Gujarat Judiciary Mock Test 3 — Questions & Solutions
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Under the BNS, an assembly of five or more persons is designated an 'unlawful assembly' under :
aSection 193
bSection 187
cSection 191
dSection 189
Answer: D
Section 189 of the BNS defines unlawful assembly (IPC s.141) requiring five or more persons with a specified common object; rioting is separately dealt with under Section 191.
The offence formerly known as 'sedition' has been omitted, and the BNS instead introduces an offence of acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India under :
aSection 147
bSection 150
cSection 152
dSection 197
Answer: C
Section 152 of the BNS punishes exciting secession, armed rebellion, subversive or separatist activities endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; it replaces the repealed offence of sedition under Section 124-A IPC.
A, with intent to compel a public servant from discharging his official duty, attempts to commit suicide by sitting on an indefinite hunger strike threatening self-immolation. Under the BNS, A may be punished under :
aSection 226
bSection 224
cNo offence, as attempt to suicide is wholly decriminalised
dSection 309 (repealed)
Answer: A
Section 226 of the BNS is a new provision punishing an attempt to commit suicide with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty; general attempt to suicide is otherwise not retained as an offence.
Under the BNS, the definition of culpable homicide and the definition of murder are respectively contained in :
aSections 101 and 103
bSections 103 and 105
cSections 100 and 101
dSections 99 and 100
Answer: C
Section 100 of the BNS defines culpable homicide (IPC s.299) and Section 101 defines murder (IPC s.300); the corresponding punishments are in Sections 105 and 103 respectively.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching', which has been introduced as a distinct offence carved out from theft, is dealt with under:
aSection 308
bSection 303
cSection 304
dSection 305
Answer: C
Section 304 BNS specifically defines and punishes snatching as a separate offence, distinct from theft under Section 303; this is a new offence not present in the IPC. Punishment may extend to three years with fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'community service' as a form of punishment has been introduced. In which provision is it enumerated among the punishments to which offenders are liable?
aSection 8
bSection 2
cSection 6
dSection 4
Answer: D
Section 4 BNS lists the kinds of punishments, and clause (f) introduces 'community service' as a punishment, a novelty absent in the IPC. It applies to certain less serious offences.
Culpable homicide which amounts to murder is defined under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 100
bSection 101
cSection 105
dSection 103
Answer: B
Section 101 BNS defines murder (corresponding to old Section 300 IPC), while Section 100 defines culpable homicide and Section 103 prescribes the punishment for murder.
In a certain code language, 'RAIN' is written as 'SBJO'. How is 'CLOUD' written in that code?
aDMPVE
bEMPVE
cDMQVE
dDLPVE
Answer: A
Each letter is shifted forward by one position (R->S, A->B, I->J, N->O). Applying the same to CLOUD gives D, M, P, V, E = DMPVE.
Q13English / Aptitude
The simple interest on a sum of money for 4 years at 6% per annum is Rs. 1,200. Find the principal sum.
aRs. 7,500
bRs. 4,000
cRs. 6,000
dRs. 5,000
Answer: D
Using SI = P x R x T / 100, we get P = (1200 x 100) / (6 x 4) = 120000 / 24 = Rs. 5,000.
Q14English / Aptitude
The average age of a class of 20 students is 14 years. When the teacher's age is included, the average becomes 15 years. What is the teacher's age?
a35 years
b33 years
c36 years
d34 years
Answer: A
Total age of 20 students = 20 x 14 = 280. With the teacher, total = 21 x 15 = 315. Teacher's age = 315 - 280 = 35 years.
Q15English / Aptitude
A train 150 metres long is running at 54 km/hr. How long will it take to cross a pole?
a10 seconds
b8 seconds
c15 seconds
d12 seconds
Answer: A
Speed = 54 km/hr = 54 x 5/18 = 15 m/s. Time = distance / speed = 150 / 15 = 10 seconds to cross the pole.
