOT apply where the offence is punishable with:
aimprisonment for life
bimprisonment for a term exceeding three years and fine
cimprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
drigorous imprisonment of any duration
Answer: A
Section 6(1) protects offenders under twenty-one only where the offence is 'punishable with imprisonment (but not with imprisonment for life)'; thus where the offence carries imprisonment for life, the restriction does not operate.
Which of the following documents affecting immovable property must be presented for registration in the office of the Sub-Registrar within whose sub-district the whole or some portion of the property is situate?
aAny document, at the option of the executant, anywhere in the State
bOnly a sale deed, and nowhere else
cA document affecting immovable property under Sections 17 and 18, by virtue of Section 28
dOnly documents executed outside India
Answer: C
Section 28 of the Registration Act, 1908 requires documents falling under Section 17(1)(a)-(e), 17(2) and 18, so far as they affect immovable property, to be presented in the office of the Sub-Registrar in whose sub-district the property (or part of it) is situate.
An unregistered document which is required to be registered under Section 17 of the Registration Act, 1908 but is not registered:
aDoes not affect the immovable property nor be received as evidence of any transaction affecting it, but may be received as evidence of a collateral transaction not required to be effected by a registered instrument
bOperates to transfer title if duly stamped, registration being merely directory
cIs wholly void and can never be looked into for any purpose
dMay be received as evidence of the principal transaction it purports to effect
Answer: A
Section 49 of the Registration Act, 1908 provides that a compulsorily registrable but unregistered document shall not affect the immovable property nor be received as evidence of any transaction affecting it; the proviso permits its use as evidence of a collateral transaction not required to be effected by a registered instrument.
Where an arbitral award is silent as to interest, Section 31(7)(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (as amended in 2015) provides that the sum directed to be paid shall, from the date of the award to the date of payment, carry interest at the rate of:
aEighteen per cent per annum
bSix per cent per annum
cThe current rate of interest prevalent on the date of the award
dTwo per cent higher than the current rate of interest prevalent on the date of the award
Answer: D
Post the 2015 Amendment, Section 31(7)(b) provides that a sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall, unless the award otherwise directs, carry interest at the rate of two per cent higher than the current rate of interest prevalent on the date of award, from the date of award to the date of payment.
Which of the following orders is NOT made appealable under Section 37(1) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
aAn order setting aside or refusing to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34
bAn order of the Chief Justice or his designate appointing an arbitrator under Section 11
cAn order granting or refusing to grant any measure under Section 9
dAn order refusing to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8
Answer: B
Section 37(1) makes appealable only orders refusing reference under Section 8, granting or refusing interim measures under Section 9, and setting aside or refusing to set aside an award under Section 34. An order on appointment under Section 11 does not fall within the exhaustive list in Section 37(1).
Section 18A, inserted into the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 by the Amendment Act of 2018, provides that:
aPrior written approval of the appointing authority is required before arresting a public servant
bA preliminary enquiry by a DSP-rank officer is mandatory before registering an FIR
cA preliminary enquiry shall not be required for registration of an FIR, and an investigating officer shall not require approval for the arrest of an accused
dAnticipatory bail under Section 438 CrPC is available subject to the satisfaction of the Special Court
Answer: C
Section 18A, inserted by the 2018 Amendment, provides that for offences under the Act no preliminary enquiry is required for registering an FIR and no approval is required for arrest, and that Section 438 CrPC shall not apply notwithstanding any court order. Its constitutional validity was upheld in Prithvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (2020).
Under Section 3(2)(v) of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, a person not being a member of an SC/ST who commits any offence under the Indian Penal Code punishable with imprisonment for a term of ten years or more against a member of an SC/ST, knowing that such person belongs to such community, shall be punishable with:
aDeath or imprisonment for life
bRigorous imprisonment for a term not less than six months but which may extend to five years
cImprisonment which may extend to ten years and with fine
dImprisonment for life and with fine
Answer: D
Section 3(2)(v) provides that whoever, not being an SC/ST member, commits any IPC offence punishable with imprisonment of ten years or more against an SC/ST member knowing that such person belongs to that community, shall be punishable with imprisonment for life and with fine.
Under Section 35 of the POCSO Act, 2012, the evidence of the child shall be recorded within a period of how many days of the Special Court taking cognizance of the offence?
aThirty days
bNinety days
cFifteen days
dSixty days
Answer: A
Section 35(1) requires the child's evidence to be recorded within thirty days of the Special Court taking cognizance, with reasons for any delay to be recorded; Section 35(2) further directs completion of the trial, as far as possible, within one year from cognizance.
