Gujarat Judiciary · Prelims Mock Test 5

Gujarat Judiciary Mock Test 5 — Questions & Solutions

Every question from this prelims mock with the correct answer and a detailed, source-backed solution. Free to read. Want the real exam feel — a timer, instant scoring, and a subject-wise weakness report? Take it as a test.

99
Questions
17
Subjects
+ solutions
Every question

Take this as a timed mock test — instant score + subject-wise analytics. First mock free, then ₹999/year for unlimited.

Start timed test →
Q1Indian Penal Code (BNS)

A prisoner goes on a hunger strike, attempting to commit suicide, with the object of compelling a public servant to refrain from discharging his official duty. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this is specifically punishable under:

aSection 351
bSection 224
cSection 309
dSection 226
Answer: D
Section 226 BNS punishes an attempt to commit suicide with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty, with simple imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both, or community service. General attempt to suicide stands decriminalised.
Q2Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is contained in which section?

aSection 105
bSection 101
cSection 102
dSection 103
Answer: D
Murder is defined in Section 101 BNS, but the punishment for murder (death or imprisonment for life and fine) is prescribed by Section 103 BNS.
Q3Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Where five or more persons acting in concert commit murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the minimum sentence prescribed by Section 103(2) BNS is imprisonment for a term not less than:

aSeven years
bThree years
cTen years
dFive years
Answer: A
Section 103(2) BNS punishes such group/mob murder with death or imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term not less than seven years, and fine.
Q4Indian Penal Code (BNS)

A registered medical practitioner causes the death of a patient by a rash or negligent act while performing a medical procedure in good faith. Under Section 106(1) BNS the imprisonment that may be imposed extends up to:

aFive years
bThree years
cSeven years
dTwo years
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 106(1) BNS reduces the maximum term to two years where the rash or negligent act causing death is by a registered medical practitioner while performing a medical procedure.
Q5Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Under Section 106(2) BNS, a person who causes death by rash and negligent driving of a vehicle (not amounting to culpable homicide) and escapes without reporting the incident to a police officer or Magistrate soon after, is liable to imprisonment which may extend to:

aSeven years
bTen years
cFive years
dImprisonment for life
Answer: B
Section 106(2) BNS (the hit-and-run provision) prescribes imprisonment up to ten years and fine where the driver flees without reporting the incident to the police or a Magistrate.
Q6Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Which of the following is NOT one of the punishments to which offenders are liable under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

aCommunity service
bFine
cForfeiture of property
dSolitary confinement
Answer: D
Section 4 BNS lists death, imprisonment for life, imprisonment (rigorous or simple), forfeiture of property, fine and community service. Solitary confinement is a mode of executing imprisonment under Section 11, not a head of punishment under Section 4.
Q7Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Section 69 BNS punishes sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means or a false promise to marry (not amounting to rape). The maximum imprisonment prescribed is:

aFive years
bTen years
cSeven years
dThree years
Answer: B
Section 69 BNS provides imprisonment which may extend to ten years and fine; 'deceitful means' includes a false promise of employment or promotion, or marrying by suppressing identity.
Q8Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Under Exception 2 to Section 63 BNS, sexual intercourse or sexual acts by a man with his own wife do not amount to rape if the wife is not under the age of:

aFifteen years
bEighteen years
cSixteen years
dTwenty-one years
Answer: B
Exception 2 to Section 63 BNS provides that sexual intercourse or sexual acts by a man with his own wife, the wife not being under eighteen years of age, is not rape.
Q9Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Under Section 64(1) BNS, the punishment for rape is rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:

aFive years
bSeven years
cTen years
dTwelve years
Answer: C
Section 64(1) BNS prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years, which may extend to imprisonment for life, and fine.
Q10Indian Penal Code (BNS)

Under Section 70(1) BNS, where a woman is subjected to gang rape, each person is punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:

aFourteen years
bTen years
cTwenty years
dImprisonment for life only
Answer: C
Section 70(1) BNS prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than twenty years, extendable to imprisonment for the remainder of natural life, and fine.
Q11Indian Penal Code (BNS)

X voluntarily causes grievous hurt to Y which results in Y being in a permanent vegetative state. Under Section 117(3) BNS, X is punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:

aTen years
bSeven years
cFive years
dThree years
Answer: A
Section 117(3) BNS prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years, extendable to imprisonment for life, where grievous hurt causes permanent disability or a persistent vegetative state.
Q12English / Aptitude

In a certain code language, MANGO is written as NBOHP. How would TIGER be written in that code language?