Q16English / Aptitude
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: Hardly had he entered the courtroom ______ the proceedings began.
athan
bthat
cwhen
dthen
Answer: C
The correlative of 'hardly' is 'when' (Hardly had... when...). 'Than' pairs with 'no sooner', not 'hardly'.
Q17English / Aptitude
If the third Tuesday of a month falls on the 18th, on what day of the week does the 1st of that month fall?
aSaturday
bThursday
cSunday
dFriday
Answer: A
The third Tuesday is the 18th, so the first Tuesday is the 4th (18 - 14). Three days before the 4th (Tuesday) is the 1st, which is a Saturday.
Q18English / Aptitude
Candour (Choose the Synonym)
aBrightness
bSweetness
cFrankness
dCowardice
Answer: C
Candour means the quality of being open, honest and frank in expression; 'frankness' is the closest synonym.
Q19English / Aptitude
Frugal (Choose the Antonym)
aCareful
bExtravagant
cEconomical
dSparing
Answer: B
Frugal means thrifty or sparing in the use of resources; its opposite is 'extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish.
Q20English / Aptitude
He decided to ______ the meeting because the key members were absent. (Fill in the blank with the correct phrasal verb)
acall for
bcall off
ccall on
dcall up
Answer: B
To 'call off' means to cancel a planned event; the other phrasal verbs do not convey cancellation.
Q21English / Aptitude
The new clerk learnt the office routine in no time at all. (Give the appropriate meaning to the underlined portion)
awith outside help
bwith great difficulty
cvery quickly
dafter a long delay
Answer: C
The idiom 'in no time at all' means very quickly or almost immediately.
Q22English / Aptitude
Despite repeated warnings, the witness continued to beat about the bush during cross-examination. (Give the appropriate meaning to the underlined portion)
aremain completely silent
bspeak the whole truth
close his temper
davoid coming to the main point
Answer: D
'Beat about the bush' means to avoid speaking directly about the main issue.
Q23General Knowledge / Current Affairs
GIFT City, India's first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC), is situated near which city of Gujarat?
aSurat
bBhavnagar
cRajkot
dGandhinagar
Answer: D
Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City), home to India's first IFSC, is located on the banks of the Sabarmati near Gandhinagar between Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar.
The XXV Olympic Winter Games (Winter Olympics 2026) were hosted by which country?
aItaly
bAustria
cSwitzerland
dFrance
Answer: A
The 2026 Winter Olympics, officially Milano Cortina 2026, were co-hosted by the Italian cities of Milan and Cortina d'Ampezzo from 6 to 22 February 2026.
Who is the incumbent President of India (as of 2026)?
aPranab Mukherjee
bDroupadi Murmu
cPratibha Patil
dRam Nath Kovind
Answer: B
Droupadi Murmu is the 15th and current President of India, having assumed office on 25 July 2022; she is the first person from a tribal community to hold the post.
In a certain code, COURT is written as DPVSU. How is JUDGE written in the same code?
aIVEHF
bKVEHF
cKWEHF
dKVFHE
Answer: B
Each letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet (C→D, O→P, ...). Applying the same to JUDGE gives K, V, E, H, F = KVEHF.
Q27General Knowledge / Current Affairs
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times the original sum at the same rate?
a32 years
b20 years
c24 years
d16 years
Answer: C
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years, i.e. 12.5% per annum. To become four times, interest of three times the principal is needed, requiring 300/12.5 = 24 years.
Q28General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Choose the word that is spelt correctly:
aMaintenence
bMaintainence
cMaintenance
dMaintainance
Answer: C
The correct spelling is 'Maintenance'; the other options contain spelling errors.
Q29General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Find the next number in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ____
a40
b38
c42
d36
Answer: B
The differences between consecutive terms increase by 2 each time (3, 5, 7, 9, ...); the next difference is 11, so 27 + 11 = 38.