Which of the following safeguards is expressly cast upon the Special Court while recording the evidence of a child under Section 33 of the POCSO Act, 2012?
aThe child's statement must invariably be recorded by a Judicial Magistrate, not the Special Court
bAggressive questioning of the child by the defence is mandatory to test credibility
cThe child must be examined only in the presence of the accused
dThe child shall not be called repeatedly to testify in court
Answer: D
Section 33(5) directs that the Special Court shall ensure the child is not called repeatedly to testify; Section 33(6) prohibits aggressive questioning or character assassination, and Section 33(4) requires a child-friendly atmosphere.
Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 (as amended), no person is eligible to be appointed as the Presiding Officer of a Rent Tribunal unless he is:
aa retired District Judge
ba member of the Rajasthan Judicial Service not below the rank of Civil Judge (Senior Division)
ca member of the Rajasthan Higher Judicial Service
dan advocate of not less than seven years' standing
Answer: B
Section 13, as substituted by the 2005 amendment, requires the Presiding Officer of the Rent Tribunal to be a member of the Rajasthan Judicial Service not below the rank of Civil Judge (Senior Division), replacing the earlier 'ten years' experience' requirement.
Under Section 3 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, residential premises in a divisional headquarters such as Jodhpur, Ajmer, Kota, Udaipur or Bikaner are exempt from the operation of the Act where the monthly rent is:
arupees four thousand or more
brupees seven thousand or more
crupees ten thousand or more
drupees two thousand or more
Answer: A
Section 3 fixes location-based monetary thresholds for exemption of residential premises: rupees seven thousand or more for Jaipur, rupees four thousand or more for divisional headquarters, and rupees two thousand or more for other municipal areas.
Q24Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
Where death has resulted from a motor accident, an application for compensation under Section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 may be made by:
aOnly those legal representatives who were financially dependent on the deceased
bOnly the surviving spouse of the deceased, to the exclusion of all other heirs
cAll or any of the legal representatives of the deceased, and where all have not joined, the application shall be made for the benefit of all and the others impleaded as respondents
dThe State Government on behalf of the legal representatives in every case of death
Answer: C
Under Section 166(1)(c) read with the proviso, where death has resulted all or any of the legal representatives may apply, and where all the legal representatives have not joined, the application is made for the benefit of all and the non-joining representatives are impleaded as respondents.
Q25Other Special/Local Acts (Electricity Act, Motor Vehicles Act)
Under Section 4 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the minimum age prescribed for driving a transport vehicle in a public place is:
aTwenty-one years
bEighteen years
cSixteen years
dTwenty years
Answer: D
Section 4(1) bars persons under eighteen years from driving a motor vehicle (sixteen years for a motorcycle up to 50cc engine capacity), while the proviso to Section 4(2) prohibits any person under twenty years from driving a transport vehicle in any public place.
Under Section 143A of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the interim compensation that a court trying an offence under Section 138 may direct the drawer to pay shall not exceed:
aTen per cent of the amount of the cheque
bFifty per cent of the amount of the cheque
cTwice the amount of the cheque
dTwenty per cent of the amount of the cheque
Answer: D
Section 143A(2) caps interim compensation at twenty per cent of the cheque amount, payable within sixty days (extendable by thirty days for sufficient cause); it may be ordered where the accused pleads not guilty in a summary/summons case or on framing of charge in other cases.
Among the presumptions raised by Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, until the contrary is proved it shall be presumed that:
aThe holder of the instrument is never a holder in due course
bEvery endorsement was made after the maturity of the instrument
cThe instrument was made on a date later than the date it bears
dEvery negotiable instrument was made or drawn for consideration
Answer: D
Section 118(a) raises the presumption that every negotiable instrument was made or drawn for consideration; the other presumptions (date, endorsement order, holder in due course, etc.) operate in favour of the holder, not against him.
Tampering with computer source documents, where such source code is required by law to be maintained, is punishable under the Information Technology Act, 2000 with imprisonment up to three years, or with fine which may extend up to:
aTen lakh rupees
bOne lakh rupees
cTwo lakh rupees
dFive lakh rupees
Answer: C
Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000 punishes tampering with computer source documents with imprisonment up to three years, or fine up to two lakh rupees, or both.
Under Section 72 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, a person who, having secured access to any electronic record in pursuance of powers conferred under the Act, discloses it without consent, is punishable with imprisonment up to:
aFive years, or fine up to five lakh rupees, or both
bThree years, or fine up to two lakh rupees, or both
cOne year only
dTwo years, or fine up to one lakh rupees, or both
Answer: D
Section 72 of the IT Act, 2000 (breach of confidentiality and privacy) prescribes imprisonment which may extend to two years, or fine up to one lakh rupees, or both.
Under Article 233(2) of the Constitution of India, a person not already in the service of the Union or of the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than:
aSeven years and is recommended by the High Court for appointment
bSeven years and is nominated by the Chief Minister
cFive years and is recommended by the State Public Service Commission
dTen years and is recommended by the Governor
Answer: A
Article 233(2) provides that a person not already in the service of the Union or the State shall be eligible to be appointed a district judge only if he has been for not less than seven years an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment.
Under Article 235 of the Constitution of India, the control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting and promotion of, and grant of leave to, persons belonging to the judicial service of a State holding any post inferior to that of a district judge, is vested in:
aThe High Court
bThe State Government
cThe Governor of the State
dThe State Public Service Commission
Answer: A
Article 235 vests in the High Court the control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including posting, promotion and grant of leave to members of the State judicial service holding posts inferior to that of district judge, subject to their service-law rights of appeal.
Section 27A of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, which punishes financing illicit traffic and harbouring offenders, prescribes rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:
aseven years and may extend to fourteen years
bfifteen years but which may extend to thirty years
cten years but which may extend to twenty years
dfive years and may extend to ten years
Answer: C
Section 27A punishes financing illicit traffic and harbouring offenders with rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years, extendable to twenty years, along with a fine of not less than one lakh rupees.
After the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (Amendment) Act, 2014, the position regarding the death penalty for repeat offenders under Section 31A of the Act is that:
athe court has the discretion to award either the punishment specified in Section 31 or death
bthe death penalty remains mandatory for every repeat offence
cthe death penalty may be imposed only upon a third conviction
dthe death penalty has been wholly abolished under the Act
Answer: A
The 2014 Amendment substituted the mandatory death penalty in Section 31A with the words 'punishment specified in Section 31 or with death', making the death sentence discretionary; this followed the Bombay High Court striking down the mandatory provision in Indian Harm Reduction Network v. Union of India.
For an acknowledgement in writing to furnish a fresh period of limitation under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, it must be:
aAn express promise to pay accompanied by part payment
bMade before the expiration of the prescribed period and signed by the party against whom the right is claimed (or his agent)
cRegistered and attested by two witnesses
dMade and signed at any time, even after the prescribed period has expired
Answer: B
Under Section 18, a fresh period runs only where an acknowledgement of liability in respect of the property or right is made in writing and signed by the party (or his authorised agent) before the expiration of the prescribed period; an acknowledgement after expiry does not revive limitation.
A suit for possession of immovable property based on title, where the defendant's possession has become adverse to the plaintiff, must be filed within a period of:
a3 years from the date the possession becomes adverse
b6 years from the date of dispossession
c12 years from the date the possession becomes adverse
d30 years from the date the possession becomes adverse
Answer: C
Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 prescribes 12 years for a title-based possession suit, computed from the point when the defendant's possession becomes adverse to the plaintiff.
During the lifetime of his father, 'A' executes a deed transferring for consideration the share he expects to inherit in his father's estate to 'B'. What is the effect of this transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
aIt is void as a transfer of a mere spes successionis under Section 6(a)
bIt is a valid transfer of a contingent interest under Section 21
cIt is voidable at the option of the father
dIt is valid but takes effect only after the father's death
Answer: A
The chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate (spes successionis) is a mere expectancy, not property; Section 6(a) expressly bars its transfer, so a transfer of such a chance during the propositus's lifetime is void.
To claim the protection of the doctrine of part performance under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which combination of conditions must be satisfied?
aAn oral contract for transfer, possession taken by the transferee, and registration of the contract
bA written contract signed by or on behalf of the transferor from which the terms can be ascertained with reasonable certainty, possession taken or continued in part performance, and the transferee being willing to perform his part
cA written contract signed by the transferee alone, with possession delivered and consideration partly paid
dA registered sale deed, payment of full consideration, and mutation of the property
Answer: B
Section 53A requires a written contract for transfer of immovable property for consideration, signed by or on behalf of the transferor with terms ascertainable with reasonable certainty, the transferee having taken or continued in possession in part performance, and his readiness and willingness to perform his part of the contract.
No suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of an act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiration of how much time after a written notice has been delivered, as required under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSix months
bOne month
cTwo months
dThree months
Answer: C
Section 80(1) CPC mandates a two months' prior written notice stating the cause of action and relief claimed before suing the Government or a public officer for an official act; the requirement is mandatory subject to leave for urgent relief under Section 80(2).
In a suit where the defendant is a corporation, under Order V of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the summons may be effectively served by delivering or sending it to:
aAny clerk or peon employed at the corporation's premises
bThe secretary or any director or other principal officer of the corporation
cAny shareholder holding more than ten per cent of its shares
dThe auditor appointed by the corporation
Answer: B
Order V Rule 25 CPC provides that where the defendant is a corporation, the summons may be served on the secretary, or on any director or other principal officer of the corporation, or by leaving it at / sending it by post to the registered office.
Under Section 64 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, in the case of a sale by auction, the sale is complete when:
aThe auctioneer announces its completion by the fall of the hammer or in other customary manner
bThe highest bid is recorded by the auctioneer
cThe buyer pays the price in full
dThe goods are delivered to the highest bidder
Answer: A
Section 64(2) provides that the sale at an auction is complete when the auctioneer announces its completion by the fall of the hammer or in any other customary manner; until then any bidder may retract his bid.
Under Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, if the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, the effect on the original contract is that:
aboth the original and the new contract must be performed
bthe original contract becomes voidable only at the option of the promisee
cthe original contract need not be performed
dthe original contract remains enforceable until breach of the new contract
Answer: C
Section 62 (novation, rescission and alteration) provides that if the parties agree to substitute a new contract for the original, or to rescind or alter it, the original contract need not be performed.
In Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja (2020), the Supreme Court, dealing with the meaning of 'shared household' under Section 2(s) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005:
aAffirmed S.R. Batra v. Taruna Batra and held the shared household must belong to or be tenanted by the husband
bHeld that the definition in S.R. Batra v. Taruna Batra was not correct and that a shared household may include a household belonging to a relative of the husband with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship
cHeld that a daughter-in-law can never claim residence in a house owned by her father-in-law
dHeld that the right of residence is an absolute and indefeasible right against the title-holder
Answer: B
In Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja, (2021) 1 SCC 414, the three-judge Bench held the narrow view in S.R. Batra v. Taruna Batra to be incorrect, ruling that a 'shared household' under Section 2(s) is not confined to property owned by or in which the husband has a share but may include a household belonging to a relative of the husband where the woman lived in a domestic relationship.
Under Sunni (Hanafi) law, the presence of witnesses at the time of marriage (nikah) requires:
aNo witnesses at all
bFour male witnesses in every case
cRegistration before a Qazi as a condition of validity
dTwo male, or one male and two female, witnesses who are sane, adult Muslims
Answer: D
Under Sunni law a valid nikah requires the proposal and acceptance to be made in the presence of two male witnesses, or one male and two female witnesses, who are sane, adult and Muslim. Under Shia law witnesses are not required for the validity of marriage.
Under Section 62 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, a licence is deemed to be revoked when:
aTwenty years have elapsed from the date of the grant
bThe grantor mortgages the property to a third person
cThe licensee dies, in the case of a licence coupled with an interest
dThe licence was granted for a specified purpose and that purpose is attained, abandoned, or becomes impracticable
Answer: D
Section 62 enumerates the circumstances in which a licence is deemed revoked, including where it was granted for a specified purpose and that purpose is attained, abandoned, or becomes impracticable.
Under Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person in possession or control of a particular article of movable property, of which he is not the owner, may be compelled to deliver it specifically to the person entitled to immediate possession. In which of the following cases is such relief NOT available?
aWhen the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff
bWhen the defendant is the absolute owner of the thing claimed and is willing to pay its market value
cWhen compensation in money would not afford the plaintiff adequate relief for the loss of the thing claimed
dWhen it would be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage caused by the loss of the thing
Answer: B
Section 8 applies only where the defendant is not the owner; relief lies where the thing is held as agent/trustee, where money is inadequate, where damage is hard to ascertain, or where possession was wrongfully transferred. It does not lie against an absolute owner.
Under Section 5 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, which of the following are expressly declared not to be partners merely by reason of carrying on business together?
aAn agent and his principal sharing commission
bPersons who have entered into a contract to share profits and losses
cMembers of a Hindu undivided family carrying on a family business as such
dTwo strangers who agree in writing to share profits
Answer: C
Section 5 clarifies that partnership arises from contract and not from status, and accordingly the members of a Hindu undivided family carrying on a family business as such, and a Burmese Buddhist husband and wife carrying on business as such, are not partners in such business.
Under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which of the following persons is entitled to legal services ONLY if it is shown that the person has to defend or file a case and is otherwise eligible, but is NOT exempt from any income condition that the State may prescribe:
aA member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe
bA woman or a child
cA person in receipt of an annual income less than the amount prescribed by the State Government
dA victim of trafficking in human beings or begar referred to in Article 23
Answer: C
Section 12(h) entitles a person whose annual income is below the prescribed ceiling, making eligibility income-dependent; categories such as SC/ST, women/children, and victims of trafficking/begar under clauses (a)-(c) are entitled irrespective of income.
Under the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, the Revenue Appellate Authority is an officer appointed as such by the State Government under:
aSection 75
bSection 20-A
cSection 23
dSection 17
Answer: B
Section 3(iiia) defines 'Revenue Appellate Authority' as the officer appointed as such authority under Section 20-A, under which the State Government may appoint such authorities.
Under the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, the fee payable on a memorandum of appeal is governed by:
aSection 27
bSection 47 (Appeals)
cSection 26
dSection 35
Answer: B
Section 47 of the Act, titled 'Appeals', governs the court fee chargeable on a memorandum of appeal, generally computing it with reference to the relief involved in the appeal.
Match the maxim with its meaning: (i) Audi alteram partem (ii) Stare decisis (iii) Obiter dictum. The correct combination is:
a(i) hear the other side (ii) stand by precedent (iii) an observation made by the way
b(i) an observation by the way (ii) hear the other side (iii) stand by precedent
c(i) stand by precedent (ii) hear the other side (iii) the matter is decided
d(i) the matter is decided (ii) an observation by the way (iii) hear the other side
Answer: A
'Audi alteram partem' means hear the other side (natural justice); 'Stare decisis' means to stand by decided cases (binding precedent); 'Obiter dictum' is a remark made in passing that is not binding.
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb: By the time the magistrate arrived, the clerk ____ the cause list.
ais preparing
bhad prepared
chas prepared
dwas preparing
Answer: B
The past perfect 'had prepared' is required to show an action completed before another past action ('arrived').
Q52English Language
Identify the tense of the underlined verb: The witnesses 'have been waiting' outside the courtroom since morning.
aPresent Perfect Tense
bPast Perfect Continuous Tense
cPresent Perfect Continuous Tense
dPresent Continuous Tense
Answer: C
'Have been waiting' is the Present Perfect Continuous Tense, formed with has/have + been + present participle, denoting an action begun in the past and still continuing.
Q53English Language
Pick the correct synonym for the word: CANDID
aFrank
bDeceptive
cReserved
dHostile
Answer: A
'Candid' means open and honest in expression; its closest synonym is 'frank'.
Q54English Language
Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to: FRUGAL
aPrudent
bEconomical
cExtravagant
dThrifty
Answer: C
'Frugal' means sparing or economical with resources; its antonym is 'extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish.
Q55English Language
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase: 'To turn a deaf ear'
aTo refuse to listen or pay attention
bTo whisper a secret
cTo suffer from a hearing defect
dTo listen attentively
Answer: A
'To turn a deaf ear' means to ignore or refuse to listen to what someone says.
Q56English Language
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase: 'To smell a rat'
aTo make a false accusation
bTo suspect something wrong or deceitful
cTo detect a foul odour
dTo clean a dirty place
Answer: B
'To smell a rat' means to suspect that something is wrong or that one is being deceived.
Q57English Language
Identify the correct indirect speech: She said to him, "Why did you sign the deed without reading it?"
aShe asked him why he had signed the deed without reading it.
bShe asked him why he signed the deed without reading it.
cShe told him why did he sign the deed without reading it.
dShe said to him why he has signed the deed without reading it.
Answer: A
An interrogative beginning with 'why' is reported with 'asked' and no question mark; the past simple 'did sign' shifts to past perfect 'had signed'.
Q58English Language
Identify the correct indirect speech: The advocate said to the bench, "I shall file the rejoinder tomorrow."
aThe advocate told the bench that he would file the rejoinder the next day.
bThe advocate said the bench that he would file the rejoinder tomorrow.
cThe advocate told the bench that he shall file the rejoinder tomorrow.
dThe advocate told the bench that he will file the rejoinder the following day.
Answer: A
'Shall' becomes 'would' in reported speech and 'tomorrow' becomes 'the next day'.
Q59English Language
Mark the correct passive voice of the given sentence: The court has dismissed the appeal.
aThe appeal had been dismissed by the court.
bThe appeal has been dismissed by the court.
cThe appeal was dismissed by the court.
dThe appeal is dismissed by the court.
Answer: B
The present perfect active 'has dismissed' becomes 'has been dismissed' in the passive voice.
Q60English Language
Mark the correct passive voice of the given sentence: The registrar is examining the documents.
aThe documents have been examined by the registrar.
bThe documents are being examined by the registrar.
cThe documents were being examined by the registrar.
dThe documents are examined by the registrar.
Answer: B
The present continuous active 'is examining' becomes 'are being examined' in the passive voice.
Q61English Language
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: He is the most honest ____ of all the officers in the department.
aman
bthe man
cmen
da man
Answer: A
After a superlative ('the most honest') referring to one person, the singular noun 'man' is required.
Q62English Language
Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks: ____ honest judge is ____ asset to society.
aAn, an
bA, a
cThe, the
dAn, a
Answer: D
'Honest' begins with a silent 'h' (vowel sound), so 'An' is used; 'asset' begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is used.
Q63English Language
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: The accused was charged ____ theft under the Penal Code.
afor
bwith
cof
dfrom
Answer: B
The correct collocation is 'charged with' an offence; one is charged with theft, not 'for' or 'of' theft.
Q64English Language
Choose the correctly spelt word.
aMaintainence
bMaintenance
cMaintenence
dMaintainance
Answer: B
The correct spelling is 'maintenance'.
Q65English Language
Choose the option that correctly fills both blanks: Neither the petitioner nor the respondents ____ present when the matter ____ called.
awas, was
bwas, were
cwere, were
dwere, was
Answer: D
With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject 'respondents' (plural), giving 'were'; in the passive clause, the singular subject 'the matter' takes 'was called'.
Q66CrPC
Under the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where an offence is one in respect of which forensic evidence is to be collected, a forensic expert is mandatorily required to visit the crime scene where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term of:
aFive years or more
bThree years or more
cTen years or more
dSeven years or more
Answer: D
Section 176(3) BNSS makes it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more.
An accused is in custody in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to ten years but for which no minimum sentence of ten years is prescribed. Under the BNSS, 2023, the indefeasible right to default bail accrues if the investigation is not completed within:
a120 days
b60 days
c90 days
d180 days
Answer: B
Under Section 187(3) BNSS, the 90-day period applies only where the offence carries a minimum of ten years or is punishable with death or life imprisonment; where the offence is merely punishable with imprisonment up to ten years, the 60-day period applies.
Under Section 230 of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in a case instituted on a police report, the Magistrate must furnish to the accused free of cost copies of the police report and other documents:
aAt the time of framing of the charge
bWithin seven days from cognizance
cWithout delay, and in no case beyond fourteen days from production or appearance of the accused
dWithin thirty days from the date of filing of the charge-sheet
Answer: C
Section 230 BNSS requires the Magistrate to supply copies without delay and in no case beyond fourteen days from the date of production or appearance of the accused, with voluminous documents permitted to be furnished electronically.
Which provision of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces, for the first time, the trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial with no immediate prospect of arrest?
aSection 299
bSection 84
cSection 339
dSection 356
Answer: D
Section 356 BNSS provides for trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender; his absconding is deemed to operate as a waiver of his right to be present and tried in person.
Under Section 105 of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the search and seizure and the preparation of the list of seized articles must be:
aCarried out only during daytime hours
bConducted only in the presence of a Magistrate
cRecorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone
dAttested by at least four independent witnesses
Answer: C
Section 105 BNSS mandates that the process of search and seizure, including preparation of the list of seized items, be recorded through audio-video electronic means (preferably a mobile phone), and the recording forwarded to the Magistrate.
Under Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023, on credible information that a person has committed a cognizable offence, a police officer may arrest him without a warrant and without a Magistrate's order only where the offence is punishable with imprisonment:
aFor a term which may extend to three years
bFor more than seven years, or with imprisonment for life or with death
cFor any term, irrespective of the maximum prescribed
dFor more than five years
Answer: B
Under Section 35 BNSS, arrest without warrant on credible information that a cognizable offence has been committed is permitted where the offence is punishable with imprisonment exceeding seven years, or with imprisonment for life or death.
Under the BNSS, 2023, a judgment in a sessions trial is required to be pronounced after the conclusion of arguments within:
a15 days, extendable up to 30 days
b60 days, extendable up to 90 days
c45 days, extendable up to 60 days
d30 days, extendable up to 45 days for reasons recorded in writing
Answer: D
Section 258(1) BNSS requires the sessions judgment to be pronounced within thirty days of completion of arguments, extendable to forty-five days for reasons recorded in writing.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no confession made by a person while in the custody of a police officer can be proved against him unless it is made:
aIn the presence of two independent witnesses of the locality
bIn the immediate presence of a Magistrate
cAfter the accused has been produced before the Superintendent of Police
dIn the presence of an officer above the rank of Inspector
Answer: B
Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023 bars proof of a confession made in police custody unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. This carries forward the rule that was contained in Section 26 of the repealed Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
During interrogation, an accused in police custody states 'I have buried the knife under the tulsi plant in my courtyard', and the knife is recovered from that exact spot. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the admissible portion of this statement is governed by:
aSection 22 of the BSA, as a confession caused by inducement
bSection 24 of the BSA, as a confession affecting a co-accused
cSection 26 of the BSA, as a dying declaration
dThe proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA (discovery of fact)
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023 permits proof of so much of the information received from an accused in custody as relates distinctly to the fact discovered, whether or not it amounts to a confession. This corresponds to the erstwhile Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A woman, who is the victim of an acid attack, makes a statement to the Investigating Officer regarding the cause of her injuries and the identity of her assailant, and dies of those injuries a week later. Under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is this dying declaration relevant?
