Gujarat Judiciary Mock Test 6 — Questions & Solutions

A is convicted of theft for a second time. Under the proviso to Section 303(2) BNS dealing with subsequent conviction, A is punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces 'snatching' as a distinct offence. Under Section 304(2) BNS, snatching is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:

A threatens B anonymously, concealing his own name, that he will cause grievous hurt to B. Apart from the punishment for criminal intimidation, the additional imprisonment that may be imposed under Section 351(4) BNS for concealing identity may extend to:

Under Exception 1 to Section 101 BNS, culpable homicide is not murder if the offender causes death whilst deprived of the power of self-control by:

A, a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the commands of the law. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A's act is protected by which general exception?

A, by quickly and suddenly seizing a mobile phone from the hand of Z and running away, commits which offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of criminal conspiracy is dealt with under:

Where a woman dies due to burns or bodily injury within seven years of marriage and it is shown she was subjected to cruelty in connection with a demand for dowry, the offence of dowry death falls under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence committed when a husband or a relative of the husband of a woman subjects her to cruelty is dealt with under:

The offence of 'organised crime', newly introduced into the general penal law, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a 'terrorist act' is dealt with under:

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: He has been living in this city ____ 2015.

A is the brother of B. C is the mother of B. D is the father of C. How is A related to D?

Choose the option that best fills the blank to form a grammatically correct sentence: Neither the judge nor the lawyers ____ ready for the hearing.

Find the odd one out: 121, 144, 169, 196, 225, 250

A train running at 72 km/hr crosses a pole in 12 seconds. What is the length of the train?

Choose the correct one-word substitution for: 'A government by the rich'.

The average of five consecutive even numbers is 36. What is the largest of these numbers?

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The new evidence was so ____ that the court had no option but to convict the accused.

Choose the word which is the ANTONYM of: PLACID

Complete the given series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, 38, ______

In a certain code language, 'TABLE' is written as 'UBCMF'. How will 'CHAIR' be written in that code language?

Give the appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom: After hours of argument, the committee finally decided to 'bury the hatchet'.

Who was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025?

The Statue of Unity, the world's tallest statue, is dedicated to which national leader and is located in which district of Gujarat?

Which country won the 2025 ICC Champions Trophy by defeating New Zealand in the final at Dubai?

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to María Corina Machado, an opposition leader from which country?

Which is the largest district by area in India, located in the state of Gujarat?

The city of Ahmedabad, founded in 1411, is situated on the banks of which river?

At the 2024 Paris Olympics, Neeraj Chopra won a silver medal in which athletics event?

Smt. Droupadi Murmu, who took office in July 2022, is which numbered President of India?

The height of the Statue of Unity, 182 metres, was deliberately chosen to correspond to which number?

GIFT City, India's first operational International Financial Services Centre, is located in which state?

The general power of the High Court and the District Court to transfer and withdraw suits, appeals or other proceedings is provided under which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Settlement of disputes outside the Court through arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat, or mediation is provided under which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under Section 100A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order has been heard and decided by a single Judge of a High Court:

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes when the amount or value of the subject-matter does not exceed:

A second appeal to the High Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies only where the case involves:

The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court over subordinate courts which have exercised jurisdiction not vested in them, or failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity, is contained in which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

No suit shall be defeated by reason of the misjoinder or non-joinder of parties, and the Court may at any stage add or strike out parties. This provision is found in:

Under Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an application for execution of a decree dealt with arrest and detention of the judgment-debtor, and other modes, is initiated. The Order which exclusively deals with 'Execution of Decrees and Orders' is:

Before instituting a suit against the Government or a public officer in respect of an act purporting to be done in his official capacity, a notice is mandatorily required under which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Explanation VIII to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that an issue heard and finally decided by a Court of limited jurisdiction, competent to decide such issue, shall operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit:

A sum of money becomes Rs. 13,500 in 2 years and Rs. 15,750 in 3 years 6 months at simple interest. What is the principal?

If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', how is 'JUDGE' written in that code?

The average age of 30 students in a class is 14 years. When the teacher's age is included, the average increases by 1 year. What is the teacher's age?

A train 180 metres long crosses a platform 270 metres long in 30 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 6 : 5, then A : B : C is:

Find the odd one out: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 100

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 18 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, in how much time will the tank be full?

In a row of 40 children, Ramesh is 11th from the left and Suresh is 14th from the right. How many children are there between them?

A shopkeeper marks an article 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 25%. What is his profit percentage?

An e-mail address always contains which of the following symbols ?

A self-replicating malicious program that attaches itself to other files and spreads from one computer to another is called a :

The number system used internally by digital computers, which uses only the digits 0 and 1, is the :

Which of the following is a valid IPv4 address ?

Which type of computer memory is volatile, meaning it loses all its stored contents when the power supply is switched off?