aSJHFS
bUJGFS
cUJHFS
dUIHFS
Answer: C
Each letter is shifted forward by one position (M→N, A→B, ...), so TIGER becomes UJHFS.
Q13English / Aptitude

Pen : Write :: Knife : ______

aBlade
bCut
cSharp
dMetal
Answer: B
A pen is used to write, just as a knife is used to cut; the analogy is tool-to-function.
Q14English / Aptitude

The average age of 5 students is 18 years. When a teacher's age is included, the average becomes 22 years. What is the teacher's age?

a46 years
b44 years
c42 years
d40 years
Answer: C
Total of 5 students = 90; total of 6 persons = 132; teacher's age = 132 - 90 = 42 years.
Q15English / Aptitude

Identify the part of speech of the underlined word: He spoke very softly.

aVerb
bNoun
cAdjective
dAdverb
Answer: D
'Softly' modifies the verb 'spoke' and describes how the action was done, so it is an adverb.
Q16English / Aptitude

Choose the correct passive form of: 'The court delivered the judgment.'

aThe judgment delivered by the court.
bThe judgment is delivered by the court.
cThe judgment was delivered by the court.
dThe judgment has delivered by the court.
Answer: C
Past simple active 'delivered' becomes passive 'was delivered by'.
Q17English / Aptitude

A train 150 metres long is running at a speed of 90 km/hr. How long will it take to cross a pole?

a10 seconds
b6 seconds
c8 seconds
d5 seconds
Answer: B
90 km/hr = 25 m/s; time = distance/speed = 150/25 = 6 seconds.
Q18English / Aptitude

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to: FRUGAL

aThrifty
bEconomical
cCautious
dExtravagant
Answer: D
'Frugal' means sparing or economical with resources; its antonym is 'extravagant', meaning wasteful or lavish in spending. Options (a), (c) and (d) are near-synonyms of frugal.
Q19English / Aptitude

Complete the series: 3, 8, 18, 38, 78, ____

a158
b148
c160
d156
Answer: A
Each term follows the rule next = (previous x 2) + 2: 3x2+2=8, 8x2+2=18, 38x2+2=78, and 78x2+2=158.
Q20English / Aptitude

Identify the correctly spelt word.

aPrivilege
bPrivelage
cPrivelege
dPriviledge
Answer: A
The correct spelling is 'privilege' (no 'd', with 'i-e-i' pattern). The other forms are common misspellings.
Q21English / Aptitude

Choose the word most nearly the SAME in meaning to: CANDID

aFrank
bDoubtful
cHidden
dHostile
Answer: A
'Candid' means open, honest and straightforward, which is closest to 'frank'.
Q22English / Aptitude

If in a certain code 'PEN' is written as 'QFO', how is 'BOOK' written in the same code?

aAPLN
bCPPL
cCPQM
dCQPL
Answer: B
Each letter is shifted one position forward in the alphabet (P->Q, E->F, N->O). Applying the same to BOOK gives C, P, P, L = CPPL.
Q23General Knowledge / Current Affairs

Who is the present Chief Minister of Gujarat?

aBhupendra Patel
bHarsh Sanghavi
cVijay Rupani
dAnandiben Patel
Answer: A
Bhupendra Patel, the 17th Chief Minister of Gujarat, has held office since September 2021 and represents the Ghatlodia constituency.
Q24General Knowledge / Current Affairs

The bilingual Bombay State was bifurcated to create the separate State of Gujarat on which date?

a15th August 1947
b26th January 1950
c1st November 1956
d1st May 1960
Answer: D
Under the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, the Bombay State was split into Maharashtra and Gujarat on 1 May 1960, which is observed as Gujarat Day.
Q25General Knowledge / Current Affairs

The Statue of Unity, dedicated to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and the tallest statue in the world, stands at a height of:

a152 metres
b240 metres
c93 metres
d182 metres
Answer: D
Inaugurated on 31 October 2018 near the Sardar Sarovar Dam in Gujarat's Narmada district, the Statue of Unity is 182 metres tall, corresponding to the number of seats in the Gujarat Legislative Assembly.
Q26General Knowledge / Current Affairs

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to which of the following?

aNarges Mohammadi
bAles Bialiatski
cNihon Hidankyo
dMaria Corina Machado
Answer: D
Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado received the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize for her work promoting democratic rights and a peaceful transition to democracy in Venezuela.
Q27General Knowledge / Current Affairs

Who is the present Governor of Gujarat?

aKohli Kataria
bAcharya Devvrat
cO. P. Kohli
dJishnu Dev Varma
Answer: B
Acharya Devvrat, who assumed office on 22 July 2019, continues to serve as the Governor of Gujarat.
Q28General Knowledge / Current Affairs

Who is the President of India in 2026?

aPratibha Patil
bDroupadi Murmu
cRam Nath Kovind
dVenkaiah Naidu
Answer: B
Droupadi Murmu, sworn in as the 15th President of India on 25 July 2022, is the first person from a tribal community to hold the office and continues in office in 2026.
Q29General Knowledge / Current Affairs

The seat (principal bench) of the High Court of Gujarat is located at:

aAhmedabad
bGandhinagar
cVadodara
dSurat
Answer: A
The High Court of Gujarat has its seat at Ahmedabad (Sola), and presently functions under Chief Justice Sunita Agarwal.
Q30General Knowledge / Current Affairs

In a certain code language, each letter of a word is replaced by its position-reversed counterpart in the alphabet (A to Z, B to Y, C to X, and so on). In that code, how is the word BRAIN written?

aYIRLM
bYIZRM
cZILRM
dYRZIM
Answer: B
Replacing each letter by its reverse-alphabet counterpart: B to Y, R to I, A to Z, I to R, N to M, giving YIZRM.
Q31General Knowledge / Current Affairs

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE':

aIncriminate
bAcquit
cAbsolve
dPardon
Answer: A
'Exonerate' means to clear of blame; its antonym is 'incriminate', meaning to make someone appear guilty.
Q32General Knowledge / Current Affairs

Select the option that correctly completes the analogy: Lawyer : Client :: Doctor : ?

aPatient
bHospital
cNurse
dMedicine
Answer: A
A lawyer provides professional services to a client; analogously, a doctor provides professional services to a patient.
Q33General Knowledge / Current Affairs

A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times of itself at the same rate?

a20 years
b24 years
c32 years
d16 years
Answer: B
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years (rate 12.5%). To become four times, the interest must be three times the principal, requiring 8 x 3 = 24 years.
Q34Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

An application by a defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed, to set aside such decree on the ground that summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, lies under:

aOrder IX, Rule 9
bOrder XXII, Rule 4
cOrder IX, Rule 13
dOrder IX, Rule 7
Answer: C
Order IX Rule 13 CPC allows a defendant against whom an ex parte decree is passed to apply to set it aside for non-service of summons or sufficient cause for non-appearance. Order IX Rule 9 deals with dismissal of suit for plaintiff's default.
Q35Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

On the death of one of several defendants, or of a sole defendant, where the right to sue survives, the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for making the legal representative a party is:

aOrder XXII, Rule 9
bOrder XXII, Rule 3
cOrder XXII, Rule 1
dOrder XXII, Rule 4
Answer: D
Order XXII Rule 4 CPC deals with the procedure on the death of a defendant — substituting the legal representative — whereas Rule 3 applies on the death of a plaintiff and Rule 9 to setting aside abatement.
Q36Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

A plaint shall be rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in which of the following situations?

aAll of the above
bWhere the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
cWhere the relief claimed is undervalued and the plaintiff fails to correct the valuation within the time fixed
dWhere it does not disclose a cause of action
Answer: A
Order VII Rule 11 CPC enumerates grounds for rejection of a plaint, including non-disclosure of a cause of action, the suit being barred by law on the face of the plaint, and failure to correct under-valuation within the time fixed.
Q37Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

The power of the court, at any stage of the proceedings, to strike out a party improperly joined or to add a party whose presence is necessary to enable the court effectually and completely to adjudicate upon the questions involved, is contained in:

aOrder I, Rule 10
bOrder I, Rule 9
cOrder II, Rule 3
dOrder VI, Rule 17
Answer: A
Order I Rule 10 CPC empowers the court to strike out or add parties at any stage, including a person necessary for complete adjudication of the questions involved. Order VI Rule 17 concerns amendment of pleadings.
Q38Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Where, in a suit for partition of property, the partition or separation cannot be conveniently made without further inquiry, the court passes a preliminary decree declaring the rights of the parties under:

aOrder XX, Rule 12
bOrder XX, Rule 15
cOrder XXVI, Rule 13
dOrder XX, Rule 18
Answer: D
Order XX Rule 18 CPC governs the decree in a suit for partition of property or for separate possession of a share, including passing of a preliminary decree where further inquiry is needed.
Q39Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the doctrine of res judicata is contained in:

aSection 10
bSection 11
cSection 12
dSection 9
Answer: B
Section 11 CPC embodies the rule of res judicata, barring a Court from trying any suit or issue already directly and substantially in issue and finally decided between the same parties in a former suit. Section 10 deals with the distinct doctrine of res sub judice (stay of suit).
Q40Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Where a sole defendant dies and the right to sue survives, the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure under which the legal representative of the deceased defendant is to be brought on record is:

aOrder XXII, Rule 3
bOrder XXII, Rule 4
cOrder XXII, Rule 10
dOrder XXII, Rule 9
Answer: B
Order XXII, Rule 4 CPC governs the procedure on the death of a defendant, requiring the legal representative to be made a party; Rule 3 deals with death of a plaintiff. Failure to apply in time causes the suit to abate against the deceased defendant.
Q41Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

The particulars of a claim of set-off are required to be stated in the written statement under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

aOrder VI, Rule 6
bOrder VIII, Rule 6A
cOrder VIII, Rule 1
dOrder VIII, Rule 6
Answer: D
Order VIII, Rule 6 CPC permits a defendant in a money suit to claim a legal set-off by giving particulars in the written statement, treated as a plaint in a cross-suit. Order VIII, Rule 6A separately governs a counter-claim.
Q42Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Under Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the period that the Court may enlarge for doing an act prescribed or allowed by the Code, in total, shall not exceed:

aThirty days
bSixty days
cFifteen days
dNinety days
Answer: A
After the 1999 amendment, Section 148 CPC caps the enlargement of time at thirty days in total, even if the originally fixed period has expired. The act enlarged must be one prescribed or allowed by the Code.
Q43Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

A Court of Civil Judge tries all suits of a civil nature unless their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred. This rule of jurisdiction is contained in:

aSection 6
bSection 15
cSection 9
dSection 16
Answer: C
Section 9 CPC confers on civil courts jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those expressly or impliedly barred; jurisdiction is the rule and exclusion the exception.
Q44Reasoning / Mathematics

If in a certain code FRIEND is written as HUMJTK, then how is CANDLE written in the same code?

aEDRIQK
bEDRIRL
cEDRJRL
dECRIRL
Answer: B
Letters shift forward by +2, +3, +4, +5, +6, +7 (F+2=H, R+3=U, I+4=M, E+5=J, N+6=T, D+7=K). Applying to CANDLE: C+2=E, A+3=D, N+4=R, D+5=I, L+6=R, E+7=L, giving EDRIRL.
Q45Reasoning / Mathematics

Find the odd one out: 121, 143, 165, 186, 198

a165
b143
c186
d198
Answer: C
All numbers except 186 are multiples of 11 (121, 143, 165, 198); 186 is not divisible by 11.
Q46Reasoning / Mathematics

The ratio of the present ages of a father and his son is 7 : 2. After 10 years the ratio will become 9 : 4. What is the present age of the son?

a10 years
b12 years
c8 years
d14 years
Answer: A
Let ages be 7x and 2x. (7x+10)/(2x+10) = 9/4 gives 28x+40 = 18x+90, so 10x = 50, x = 5; son = 2x = 10 years.
Q47Reasoning / Mathematics

A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 25% on the marked price. What is his profit percentage?

a10%
b5%
c15%
d12%
Answer: B
Let CP = 100; MP = 140; SP after 25% discount = 140 x 0.75 = 105; profit = 5%.
Q48Reasoning / Mathematics

Complete the series: B, E, I, N, _______

aS
bR
cU
dT
Answer: D
The gaps between letters increase: B(+3)E(+4)I(+5)N(+6)T. Counting positions, N + 6 = T.
Q49Reasoning / Mathematics

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 18 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, in how many minutes will the tank be filled?

a6 minutes
b9 minutes
c8 minutes
d7.2 minutes
Answer: D
Combined rate = 1/12 + 1/18 = 3/36 + 2/36 = 5/36 per minute; time = 36/5 = 7.2 minutes.
Q50Reasoning / Mathematics

A man walks 12 km towards North, then turns right and walks 5 km. How far is he now from his starting point?

a17 km
b15 km
c13 km
d7 km
Answer: C
The two legs (12 km and 5 km) are perpendicular, so distance = the square root of (12 squared + 5 squared) = the square root of 169 = 13 km.
Q51Reasoning / Mathematics

If the day before yesterday was Thursday, what day will it be on the day after tomorrow?

aWednesday
bSunday
cMonday
dTuesday
Answer: C
Day before yesterday was Thursday, so today is Saturday; tomorrow is Sunday and the day after tomorrow is Monday.
Q52Reasoning / Mathematics

Complete the series: 3, 7, 16, 35, 74, ___

a148
b153
c151
d145
Answer: B
Each term follows t(n+1) = 2*t(n) + n where the added constant is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5: 3*2+1=7, 7*2+2=16, 16*2+3=35, 35*2+4=74, 74*2+5=153.
Q53Computer Awareness

The standard ASCII coding scheme uses how many bits to represent a single character ?

a6 bits
bNone of these
c16 bits
d7 bits
Answer: D
Standard ASCII is a 7-bit code that can represent 128 (2 to the power 7) different characters, ranging from 0 to 127.
Q54Computer Awareness

In the binary (computing) system, one kilobyte (1 KB) is equal to :

a1024 bytes
b1000 bytes
c100 bytes
dNone of these
Answer: A
In the traditional binary measurement used in computing, 1 kilobyte equals 2 to the power 10, that is 1024 bytes.
Q55Computer Awareness

Which part of the computer is commonly referred to as the 'brain' of the computer ?

aMonitor
bCentral Processing Unit (CPU)
cKeyboard
dNone of these
Answer: B
The CPU performs the arithmetic, logical and control operations of a computer, and is therefore called the brain of the computer.
Q56Computer Awareness

The default file name extension of a Microsoft Word document created in recent versions is :

a.xlsx
b.pptx
c.docx
dNone of these
Answer: C
Modern versions of Microsoft Word save documents in the Office Open XML format with the extension .docx; .xlsx is for Excel and .pptx for PowerPoint.
Q57Computer Awareness

In most word-processing and text applications, the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + V is used to :

aCopy the selected text
bCut the selected text
cNone of these
dPaste the copied or cut text
Answer: D
Ctrl + V pastes content from the clipboard; Ctrl + C copies and Ctrl + X cuts the selected text.
Q58Computer Awareness

WWW, which is commonly typed at the start of many web addresses, stands for :

aWorld Wide Web
bWide World Web
cWorld Web Wide
dNone of these
Answer: A
WWW stands for World Wide Web, an information system of interlinked documents accessed over the Internet.
Q59Computer Awareness

Which of the following is an input device ?

aMouse
bMonitor
cPrinter
dNone of these
Answer: A
A mouse feeds data and commands into the computer and is therefore an input device, whereas a printer and a monitor are output devices.
Q60Computer Awareness

Arrange the following units of computer storage in increasing order of size : Byte, Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte. The largest among them is :

aByte
bKilobyte
cGigabyte
dNone of these
Answer: C
The ascending order is Byte, Kilobyte, Megabyte and Gigabyte, so among the four given units the Gigabyte is the largest.
Q61Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (BNSS)

When a Court of Session in Gujarat passes a sentence of death, under the BNSS the proceedings must be submitted to the High Court and the sentence shall not be executed unless confirmed by it. This provision is contained in:

aSection 407
bSection 418
cSection 393
dSection 472
Answer: A
Section 407 BNSS requires the Court of Session to submit a death sentence to the High Court for confirmation, and the sentence cannot be executed until so confirmed.
Q62Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (BNSS)

Under Section 472 of the BNSS, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir or relative) may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within how many days from the date the jail Superintendent informs him of the dismissal of his appeal/SLP or confirmation of the death sentence?

aninety days
bfifteen days
csixty days
dthirty days
Answer: D
Section 472 BNSS prescribes a thirty-day period from intimation by the jail Superintendent for filing a mercy petition; where there are multiple convicts, the petition is to be filed within sixty days.
Q63Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (BNSS)

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a complaint disclosing a cognizable offence may now be lodged irrespective of the area in which the offence is committed, giving statutory recognition to the "Zero FIR". Which provision embodies this and the registration of first information?

aSection 200
bSection 190
cSection 154
dSection 173
Answer: D
Section 173 BNSS (replacing Section 154 CrPC) provides that information about a cognizable offence may be given at any police station irrespective of jurisdiction, statutorily recognising the Zero FIR. The case is then transferred to the police station having jurisdiction.
Q64Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (BNSS)

Where information regarding a cognizable offence is given to a police station by electronic communication under the BNSS, 2023, it is taken on record only when it is signed by the person giving it within:

aTwenty-four hours
bSeven days
cThree days
dFourteen days
Answer: C
Under the proviso to Section 173(1) BNSS, information given by electronic communication is taken on record only on being signed by the person giving it within three days.
Q65Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (BNSS)

Under Section 173(3) of the BNSS, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge of a police station may, with the prior permission of an officer not below which rank, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists?

aSuperintendent of Police
bInspector of Police
cSub-Inspector of Police
dDeputy Superintendent of Police
Answer: D
Section 173(3) BNSS permits a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days for offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Q66Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (BNSS)