aSection 60
bSection 32
cSection 26(a)
dSection 158
Answer: C
Section 26(a) of the BSA, 2023 makes a statement by a person, as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in death, relevant when the cause of that person's death is in question, in any proceeding civil or criminal. It re-enacts Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Two friends, A and B, slept in a room bolted from the inside. In the morning A is found murdered and B is the only other person who was present. To call upon B to explain how the death occurred, the prosecution would invoke which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 119 (presumption of legitimacy)
bSection 105 (burden of proving a particular fact)
cSection 109 (fact especially within knowledge)
dSection 104 (burden of proof generally)
Answer: C
Section 109 of the BSA, 2023 provides that when a fact is especially within the knowledge of a person, the burden of proving that fact lies on him. As B alone knew how the death occurred in the bolted room, the burden shifts to him. This re-enacts Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Where a question arises whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman, and it is shown that soon before her death she had been subjected by such person to cruelty in connection with a demand for dowry, the Court 'shall presume' that such person caused the dowry death. This presumption is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 118
bSection 120
cSection 116
dSection 117
Answer: A
Section 118 of the BSA, 2023 raises a mandatory presumption ('shall presume') as to dowry death, and 'dowry death' carries the meaning given in Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. It corresponds to Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with respect to the testimony of an accomplice, which of the following statements is correct?
aAn accomplice can testify only with the prior sanction of the High Court
bAn accomplice is not a competent witness against the accused
cAn accomplice is a competent witness, but a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon his corroborated testimony
dAn accomplice is a competent witness, and conviction on his uncorroborated testimony is always legal
Answer: C
Section 138 of the BSA, 2023 declares an accomplice a competent witness and provides that a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. The enacted BSA text substitutes 'corroborated' for the word 'uncorroborated' used in Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A group of seven persons, acting in concert, beats Z to death on the ground that Z belongs to a particular caste. Each member of the group is liable to be punished under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 under:
aSection 103(2)
bSection 103(1)
cSection 105
dSection 117(4)
Answer: A
Section 103(2) BNS punishes murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, with each member being liable.
A, a major, instigates B, a child of unsound mind, to commit suicide, and B does so. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A is liable to be punished under:
aSection 106(1)
bSection 108
cSection 107
dSection 103(1)
Answer: C
Section 107 BNS deals with abetment of suicide of a child or a person of unsound mind, delirious, or intoxicated person, punishable with death, life imprisonment, or up to ten years and fine; Section 108 covers abetment of suicide of any other person.
Q84Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, for the purpose of stamp duty 'market value' of property which is the subject matter of an instrument means:
aThe circle rate fixed by the District Collector irrespective of the consideration
bThe price the property would fetch in open market on the date of execution OR the consideration stated in the instrument, whichever is higher
cThe price the property would fetch in open market on the date of registration only
dThe consideration stated in the instrument in every case
Answer: B
Section 2(xxiii) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 defines 'market value' as the price the property would fetch if sold in open market on the date of execution of the instrument, or the consideration stated in the instrument, whichever is higher.
Q85Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under Section 2 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, the expressions 'executed' and 'execution', when used with reference to instruments, mean:
aRegistered and registration
bSigned and signature
cStamped and stamping
dAttested and attestation
Answer: B
Section 2(xiii) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 provides that 'executed' and 'execution', used with reference to instruments, mean 'signed' and 'signature'.
Q86Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Which of the following is included in the definition of 'immovable property' under Section 2(xv) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998?
aStanding timber
bGrass
cGrowing crops
dBenefits to arise out of land
Answer: D
Section 2(xv) of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998 includes land, benefits to arise out of land and things attached to the earth within 'immovable property', but expressly excludes standing timber, growing crops or grass.
Q87Rajasthan Local Acts (Stamp, Tenancy, Agri-Credit, Right to Hearing, Panchayati Raj, Agri-Indebtedness)
Under the Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957, a 'Debt Relief Court' is a court established under:
aSection 3 of the Act
bSection 2 of the Act
cSection 6 of the Act
dSection 10 of the Act
Answer: A
Section 2(d) defines 'Debt Relief Court' as a debt relief court established under Section 3 of the Rajasthan Relief of Agricultural Indebtedness Act, 1957, which empowers the State Government to establish such courts.
Under Section 2(13) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, a "child in conflict with law" means a child who is alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed:
atwenty-one years of age on the date of commission of such offence
bsixteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
ceighteen years of age on the date of his apprehension
deighteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
Answer: D
Section 2(13) of the JJ Act, 2015 defines a child in conflict with law as one who has not completed eighteen years of age as on the date of commission of the alleged offence. The reckoning date is the date of the offence, not apprehension.