An IPv6 address has a total length of:

In the keyboard shortcut convention used in MS Word and most Windows applications, the combination Ctrl + Z performs which action?

What does the abbreviation 'URL', used to identify the address of a web page, stand for?

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, the maximum period for which detention otherwise than in police custody may extend, for an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for ten years or more, is:

A novel feature of the BNSS, 2023 is that the fifteen days of police custody of an accused need not be taken at a stretch but may be sought in parts during the initial portion of detention. The provision dealing with custody and detention of an accused during investigation is:

Under the BNSS, 2023 the entire process of search and seizure, including the preparation of the list of seized articles and the signing of the list by witnesses, shall, where the police officer is capable of doing so, be recorded through audio-video electronic means. This mandate is contained in:

Under Section 230 of the BNSS, 2023, in a case instituted on a police report, the Magistrate shall furnish to the accused, and to the victim if represented by an advocate, copies of the police report, FIR, statements and other documents within:

Order for maintenance of wives, children and parents, formerly contained in Section 125 of the CrPC, is now found in the BNSS, 2023 under:

Under the BNSS, 2023, the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding:

A significant innovation of the BNSS, 2023 is the provision for inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded and there is no immediate prospect of arresting him. This is provided in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, oral evidence must in all cases whatever be direct. This rule is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, primary evidence means the document itself produced for the inspection of the Court. The definition of primary evidence is found in:

Certified copies, copies made from the original by mechanical processes, and oral accounts of the contents of a document given by a person who has himself seen it, are all included within the meaning of secondary evidence under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

When the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman, and it is shown that soon before her death she had been subjected by such person to cruelty or harassment in connection with any demand for dowry, the Court shall presume that such person caused the dowry death. This presumption is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the illustration that an accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars is appended to which section dealing with the Court's power to presume the existence of certain facts?

The principle of estoppel, under which a person who by his declaration, act or omission has caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon that belief shall not be allowed to deny its truth, is embodied in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the competency of a witness to testify, namely that all persons are competent unless prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers by tender years, extreme old age, disease or the like, is dealt with in:

Under the Bombay Money Lenders Act, 1946 as applicable in Gujarat, the prohibition that no money-lender shall carry on the business of money-lending without obtaining a licence is contained in:

Under the Gujarat Land Revenue Code, 1879, when the village accountant (Talati) enters an acquisition or transfer of right in the register of mutations, notice must be given to interested persons and objections invited. This register of mutations is maintained under:

Under the Gujarat Agricultural Lands Ceiling Act, 1960, an appeal against the award of the Collector determining surplus land lies to the:

Under the Gujarat Stamp Act, 1958, the duty cast on every person having authority to receive evidence, or in charge of a public office, to impound an instrument produced before him which is not duly stamped, flows from:

Under the Gujarat Stamp Act, 1958, the provision under which a person may, on payment of the prescribed fee, bring an instrument to the Collector for his opinion as to the duty (if any) with which it is chargeable is:

Under the Gujarat Control of Terrorism and Organised Crime Act, 2019, a confession made before a police officer is admissible in trial, notwithstanding the Evidence Act, only if recorded by an officer not below the rank of:

Under the Gujarat Control of Terrorism and Organised Crime Act, 2019, where investigation cannot be completed within ninety days, the Special Court may, on a report of the Public Prosecutor, extend the period of detention pending completion of investigation up to a maximum of:

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following provisions defines an "agreement" as a promise or every set of promises forming the consideration for each other?

A agrees to sell his house to B without any consideration, but the agreement is in writing, registered, and made on account of natural love and affection, A and B being brothers. The agreement is:

In the landmark decision of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), the Privy Council held that an agreement entered into by a minor is:

Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, declares that an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void?

Compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract, confined to such loss as naturally arose in the usual course of things or as the parties knew was likely to result, is provided for under:

Where a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, entitles the aggrieved party to receive:

The power of a High Court to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose is conferred by:

Fundamental Duties were originally added to the Constitution of India by which Amendment Act, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee?

The eleventh Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k), requiring a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years, was added by:

Part IX of the Constitution dealing with 'The Panchayats' (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the Eleventh Schedule were added by:

Under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the power to condone delay on "sufficient cause" is available in respect of:

Which of the following correctly states the effect of Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963?

Section 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the proceeding may be instituted, preferred or made:

Under Section 143A of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the interim compensation that a court may direct the drawer to pay during the pendency of proceedings shall NOT exceed:

Under Section 4 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a promissory note is an instrument containing:

Under the proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a court shall not make a declaration of status or right where:

Which of the following is NOT one of the essential conditions for a transferee to claim protection under the doctrine of part performance contained in Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, under Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the daughter of a coparcener in a Mitakshara joint Hindu family: