Gujarat Judiciary Mock Test 10 — Questions & Solutions
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X throws acid on Y's face intending to cause permanent disfiguration, and Y suffers grievous hurt. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the specific offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid is punishable under:
aSection 326A
bSection 116
cSection 118
dSection 124
Answer: D
Section 124 BNS deals with voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid (formerly Section 326A IPC). Section 116 merely defines grievous hurt.
Under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is NOT designated as 'grievous hurt'?
aPermanent privation of the sight of either eye
bA simple bruise that heals within three days
cPermanent disfiguration of the head or face
dFracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
Answer: B
Section 116 BNS enumerates the only kinds of hurt designated as grievous, including emasculation, permanent privation of sight/hearing, fracture or dislocation, and permanent disfiguration. A minor bruise healing in three days is simple hurt, not grievous.
Z threatens A, saying he will burn down A's house unless A withdraws a complaint pending before a Gujarat court. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of criminal intimidation committed by Z is defined in:
aSection 351
bSection 506
cSection 503
dSection 356
Answer: A
Section 351 BNS defines and punishes criminal intimidation (a threat of injury to person, reputation or property) — formerly Section 503/506 IPC. Section 356 BNS deals with defamation.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching' — where, in order to commit theft, the offender suddenly or quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property from a person or from his possession — is a fresh statutory offence dealt with under:
aSection 309
bSection 379
cSection 303
dSection 304
Answer: D
Section 304 BNS newly codifies 'snatching' as a distinct offence, punishable with imprisonment up to three years and fine; it has no exact equivalent in the IPC. Section 303 deals with theft and Section 309 with robbery.
A, knowing that B is suffering from a fatal disease and is likely to die, gives B a blow which, though not intended to cause death, is done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause B's death, and B dies. A is liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where such an act is done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause death but without any intention to cause death, the maximum term of imprisonment provided is:
aFive years
bSeven years
cImprisonment for life
dTen years
Answer: D
Under Section 105 BNS, where culpable homicide not amounting to murder is done with knowledge that the act is likely to cause death but without any intention to cause death, the punishment is imprisonment of either description up to ten years and fine.
Under the scheme of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'culpable homicide' and 'murder' are defined in which sections respectively?
aSection 100 and Section 101
bSection 299 and Section 300
cSection 101 and Section 103
dSection 103 and Section 105
Answer: A
Section 100 BNS defines culpable homicide and Section 101 BNS defines murder; this corresponds to the former Sections 299 and 300 IPC. Punishment for murder is separately provided in Section 103 BNS.
Where any person commits suicide, whoever abets the commission of such suicide is, under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, punishable under:
aSection 309
bSection 226
cSection 108
dSection 106
Answer: C
Section 108 BNS punishes abetment of suicide with imprisonment up to ten years and fine. Section 106 deals with causing death by negligence, and attempt to commit suicide as a general offence is no longer punishable as under the old IPC Section 309.
A threatens B, saying that unless B withdraws a complaint, A will set fire to B's house, with intent to cause alarm to B. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence committed by A is dealt with under:
aSection 309 (robbery)
bSection 351 (criminal intimidation)
cSection 303 (theft)
dSection 356 (defamation)
Answer: B
Threatening another with injury to person, reputation or property with intent to cause alarm or to compel an act constitutes criminal intimidation under Section 351 BNS (formerly Section 503/506 IPC).
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of "snatching" (where the offender suddenly or quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property to commit theft) is dealt with under which section, and what is the maximum imprisonment prescribed?
aSection 303, imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine
bSection 305, imprisonment which may extend to seven years and fine
cSection 304, imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine
dSection 302, imprisonment which may extend to two years and fine
Answer: C
Section 304 BNS is a newly introduced provision defining "snatching"; sub-section (2) prescribes imprisonment of either description which may extend to three years and also fine. There was no separate corresponding offence in the IPC.
A man walks 4 km towards North, then turns right and walks 3 km. How far is he from the starting point and in which direction?
a5 km, North-West
b7 km, East
c1 km, South
d5 km, North-East
Answer: D
The path forms a right triangle with legs 4 km (North) and 3 km (East); the straight-line distance is sqrt(16+9) = 5 km, and the endpoint lies to the North-East.
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times itself at the same rate?
a20 years
b16 years
c32 years
d24 years
Answer: D
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years (rate 12.5%). To become four times, interest must equal 3 times the principal, needing 24 years.
Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom in the sentence: "When the audit began, the manager decided to come clean about the missing funds."
aTo accuse someone else
bTo wash the records thoroughly
cTo resign from the post
dTo confess the truth honestly
Answer: D
The idiom "to come clean" means to confess or tell the truth about something previously concealed; here the manager admits the truth about the missing funds.
A clock is set correctly at 12:00 noon. It gains 5 minutes every hour. What time will the clock actually show when the correct time is 6:00 p.m. on the same day?
a6:25 p.m.
b6:40 p.m.
c6:30 p.m.
d6:35 p.m.
Answer: C
From noon to 6:00 p.m. is 6 hours; gaining 5 minutes per hour gives 6 x 5 = 30 extra minutes, so the clock shows 6:30 p.m.
Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai, who was sworn in during 2025, became the Chief Justice of India holding which serial position?
a52nd
b50th
c51st
d53rd
Answer: A
Justice B. R. Gavai took oath on 14 May 2025 as the 52nd Chief Justice of India, succeeding Justice Sanjiv Khanna, and was the second judge from a Scheduled Caste to hold the office.
The Tropic of Cancer enters India from the Arabian Sea and passes through which one of the following Gujarat districts?
aSurat
bJunagadh
cValsad
dKutch
Answer: D
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees N) enters India through Gujarat, passing across districts including Kutch, while southern districts such as Surat, Junagadh and Valsad lie south of it.
Gir National Park in Gujarat is famous as the only natural wild habitat in the world of which animal?
aAsiatic lion
bOne-horned rhinoceros
cBengal tiger
dSnow leopard
Answer: A
The Gir forest in Gujarat is the world's only wild home of the Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica); the 2025 census recorded about 674 lions in the region.
Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B. R. Gavai?
aJustice D. Y. Chandrachud
bJustice Sanjiv Khanna
cJustice Surya Kant
dJustice Sanjay Kishan Kaul
Answer: C
Justice Surya Kant was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B. R. Gavai; his tenure runs until February 2027.
The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado for her work promoting democratic rights. She is an opposition leader from which country?
aNicaragua
bCuba
cColombia
dVenezuela
Answer: D
Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado won the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize for her work promoting democratic rights and a peaceful transition from dictatorship to democracy in Venezuela.
India won its maiden ICC Women's Cricket World Cup title in November 2025 by defeating which team by 52 runs in the final at Navi Mumbai?
aEngland
bSouth Africa
cNew Zealand
dAustralia
Answer: B
India beat South Africa by 52 runs in the final at the DY Patil Stadium, Navi Mumbai, on 2 November 2025 to lift their first-ever Women's Cricket World Cup, with Deepti Sharma named Player of the Tournament.
Who was elected the Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha in June 2024 after a rare contested election, defeating Kodikunnil Suresh?
aSumitra Mahajan
bOm Birla
cRajnath Singh
dBhartruhari Mahtab
Answer: B
Om Birla of the BJP was re-elected Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha on 26 June 2024, defeating the INDIA bloc's Kodikunnil Suresh in a rare contested Speaker's election.
Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla, who travelled aboard the Axiom-4 mission in 2025, became the first Indian to do which of the following?
aVisit the International Space Station
bWalk on the surface of the Moon
cPilot a reusable rocket
dTravel to space (the very first Indian in space)
Answer: A
Shubhanshu Shukla flew as pilot on Axiom Mission 4, launched 25 June 2025, becoming the first Indian to visit the International Space Station and the second Indian in space after Rakesh Sharma (1984).
In the October 2025 cabinet reshuffle in Gujarat, who became the first-ever Deputy Chief Minister appointed under the Bhupendra Patel government?
aNitin Patel
bKanu Desai
cHarsh Sanghavi
dRivaba Jadeja
Answer: C
Harsh Sanghavi, the former Minister of State for Home and MLA from Majura, was sworn in as Gujarat's Deputy Chief Minister on 17 October 2025, the first such appointment under the Bhupendra Patel regime.
The 2025 International Booker Prize was won by 'Heart Lamp', translated by Deepa Bhasthi. From which Indian language was it translated, and who is its author?
aMalayalam; author Benyamin
bKannada; author Banu Mushtaq
cHindi; author Geetanjali Shree
dTamil; author Perumal Murugan
Answer: B
'Heart Lamp' by Banu Mushtaq, translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, won the 2025 International Booker Prize, the first Kannada work and first short-story collection to win the award.
The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics, shared by John Clarke, Michel Devoret and John Martinis, was awarded for the discovery of which phenomenon in an electric circuit?
aQuantum entanglement of photons
bHigh-temperature superconductivity
cThe quantum Hall effect
dMacroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantization
Answer: D
The 2025 Physics Nobel honoured Clarke, Devoret and Martinis 'for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit', work foundational to superconducting qubits.
Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 do the Courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred?
aSection 9
bSection 20
cSection 26
dSection 15
Answer: A
Section 9 confers on civil courts jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those whose cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred.
The doctrine of res judicata, barring a court from trying an issue already directly and substantially in issue and finally decided between the same parties in a former suit, is embodied in which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSection 11
bSection 12
cSection 10
dSection 13
Answer: A
Section 11 contains the principle of res judicata; Section 10 deals with stay of suit (res sub judice).
A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies only where the case involves:
aa substantial question of law
ba mixed question of law and fact alone
can error apparent on the face of the record
dany question of fact
Answer: A
After the 1976 amendment, a second appeal under Section 100 lies to the High Court only if the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated by the Court.
Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a person who lodges a caveat (the caveator) entitled to be heard, and for what maximum period does such caveat remain in force?
aSection 148 – 30 days
bSection 151 – 120 days
cSection 144 – 60 days
dSection 148A – 90 days
Answer: D
Section 148A provides for lodging of a caveat and a caveat remains in force for ninety days from the date on which it is lodged.
Where one of several defendants dies and the right to sue does not survive against the surviving defendants alone, which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 governs the procedure on death of a defendant?
aOrder 22, Rule 9
bOrder 22, Rule 3
cOrder 22, Rule 4
dOrder 22, Rule 2
Answer: C
Order 22, Rule 4 deals with the procedure on death of one of several defendants or of a sole defendant, providing for substitution of legal representatives; Rule 3 deals with death of a plaintiff.
Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 are the particulars of a claim of set-off required to be stated by the defendant in the written statement?
aOrder 8, Rule 9
bOrder 8, Rule 6
cOrder 8, Rule 1
dOrder 8, Rule 10
Answer: B
Order 8, Rule 6 governs the doctrine of legal set-off and requires the particulars of the set-off claim to be stated in the written statement.
The power of the Court to add, strike out or substitute parties to a suit so that all persons necessary for effectually and completely adjudicating upon the questions involved are before it, is contained in:
aOrder 1, Rule 10
bOrder 1, Rule 8
cOrder 2, Rule 3
dOrder 1, Rule 9
Answer: A
Order 1, Rule 10 empowers the Court to add, substitute or strike out parties so that all necessary parties are before it for a complete adjudication.
A suit upon a bill of exchange, hundi or promissory note may be instituted as a summary suit under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aOrder 35
bOrder 39
cOrder 37
dOrder 33
Answer: C
Order 37 provides for summary procedure in suits upon bills of exchange, hundies and promissory notes (and certain other liquidated demands), where the defendant must obtain leave to defend.
An application for a temporary injunction to restrain a defendant from committing a breach of contract or other injury, in any suit, is governed primarily by:
aOrder 38, Rule 5
bSection 94 read with Order 41
cOrder 39, Rules 1 and 2
dOrder 40, Rule 1
Answer: C
Order 39, Rules 1 and 2 govern the grant of temporary injunctions, including restraining a defendant from committing a breach of contract or other injury complained of.
The High Court's power of revision to call for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, is conferred by:
aSection 151
bSection 113
cSection 114
dSection 115
Answer: D
Section 115 confers revisional jurisdiction on the High Court over cases decided by subordinate courts where no appeal lies and a jurisdictional error is shown; Section 114 deals with review.
Find the next term in the series : Z, W, T, Q, ______
aN
bO
cM
dP
Answer: A
Each letter moves back by 3 positions in the alphabet (Z, W, T, Q). Three before Q is N.
Q48Reasoning / Mathematics
A motorboat whose speed in still water is 15 km/h goes 36 km downstream and comes back to the starting point. If the speed of the stream is 3 km/h, the total time taken for the entire journey is:
a4 hours
b5 hours 30 minutes
c5 hours
d4 hours 30 minutes
Answer: C
Downstream speed = 15 + 3 = 18 km/h, so time = 36/18 = 2 h; upstream speed = 15 - 3 = 12 km/h, so time = 36/12 = 3 h. Total = 2 + 3 = 5 hours.