Q30General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The accused was acquitted ____ the benefit of doubt.'
ain
bfor
con
dwith
Answer: C
The idiomatically correct expression is 'acquitted on the benefit of doubt', where the preposition 'on' is used.
Q31General Knowledge / Current Affairs
The State of Gujarat came into existence as a separate State on which date, when it was carved out of the bilingual Bombay State?
a15th August 1947
b1st May 1960
c26th January 1950
d1st November 1956
Answer: B
Under the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, the bilingual Bombay State was split into Gujarat and Maharashtra on 1 May 1960, observed as Gujarat Statehood Day (Sthapana Divas).
The Statue of Unity, located near Kevadia in Gujarat and dedicated to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, has a statue height of:
a240 metres
b93 metres
c120 metres
d182 metres
Answer: D
The statue itself stands 182 metres tall (the height chosen to echo the 182 seats of the Gujarat Legislative Assembly); including its base the total structure is about 240 metres. It is the world's tallest statue.
A suit against the Government may be instituted without serving notice under Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 only where the plaintiff:
adeposits the court fee in advance and waits for one month
bobtains the previous leave of the court on showing that urgent or immediate relief is required
cfiles an affidavit that the claim exceeds the pecuniary jurisdiction
djoins the Advocate-General as a party
Answer: B
Under the proviso to Section 80(2), a suit for urgent or immediate relief may be instituted with the previous leave of the court without the two-month notice; but no relief may be granted without giving the Government a reasonable opportunity to show cause.
Explanation IV to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which embodies the doctrine of constructive res judicata, applies to a matter which:
arelates to a fresh cause of action arising after the former decree
bis pending before a court of concurrent jurisdiction
cmight and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit
dwas actually and directly decided in the former suit
Answer: C
Explanation IV deems any matter which 'might and ought' to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit to have been directly and substantially in issue, giving rise to constructive res judicata.
A decree for specific performance of a contract or for an injunction, where the judgment-debtor wilfully fails to obey it, is executed under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aOrder 21, Rule 30
bOrder 21, Rule 11
cOrder 21, Rule 32
dOrder 21, Rule 35
Answer: C
Order 21 Rule 32 governs execution of decrees for specific performance, restitution of conjugal rights or injunction by detention in civil prison or attachment of property; delivery of possession falls under Rule 35.
Which of the following is NOT a ground for rejection of a plaint under Order 7 Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aWhere the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
bWhere the defendant fails to file a written statement within the prescribed time
cWhere the relief claimed is undervalued and not corrected within the time fixed
dWhere the plaint does not disclose a cause of action
Answer: B
Order 7 Rule 11 grounds relate to defects in the plaint (no cause of action, undervaluation, insufficient court-fee, barred by law, etc.); failure of the defendant to file a written statement is not a ground under this rule.
Under the proviso to Order 6 Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no application for amendment of pleadings shall be allowed after the trial has commenced unless the court is satisfied that:
athe opposite party consents in writing
bin spite of due diligence, the party could not have raised the matter before the commencement of trial
cthe amendment is purely formal in nature
dthe suit is of a commercial nature
Answer: B
The proviso (restored by the 2002 Amendment) bars amendment after commencement of trial unless the court concludes that, in spite of due diligence, the party could not have raised the matter earlier.
Where a property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by a party, the court may grant a temporary injunction under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aOrder 39, Rule 2
bOrder 39, Rule 1
cOrder 40, Rule 1
dOrder 38, Rule 5
Answer: B
Order 39 Rule 1 empowers the court to grant a temporary injunction where property in dispute is in danger of being wasted, damaged, alienated or wrongfully sold; Rule 2 deals with injunction to restrain breach of contract or injury.
Where a party seeks restoration of a benefit obtained under a decree which is subsequently varied or reversed, the proper remedy under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is an application for restitution under:
aSection 151
bSection 148
cSection 144
dSection 152
Answer: C
Section 144 provides for restitution where a decree is varied or reversed; the court restores the parties to the position they would have occupied but for the erroneous decree, and no separate suit lies for such relief.