In an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, the BNSS, 2023 makes it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and to videograph the process. This requirement is contained in:

aSection 175(2)
bSection 176(3)
cSection 184(1)
dSection 180(1)
Answer: B
Section 176(3) BNSS mandates that for offences punishable with seven years' imprisonment or more, a forensic expert shall visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and cause the process to be videographed.
Q67Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (BNSS)

A police officer may arrest a person without a warrant where credible information is received that he has committed a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to more than seven years or with death. Under the BNSS, 2023, this power of arrest is conferred by:

aSection 35
bSection 41
cSection 43
dSection 39
Answer: A
Section 35 BNSS (corresponding to Section 41 CrPC) sets out when a police officer may arrest without a warrant, including on credible information of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment exceeding seven years or with death.
Q68Indian Evidence Act (BSA)

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no person who is or has been married shall be compelled to disclose any communication made to him during marriage by his spouse, nor permitted to disclose it without consent, except in certain suits. This privilege is contained in:

aSection 134
bSection 128
cSection 132
dSection 126
Answer: B
Section 128 of the BSA protects communications made during marriage between spouses (old Section 122).
Q69Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when a confession made by an accused person appears to the Court to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from a person in authority and having reference to the charge, such confession is governed by:

aSection 23
bSection 25
cSection 24
dSection 22
Answer: D
Section 22 of the BSA renders a confession irrelevant in a criminal proceeding where it appears to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise from a person in authority having reference to the charge.
Q70Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)

A confession made to a police officer cannot be proved as against a person accused of any offence. This bar is contained in which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

aSection 24
bSection 23(1)
cSection 26
dSection 22
Answer: B
Section 23(1) of the BSA bars proof of a confession made to a police officer against an accused; the old Sections 25, 26 and 27 of the Indian Evidence Act stand consolidated into Section 23.
Q71Indian Evidence Act (BSA)

When the question is as to the cause of a person's death, a statement made by that person as to the cause of his death or as to any of the circumstances which resulted in his death (the dying declaration) is relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

aSection 26(a)
bSection 24(a)
cSection 32(a)
dSection 39(a)
Answer: A
The dying declaration, earlier under Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, is now relevant under Section 26(a) of the BSA, and applies whether the proceeding is civil or criminal.
Q72Indian Evidence Act (BSA)

Where the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science or art, or as to the identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant. Such persons are called experts under:

aSection 51 of the BSA
bSection 39 of the BSA
cSection 47 of the BSA
dSection 45 of the BSA
Answer: B
Opinion of experts, formerly Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, is now contained in Section 39 of the BSA.
Q73Indian Evidence Act (BSA)

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side. The general rule as to burden of proof is stated in:

aSection 101
bSection 109
cSection 104
dSection 106
Answer: C
The general provision on burden of proof, earlier Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, corresponds to Section 104 of the BSA.
Q74Indian Evidence Act (BSA)

The doctrine of res gestae, under which facts not in issue but so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are relevant, is embodied in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

aSection 4
bSection 9
cSection 6
dSection 7
Answer: A
Res gestae (facts forming part of the same transaction), earlier Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, is now Section 4 of the BSA.
Q75Gujarat local Acts / Special & Local Laws

Under the Gujarat Money-Lenders Act, 2011, the essential pre-condition for lawfully carrying on the business of money-lending is that the money-lender must:

abe a registered partnership firm
bhold a valid registration/licence granted under the Act
cbe assessed to income-tax for three preceding years
ddeposit security with the Reserve Bank of India
Answer: B
The 2011 Act prohibits carrying on money-lending business without a valid registration/licence, and non-compliance can lead to the court reporting the matter to the Registrar.
Q76Gujarat local Acts / Special & Local Laws

Under the permit system operating under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, a "health permit" for consumption of liquor is ordinarily granted only to an applicant who, among other conditions, has attained the age of:

a40 years
b25 years
c21 years
d60 years
Answer: A
Under the prohibition permit framework, a health permit is granted only to persons above 40 years who satisfy income and medical-necessity conditions.
Q77Gujarat local Acts / Special & Local Laws

Under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, a person who uses, keeps, transports or has in his possession "laththa" (spurious/methyl-mixed liquor) is, on conviction under Section 65A, liable to imprisonment which shall NOT be less than:

athree years
bseven years
ctwo years
dfive years
Answer: B
Section 65A of the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 prescribes imprisonment which may extend to ten years but shall not be less than seven years, plus fine, for dealing in laththa/spurious liquor.
Q78Gujarat local Acts / Special & Local Laws

Under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, a "health permit" authorising a person to use or consume foreign liquor for the preservation or maintenance of his health is granted under:

aSection 12
bSection 24A
cSection 40A
dSection 65
Answer: C
Section 40A of the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 empowers an authorised officer to grant a health permit for foreign liquor required for the health of the applicant; no such permit may be granted to a minor.
Q79Gujarat local Acts / Special & Local Laws

Under the Gujarat (Bombay) Police Act, 1951, an order of externment removing a person from a specified area shall, by virtue of Section 58, not be in force for a period exceeding:

atwo years
bsix months
cone year
dthree years
Answer: A
Section 58 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 caps the operative period of externment orders made under Sections 55, 56 and 57 at a maximum of two years.
Q80Gujarat local Acts / Special & Local Laws

Under the Gujarat Police Act, 1951, the power of the Commissioner/District Magistrate to make rules for regulation of traffic and for the preservation of order in public places and at public entertainments is contained in:

aSection 135
bSection 56
cSection 68
dSection 33
Answer: D
Section 33 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 confers wide power to make rules/regulations for traffic and preservation of order in public places, covering processions, music, licensing of entertainment places, etc.
Q81Gujarat local Acts / Special & Local Laws

Under the Bombay Money Lenders Act, 1946 (in force in Gujarat), a money-lending licence granted to a money-lender is, in the ordinary course, valid from the date of grant until:

athe date it is cancelled by the Registrar
bthe 31st day of December following
cthe expiry of three years
dthe 31st day of March following
Answer: B
Under the Bombay Money Lenders Act, 1946 a licence runs from its date of grant to the 31st December following, subject to a deeming clause keeping it alive while a timely renewal application is pending.
Q82Indian Contract Act, 1872

Under Section 135 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a surety is discharged when the creditor, without the surety's consent:

areleases one of several co-sureties
bmakes a composition with, or promises to give time to, or not to sue, the principal debtor
cmerely forbears to sue the principal debtor
dmakes any variance in the terms of the contract
Answer: B
Section 135 provides that a contract between the creditor and the principal debtor, by which the creditor makes a composition with, or promises to give time to, or not to sue, the principal debtor, discharges the surety, unless the surety assents to such contract.
Q83Indian Contract Act, 1872

The bailment of goods as security for the payment of a debt or the performance of a promise is, under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, termed:

amortgage
bhypothecation
cpledge
dlien
Answer: C
Section 172 defines 'pledge' as the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise; the bailor is called the 'pawnor' and the bailee the 'pawnee'.
Q84Indian Contract Act, 1872

The general lien of bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, is recognised under which section?

aSection 174
bSection 170
cSection 171
dSection 173
Answer: C
Section 171 confers a general lien on bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers, entitling them to retain, as security for a general balance of account, any goods bailed to them, in the absence of a contract to the contrary.
Q85Indian Contract Act, 1872

Section 185 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that for the creation of an agency:

athe agent must be of the age of majority
bno consideration is necessary
ca written and registered instrument is required
dconsideration is essential as in any other contract
Answer: B
Section 185 expressly states that no consideration is necessary to create an agency; this is an exception to the general rule under Section 25 that an agreement without consideration is void.
Q86Indian Contract Act, 1872

Where the agent has an interest in the subject-matter of the agency, the agency, in the absence of an express contract, cannot be terminated to the prejudice of such interest. This rule is contained in:

aSection 203
bSection 201
cSection 202
dSection 204
Answer: C
Section 202 provides that where the agent has himself an interest in the property forming the subject-matter of the agency, the agency cannot, in the absence of an express contract, be terminated to the prejudice of such interest.
Q87Indian Contract Act, 1872

An agreement entered into by a minor under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is, following the settled position of law, best described as:

avalid and binding on the minor
bvoidable at the option of the other party
cvoid ab initio
dvoidable at the option of the minor
Answer: C
Reading Sections 10 and 11, a person who is a minor is not competent to contract; in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) the Privy Council held that an agreement by a minor is void ab initio.
Q88Constitution of India

Under Article 233 of the Constitution of India, appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in a State are made by:

athe State Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
bthe President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
cthe Chief Justice of the High Court alone
dthe Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State
Answer: D
Article 233(1) vests the appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in the Governor of the State, who acts in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State.
Q89Constitution of India

X, a person not already in the service of the Union or the State, wishes to be appointed a district judge in Gujarat. Under Article 233(2), he is eligible only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than:

aseven years
bthree years
cten years
dfive years
Answer: A
Article 233(2) requires that a person not in the service of the Union or a State must have been an advocate or pleader for not less than seven years and be recommended by the High Court for appointment as a district judge.
Q90Constitution of India