As per Section 2(33) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, "heinous offences" are offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law is:
aimprisonment for life or death
bimprisonment for three years or more
cimprisonment for seven years or more
dimprisonment for five years or more
Answer: C
Section 2(33) defines heinous offences as those for which the minimum punishment under the IPC or any other law in force is imprisonment for seven years or more. The Supreme Court in Shilpa Mittal v. State (NCT of Delhi) clarified that offences having no prescribed minimum sentence fall outside this category.
Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, "serious offences" as defined in Section 2(54) are offences for which the punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law is imprisonment for a term of:
amore than seven years
bthree years to seven years
cseven years to ten years
dless than three years
Answer: B
Section 2(54) defines a serious offence as one for which the punishment under the IPC or any other law is imprisonment between three and seven years; petty offences (Section 2(45)) carry up to three years and heinous offences (Section 2(33)) carry a minimum of seven years.
Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the condition relating to the prohibited degrees of relationship may be relaxed where:
aBoth parties give written consent before a Marriage Officer
bThe parties belong to the same gotra
cA custom or usage governing each of the parties permits a marriage between the two
dThe District Court grants prior permission
Answer: C
Section 5(iv) bars marriage within the degrees of prohibited relationship unless the custom or usage governing each of the parties permits such a marriage between the two. The same custom-based exception applies to sapinda relationship under Section 5(v).
Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, conversion of a spouse to another religion is a ground for:
aRestitution of conjugal rights
bJudicial separation only
cDivorce at the instance of the other party under Section 13(1)(ii)
dNullity of marriage under Section 11
Answer: C
Section 13(1)(ii) makes it a ground for divorce where the other party has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion. It is a fault ground available to the non-converting spouse.
After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, a daughter of a coparcener in a joint Hindu family governed by Mitakshara law:
aBecomes a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son
bGets a share only in her father's separate property, not coparcenary property
cAcquires coparcenary rights only if she is unmarried on the date of partition
dHas no right in coparcenary property but only a right to maintenance
Answer: A
Amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes the daughter a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as a son, with the same rights and liabilities. Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020) held this right is not contingent on the father being alive on 9-9-2005.
Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature:
aexcepting suits relating to property situated within the local limits of another court
bonly where their cognizance is expressly conferred by a statute
conly after obtaining prior sanction of the District Judge
dexcepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
Answer: D
Section 9 provides that the Courts shall (subject to the provisions of the Code) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.
As per Explanation IV to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the doctrine of constructive res judicata applies to:
amatters pending before a foreign court
bonly those matters which were actually and substantially in issue in the former suit
cmatters decided by a court of limited jurisdiction only
dany matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit
Answer: D
Explanation IV to Section 11 embodies constructive res judicata: any matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack in the former suit is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue.
Under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no suit shall ordinarily be instituted against the Government until the expiration of:
atwo months next after notice in writing has been delivered
bthree months next after notice in writing has been delivered
cone month next after notice in writing has been delivered
dsix months next after notice in writing has been delivered
Answer: A
Section 80(1) bars institution of a suit against the Government or a public officer (in respect of his official acts) until the expiration of two months next after notice in writing has been delivered or left at the office of the prescribed authority.
Under Section 4(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, a court releasing an offender on probation of good conduct may require him to enter into a bond to appear and receive sentence when called upon during a period not exceeding:
aone year
bfive years
cthree years
dtwo years
Answer: C
Section 4(1) permits release on a bond to appear and receive sentence when called upon during such period 'not exceeding three years' as the court may direct.
The benefit of release on probation of good conduct under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is NOT available where the offence is punishable with:
adeath or imprisonment for life
bfine only
cimprisonment for two years
dimprisonment for seven years
Answer: A
Section 4(1) applies only when a person is found guilty of an offence 'not punishable with death or imprisonment for life'; such offences are excluded from its scope.
Under Section 17(1) of the Registration Act, 1908, which of the following documents is NOT compulsorily registrable irrespective of the value of the property?
aAn instrument of gift of immovable property
bA will in respect of immovable property
cA lease of immovable property from year to year
dA non-testamentary instrument creating an interest of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards in immovable property
Answer: B
Under Section 17(1), gifts of immovable property and leases from year to year are compulsorily registrable, as are instruments creating interest of Rs. 100 and upwards; a will is expressly a testamentary instrument whose registration remains optional under Section 18(e).
Under Section 17(1)(d) of the Registration Act, 1908, a lease of immovable property is compulsorily registrable when it is:
afor any term not exceeding one year
bfor a term exceeding three years only
ca monthly tenancy in all cases
dfrom year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent
Answer: D
Section 17(1)(d) makes compulsorily registrable leases of immovable property from year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent; a lease not exceeding one year is only optionally registrable under Section 18(c).
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