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit for the recovery of immovable property, or for the determination of any other right to or interest in immovable property, shall ordinarily be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:
athe cause of action wholly or partly arises
bthe property is situate
cthe plaintiff carries on business
dthe defendant actually and voluntarily resides
Answer: B
Section 16 CPC requires suits relating to immovable property (recovery, partition, foreclosure, sale, redemption, determination of rights, compensation for wrong) to be instituted where the property is situate.
Under Order 22 Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the effect where a suit abates or is dismissed for failure to bring the legal representative on record?
aThe suit stands automatically transferred to the appellate court
bThe decree passed earlier becomes final and binding on the heirs
cA fresh suit may always be brought on the same cause of action
dNo fresh suit shall be brought on the same cause of action, subject to the right to apply to set aside the abatement
Answer: D
Order 22 Rule 9 bars a fresh suit on the same cause of action after abatement or dismissal, but permits the affected party to apply to set aside the abatement on showing sufficient cause for non-substitution.
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 lies only:
awhere the value of the subject-matter exceeds a prescribed pecuniary limit
bwhere the case involves a substantial question of law
con any question of fact or law arising from the first appellate decree
dwith the leave of the trial court that passed the original decree
Answer: B
Section 100 confines a second appeal to the High Court to cases involving a substantial question of law, which must be precisely stated in the memorandum and framed by the court; a first appeal under Section 96 lies on questions of fact and law.
Choose the analogy that completes the pair: Author : Book :: Composer : ______
aOrchestra
bStage
cAudience
dSymphony
Answer: D
An author creates a book; a composer creates a symphony. The other options are related people or places, not the created work.
Q45Reasoning / Mathematics
The average age of 5 members of a family is 28 years. If a new member aged 16 years joins the family, what becomes the new average age of the family?
a27 years
b26 years
c24 years
d25 years
Answer: B
Total age of 5 members = 5 x 28 = 140. After the new member: (140 + 16) / 6 = 156 / 6 = 26 years.
Q46Reasoning / Mathematics
Find the odd one out.
a96
b49
c64
d81
Answer: A
49 (7x7), 64 (8x8) and 81 (9x9) are perfect squares; 96 is not a perfect square.
Q47Reasoning / Mathematics
Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, "He is the son of my grandfather's only son." How is the man in the photograph related to the woman?
aHer cousin
bHer uncle
cHer brother
dHer father
Answer: C
The grandfather's only son is the woman's father; that father's son is the woman's brother.
Q48Reasoning / Mathematics
A shopkeeper marks an article at Rs. 900 and allows a discount of 20% on the marked price. If he still makes a profit of 20% on the cost price, what was the cost price of the article?
If in a certain code FRIEND is written as IULHQG, then how is CANDLE written in the same code (each letter shifted forward by 3 places)?
aEDQGOH
bFDPGOH
cFDQHOG
dFDQGOH
Answer: D
Each letter moves 3 places forward: C+3=F, A+3=D, N+3=Q, D+3=G, L+3=O, E+3=H, giving FDQGOH.
Q50Reasoning / Mathematics
A train 180 metres long is running at a speed of 54 km/hr. How much time will it take to cross a platform 270 metres long?
a32 seconds
b28 seconds
c30 seconds
d24 seconds
Answer: C
Speed = 54 km/hr = 15 m/s. Total distance = 180 + 270 = 450 m. Time = 450 / 15 = 30 seconds.
Q51Reasoning / Mathematics
Complete the series: B, D, G, K, P, ______
aW
bU
cT
dV
Answer: D
Positions are 2, 4, 7, 11, 16 with gaps +2, +3, +4, +5; next gap +6 gives position 22 = V.