The control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons holding posts inferior to that of district judge, is vested in the High Court under:

aArticle 233
bArticle 237
cArticle 235
dArticle 234
Answer: C
Article 235 vests in the High Court the control over the subordinate judiciary, including the posting, promotion and grant of leave to judicial officers below the rank of district judge.
Q91Constitution of India

Z is illegally detained by the police. Z's relative wishes to move the High Court of Gujarat for a direction to produce Z before the Court and to release him if the detention is unlawful. The appropriate writ is:

aQuo warranto
bMandamus
cHabeas corpus
dCertiorari
Answer: C
A writ of habeas corpus is issued to produce a detained person before the court and to secure his release where the detention is found to be without authority of law.
Q92Limitation Act, 1963

Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that on the determination of the period limited for instituting a suit for possession of any property:

athe right of such person to the property shall be extinguished
bthe plaintiff may still sue with the leave of the Court
conly the remedy, and not the right, is barred
dthe period stands automatically extended by three years
Answer: A
Section 27 is an exception to the general rule that limitation bars only the remedy; on expiry of the period for a suit for possession, the right to the property itself is extinguished.
Q93Limitation Act, 1963

Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for possession of immovable property based on title must be filed within twelve years, the period being computed from the date:

awhen the plaintiff first demands possession
bof the plaintiff's purchase of the property
cwhen the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff
dof registration of the title deed
Answer: C
Article 65 prescribes twelve years for a suit for possession based on title, running from when the defendant's possession becomes adverse to the plaintiff; failure to sue extinguishes title under Section 27.
Q94Limitation Act, 1963

An application to set aside a decree passed ex parte under Article 123 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 must be made within:

aninety days from the date of the decree in every case
bsixty days from the date of knowledge of the decree
cthirty days from the date of the decree, or where summons was not duly served, from when the applicant had knowledge of the decree
dthree years from the date of the decree
Answer: C
Article 123 prescribes thirty days for setting aside an ex parte decree, running from the date of the decree, or, where the summons was not duly served, from when the applicant had knowledge of it.
Q95Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

Under Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the expression 'negotiable instrument' means:

aOnly a cheque drawn on a banker
bAny document of title to goods that is transferable by delivery
cA fixed deposit receipt issued by a scheduled bank
dA promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer
Answer: D
Section 13 defines a negotiable instrument to mean a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer.
Q96Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

Under Section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the effect of a material alteration of a negotiable instrument made without the consent of all parties liable is that the instrument is:

aVoidable at the option of the holder only
bSuspended in operation until the alteration is ratified by a court
cRendered void as against anyone who was a party thereto at the time of the alteration and did not consent
dValid, but the altered sum alone becomes payable
Answer: C
Section 87 provides that any material alteration of a negotiable instrument renders it void as against anyone who is a party thereto at the time of making the alteration and does not consent to it.
Q97Specific Relief Act, 1963

Which of the following contracts is NOT specifically enforceable under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018)?

aA contract which is in its nature determinable
bA contract to convey a registered trade mark
cA contract for the transfer of a unique antique chattel
dA contract for the sale of a specified immovable property
Answer: A
Section 14 lists contracts that cannot be specifically enforced, including a contract which is in its nature determinable, one where the party has obtained substituted performance, one involving a continuous duty the court cannot supervise, and one dependent on personal qualifications.
Q98Transfer of Property Act, 1882

The doctrine of lis pendens, which provides that during the pendency of a suit in which a right to immovable property is directly and specifically in question the property cannot be transferred so as to affect any party's rights under the decree, is embodied in which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

aSection 41
bSection 48
cSection 53A
dSection 52
Answer: D
Section 52 embodies the doctrine of lis pendens (lis pendens nihil innovetur), barring any party from transferring the disputed immovable property during pendency of the suit so as to affect the rights of any other party under the decree.
Q99Hindu Law

On a petition for divorce by mutual consent under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the motion for a decree of divorce must be made by both parties:

anot earlier than three months and not later than one year after presentation of the petition
bat any time within one year of presentation of the petition
cnot earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months after presentation of the petition
dnot earlier than one year and not later than two years after presentation of the petition
Answer: C
Under Section 13B(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the second motion is to be made not earlier than six months and not later than eighteen months after the date of presentation of the petition; the six-month period has been held directory by the Supreme Court in Amardeep Singh v. Harveen Kaur (2017).

Practiced enough reading? Attempt Gujarat Judiciary mocks under real exam conditions and track your weak subjects.

Take the timed test →
Law Mock is an independent preparation resource and is not affiliated with any High Court, Public Service Commission, or government body. All exam information is sourced from official notifications and is updated periodically.