Q52Reasoning / Mathematics
The ratio of the present ages of a father and his son is 7 : 2. After 10 years, the ratio becomes 9 : 4. What is the present age of the son?
a8 years
b14 years
c10 years
d12 years
Answer: C
Let ages be 7x and 2x. (7x+10)/(2x+10) = 9/4 gives 28x+40 = 18x+90, so 10x = 50, x = 5. Son's age = 2x = 10 years.
Q53Computer Awareness
Which of the following is an example of system software?
aAdobe Photoshop
bGoogle Chrome
cWindows operating system
dMicrosoft Excel
Answer: C
An operating system such as Windows is system software that manages hardware and provides a platform for application software; Excel, Photoshop and Chrome are application software.
Which type of memory loses all its stored data when the computer is switched off?
aRAM
bHard disk
cROM
dFlash memory
Answer: A
RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory, meaning its contents are lost when power is removed, unlike ROM, hard disks and flash memory which are non-volatile.
In a standard email, what does the abbreviation 'CC' stand for?
aCarbon Copy
bConfidential Copy
cCommon Copy
dComputer Copy
Answer: A
In email, 'CC' stands for Carbon Copy and is used to send a copy of the message to additional recipients whose addresses are visible to all recipients.
What is the primary function of an operating system's 'firewall'?
aTo permanently store user files
bTo monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic for security
cTo convert analog signals into digital signals
dTo increase the processing speed of the CPU
Answer: B
A firewall is a security system that monitors and controls network traffic based on predetermined rules, helping to block unauthorised access to a computer or network.
Under Section 183 of the BNSS, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for ten years or more, imprisonment for life or with death, the statement of a witness brought before the Magistrate by the police officer shall be recorded by the:
aJudicial Magistrate
bExecutive Magistrate
cPublic Prosecutor
dInvestigating officer in the case diary
Answer: A
Section 183(6) BNSS requires that, for offences punishable with ten years or more, life imprisonment or death, the Judicial Magistrate record the statement of a witness produced by the police officer.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the registration of a "Zero FIR" -- that is, information relating to a cognizable offence given to an officer in charge of any police station irrespective of the area where the offence is committed -- is statutorily recognised in:
aSection 173
bSection 154
cSection 190
dSection 175
Answer: A
Section 173 BNSS governs information in cognizable cases and expressly permits registration of an FIR irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, thereby codifying the Zero FIR concept.
Under Section 173(3) of the BNSS, a preliminary enquiry before registering an FIR may be conducted, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, where the cognizable offence complained of is punishable with imprisonment for:
athree years or more but less than seven years
bseven years or more
clife imprisonment or death
dless than three years
Answer: A
Section 173(3) BNSS permits a preliminary enquiry (within 14 days) on prior permission of an officer not below DSP rank only for cognizable offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years.
A police officer in Ahmedabad receives credible information that X has committed a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for more than seven years. The power of the officer to arrest X without an order of a Magistrate and without a warrant is contained in:
aSection 43 of the BNSS
bSection 35 of the BNSS
cSection 58 of the BNSS
dSection 47 of the BNSS
Answer: B
Section 35 BNSS enumerates the circumstances in which a police officer may arrest without a warrant, including on credible information of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment exceeding seven years.
Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, no arrest shall be made of a person who is infirm or above a certain age, for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to three years, without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. That age is:
asixty-five years
bfifty years
cfifty-five years
dsixty years
Answer: D
Section 35(7) BNSS bars arrest, without DSP-level permission, of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age for offences punishable with imprisonment of three years or less.
Under Section 43 of the BNSS, as a general rule no woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise. Where exceptional circumstances necessitate such an arrest, the woman police officer must obtain prior permission of:
athe Director General of Police
bthe Sessions Judge
cthe Superintendent of Police of the district
da Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be made
Answer: D
Section 43 BNSS requires the woman police officer, in exceptional cases, to obtain prior permission of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose local jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest is to be made.
The order for maintenance of wives, children and parents, corresponding to Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, is now provided under which provision of the BNSS?
aSection 125
bSection 152
cSection 144
dSection 164
Answer: C
Chapter X of the BNSS deals with maintenance, and Section 144 BNSS corresponds to Section 125 CrPC, providing for maintenance of wives, children and parents.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, leading questions are dealt with in Section 146. A 'leading question' means:
aAny question put during cross-examination only
bAny question put to the Court by a witness
cAny question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive
dAny question relating to a matter in writing
Answer: C
Section 146 of the BSA, 2023 (Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) defines a leading question as one suggesting the answer the questioner wishes or expects to receive.
A dies of injuries. Before death, A makes a statement as to the cause of his death. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the relevancy of such a statement (dying declaration) is governed by:
aSection 39
bSection 26
cSection 24
dSection 32
Answer: B
Section 26 of the BSA makes relevant statements of relevant facts made by a person who is dead, including statements as to the cause of death (dying declaration), corresponding to old Section 32 of the Evidence Act.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the rule that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact is contained in:
aSection 138
bSection 134
cSection 140
dSection 139
Answer: D
Section 139 of the BSA provides that no particular number of witnesses is required for proof of any fact, embodying the maxim 'evidence is to be weighed and not counted' (old Section 134 of the Evidence Act).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, 'a question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive' is defined as a:
aLeading question
bRelevant question
cLawful question
dMaterial question
Answer: A
Section 146(1) of the BSA defines a leading question as any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive (old Section 141).
When the question is whether a man is alive or dead and it is proved that he has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him if alive, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 the burden of proving that he is alive:
aIs shifted to the person who affirms that he is alive
bLies on the prosecution in every case
cRemains on the person who affirms that he is dead
dDoes not shift at all
Answer: A
Section 111 of the BSA shifts the burden of proving that the person is alive onto the person who affirms it, once seven years' absence is shown (old Section 108).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the presumption that a person who has subjected a woman to cruelty soon before her death in connection with a demand for dowry has caused the dowry death, is contained in:
aSection 118
bSection 120
cSection 116
dSection 117
Answer: A
Section 118 of the BSA contains the mandatory presumption as to dowry death (old Section 113B), the word 'dowry death' bearing the meaning in Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
An accomplice deposes against the accused. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the provision that an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person is found in:
aSection 124
bSection 132
cSection 138
dSection 139
Answer: C
Section 138 of the BSA declares an accomplice a competent witness against an accused person (old Section 133); Section 119 illustration (b) adds that an accomplice is presumed unworthy of credit unless corroborated.
When secondary electronic evidence (such as a printout or copy of an electronic record) is sought to be admitted under Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, it must be accompanied by:
aAn affidavit of the investigating officer alone
bA certificate identifying the record and the device, including a hash value, signed by the person in charge and an expert
cOnly the oral testimony of the person who operated the computer
dNo certificate, as electronic records are self-proving
Answer: B
Section 63 BSA, 2023 (the successor to Section 65B of the Evidence Act) requires a certificate identifying the electronic record and the device, giving the hash value and signed both by the person in charge of the device and an expert, to be furnished at each instance of submission.
Under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 (as amended by the Bombay Prohibition (Gujarat Amendment) Act, 2009), "Laththa" is defined as spurious liquor which contains:
aethanol exceeding the permissible blood-alcohol concentration
bmethanol or any other poisonous substance which may cause harmful or injurious effects on the human body or death
cdenatured spirit lawfully sold for industrial use only
dhemp, ganja or any narcotic substance mixed with country liquor
Answer: B
The 2009 amendment to the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 defines "Laththa" as spurious liquor containing methanol or any other poisonous substance capable of harming the human body or causing death.
Under Section 56 of the Gujarat (Bombay) Police Act, 1951, the maximum period for which an externment order directing a person to remove himself outside an area may operate is:
asix months
btwo years
cthree years
done year
Answer: B
Section 56 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 empowers the competent authority to extern a person and prohibit his re-entry for a period not exceeding two years.
In an area where a Commissioner of Police has not been appointed, the authority competent to pass an externment order under Section 56 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 is the:
aDistrict Magistrate (or officer specially empowered by the State Government)
bSessions Judge of the district
cInspector-General of Police
dStation House Officer of the police station concerned
Answer: A
Outside Commissionerate areas, the District Magistrate (or the District/Additional Superintendent specially empowered by the State Government) exercises the externment power under Section 56.
A person who, in breach of an externment order under Section 56, enters the area from which he was directed to remove himself, commits an offence punishable under which provision of the Gujarat (Bombay) Police Act, 1951?
aSection 110
bSection 135
cSection 151
dSection 142
Answer: D
Section 142 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 penalises entering, or unauthorisedly returning to, an area from which a person has been externed under Section 56.
The provision in the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 dealing with removal of persons convicted of certain offences (as distinct from the general externment power) is:
aSection 57
bSection 58
cSection 56
dSection 55
Answer: A
Section 57 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 deals with removal of persons convicted of certain offences, whereas Section 56 covers the general power of externment.
The procedure to be followed in confiscation of property under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 is contained in:
aSection 101
bSection 98
cSection 99
dSection 100
Answer: D
Section 98 provides for confiscation of articles, Section 99 for return of things to bona fide owners, while Section 100 lays down the procedure in confiscation.
A person employed to do any act for another, or to represent another in dealings with third persons, is defined under Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as:
aa bailee
ba principal
can agent
da surety
Answer: C
Section 182 defines an 'agent' as a person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with third persons; the person so represented is the 'principal'.
As a general rule under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agent who enters into a contract on behalf of his principal:
acan, in the absence of a contract to that effect, neither personally enforce nor be personally bound by such contracts
bis personally bound but cannot personally enforce such contracts
ccan personally enforce but is never personally bound by such contracts
dis personally bound by and can personally enforce such contracts
Answer: A
Section 230 lays down that, in the absence of a contract to that effect, an agent can neither personally enforce contracts entered into on behalf of his principal, nor is he personally bound by them, subject to the presumptions of personal liability stated in the section.
Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful where it is:
auncertain but capable of being made certain
bexecutory rather than executed
cof such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law, or is fraudulent, or opposed to public policy
dinadequate in value
Answer: C
Section 23 renders the consideration or object unlawful if it is forbidden by law, would defeat the provisions of any law, is fraudulent, involves injury to person or property, or is immoral or opposed to public policy; mere inadequacy of consideration does not make it unlawful.
Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer:
awhen the proposal first comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
bwhen the acceptor signs the letter of acceptance
cwhen it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor
dwhen it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
Answer: C
Section 4 provides that the communication of an acceptance is complete, as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor; as against the acceptor, it is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 lays down the exceptions under which an agreement made without consideration is nevertheless valid?
aSection 10
bSection 25
cSection 27
dSection 23
Answer: B
Section 25 declares that an agreement without consideration is void, save where it is in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection between near relations, or is a promise to compensate for something voluntarily done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation.
Agreements by way of wager are declared void under which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which also saves certain prizes for horse-racing?
aSection 28
bSection 29
cSection 30
dSection 31
Answer: C
Section 30 declares agreements by way of wager void, with an exception in favour of certain subscriptions or prizes for horse-racing; the section also states that Section 294A of the Indian Penal Code is not thereby affected.
A Judge of a High Court holds office, under Article 217(1) of the Constitution of India, until he attains the age of :
aSixty years
bFifty-eight years
cSixty-two years
dSixty-five years
Answer: C
Under Article 217(1), a Judge of a High Court holds office until he attains the age of sixty-two years, whereas a Judge of the Supreme Court under Article 124(2) holds office until the age of sixty-five years.
Under Article 217(2) of the Constitution of India, a person is qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court if he has, for at least ten years, held a judicial office in the territory of India or has, for at least ten years, been :
aa member of the State Public Service Commission
ba distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President
ca District Magistrate
dan advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession
Answer: D
Article 217(2) requires that to be appointed a High Court Judge, a person must be a citizen of India and have either held judicial office in India for at least ten years or been an advocate of a High Court (or two or more in succession) for at least ten years.
A person aggrieved by his unlawful confinement files a petition praying that he be produced before the court and the legality of his detention be examined. The appropriate writ to be prayed for is :
aQuo warranto
bCertiorari
cMandamus
dHabeas corpus
Answer: D
The writ of habeas corpus is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before the court so that the legality of the detention may be examined.
Which one of the following correctly states the rule embodied in Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963?
aTime does not begin to run until the cause of action is discovered
bTime begins to run afresh on every subsequent disability of the plaintiff
cOnce time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to sue stops it
dTime runs only against persons who are sui juris on the date of accrual
Answer: C
Section 9 lays down that once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application can stop it (subject to the statutory exception in its proviso).
In computing the period of limitation for an appeal under Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following is/are to be excluded?
aOnly the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree appealed from
bNeither the day of pronouncement nor the time requisite for obtaining the copy
cOnly the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced
dThe day of pronouncement of the judgment and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order
Answer: D
Section 12 excludes, for an appeal, the day on which the judgment was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from.
Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides for exclusion of time during which the plaintiff has been prosecuting another civil proceeding. For such exclusion, the earlier proceeding must have been prosecuted:
aonly before a court of competent jurisdiction that decided the matter on merits
bwithin thirty days of the dismissal of the first proceeding
cin any forum whatsoever, irrespective of good faith
dwith due diligence and in good faith, in a court unable to entertain it for defect of jurisdiction or other like cause
Answer: D
Section 14 excludes the time spent bona fide and with due diligence in prosecuting another civil proceeding in a court which, from defect of jurisdiction or other like cause, was unable to entertain it.
Which of the following presumptions is NOT among those raised under Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
aPresumption that the cheque was dishonoured for insufficiency of funds
bPresumption as to consideration
cPresumption that the holder is a holder in due course
dPresumption as to date of the instrument
Answer: A
Section 118 raises presumptions as to consideration, date, time of acceptance, time of transfer, order of indorsements, stamp and that the holder is a holder in due course; there is no presumption of dishonour for insufficiency of funds.
Under Section 18 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, where the amount undertaken or ordered to be paid is stated differently in figures and in words:
aThe amount stated in words shall be the amount undertaken or ordered to be paid
bThe amount stated in figures shall be the amount payable
cThe instrument becomes void for uncertainty
dThe lower of the two amounts shall be payable
Answer: A
Section 18 provides that if the amount is stated differently in figures and words, the amount stated in words shall be the amount undertaken or ordered to be paid.
Under Section 20A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (inserted by the 2018 Amendment), in a suit involving a contract relating to an infrastructure project specified in the Schedule, a court:
aIs barred from granting specific performance but may grant an injunction
bMust refer the dispute to arbitration before granting any relief
cMay grant an injunction only with the prior sanction of the Central Government
dShall not grant an injunction where granting it would cause impediment or delay in the progress or completion of such infrastructure project
Answer: D
Section 20A bars the grant of an injunction in suits involving contracts relating to scheduled infrastructure projects where it would impede or delay the progress or completion of the project; Section 41(ha) reinforces this bar.
Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the sale of tangible immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards can be made only by:
aA registered instrument
bAn oral agreement followed by part payment of price
cDelivery of possession alone
dEither a registered instrument or delivery of possession
Answer: A
Section 54 requires that tangible immovable property of value of one hundred rupees and upwards (and reversions or other intangible things) be transferred only by a registered instrument; only property below one hundred rupees may also be transferred by delivery.
Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with voidable marriages, as distinct from void marriages?
aSection 13
bSection 11
cSection 10
dSection 12
Answer: D
Section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with voidable marriages, whereas Section 11 deals with void marriages; a voidable marriage remains valid until annulled by a decree of nullity.
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