On a certain sum the difference between the compound interest (compounded annually) and the simple interest for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 80. The sum is:
aRs. 12,000
bRs. 8,000
cRs. 6,000
dRs. 10,000
Answer: B
For 2 years, difference = P(r/100)^2 = P(10/100)^2 = P/100; so P/100 = 80, giving P = Rs. 8,000.
Which one of the following types of memory loses all its stored data the moment the power supply to the computer is switched off ?
aROM
bFlash memory
cRAM
dHard disk
Answer: C
RAM is volatile memory; it retains data only while powered and loses all contents when the power is removed, whereas ROM, flash and hard disks are non-volatile.
In a standard email application, the 'Bcc' field is used to :
aautomatically forward the message to the sender
battach a digital signature to the message
csend the message only after a delay
dsend a copy to recipients without revealing their addresses to the other recipients
Answer: D
'Bcc' stands for Blind Carbon Copy; recipients placed in the Bcc field receive the message, but their addresses remain hidden from all other recipients.
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, which agency is designated under Section 70B as the national nodal agency for responding to cyber security incidents?
aIndian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)
bNational Informatics Centre (NIC)
cNational Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC)
dStandardisation Testing and Quality Certification (STQC)
Answer: A
Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000 designates CERT-In as the national agency for cyber-incident response; it functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). NCIIPC (under Section 70A) protects only critical information infrastructure.
Section 66C of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (fraudulent use of another person's electronic signature, password or unique identification feature) prescribes a maximum imprisonment of:
aFive years and fine up to one lakh rupees
bTwo years and fine up to one lakh rupees
cThree years and fine up to one lakh rupees
dThree years and fine up to two lakh rupees
Answer: C
Section 66C punishes identity theft with imprisonment of either description up to three years and a fine up to one lakh rupees. It targets the dishonest misuse of credentials such as passwords, e-signatures or Aadhaar/PAN details.
Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, the entity that 'alone or in conjunction with others determines the purpose and means of processing of personal data' is termed a:
aData Fiduciary
bConsent Manager
cData Processor
dData Principal
Answer: A
Under the DPDP Act, 2023, a 'Data Fiduciary' decides the purpose and means of processing personal data (analogous to a 'controller' under GDPR), while the individual whose data is processed is the 'Data Principal'.
The standard (original) ASCII scheme uses 7 bits per character. The total number of distinct characters it can therefore represent is:
a128
b256
c512
d64
Answer: A
A 7-bit code yields 2^7 = 128 unique patterns, so standard ASCII encodes 128 characters (32 control codes from 0-31 and 96 printable characters from 32-127). Extended ASCII uses 8 bits for 256 characters.
The power of a Judicial Magistrate to record any confession or statement made in the course of an investigation under the BNSS, 2023 is conferred by :
aSection 183
bSection 184
cSection 164
dSection 180
Answer: A
Section 183 of the BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 164 CrPC) empowers a Judicial Magistrate to record confessions and statements during investigation, and permits recording by audio-video electronic means.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the examination of witnesses by the police during investigation, whereby a person is bound to answer truly all questions other than those tending to expose him to a criminal charge, penalty or forfeiture, is provided under :
aSection 175
bSection 180
cSection 161
dSection 181
Answer: B
Section 180 of the BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 161 CrPC) governs examination of witnesses by the police and permits recording of such statements by audio-video electronic means.
Power of the High Court or Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail to a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence is contained, under the BNSS, 2023, in :
aSection 483
bSection 482
cSection 480
dSection 438
Answer: B
Section 482 of the BNSS, 2023 corresponds to Section 438 of the old CrPC and deals with the grant of anticipatory bail by the High Court or Court of Session.
Under Section 283 of the BNSS, 2023 dealing with power to try certain offences summarily, the value of the property which is the subject matter of theft or like offences must not exceed :
aFifty thousand rupees
bTen thousand rupees
cTwenty thousand rupees
dTwo thousand rupees
Answer: C
Section 283 of the BNSS, 2023 raised the value of the property for summary trial of offences such as theft from two thousand rupees (under the old CrPC) to twenty thousand rupees.
Under Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may be less than three years and the person to be arrested is infirm or above sixty years of age, arrest shall not be made without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of :
aSub-Inspector of Police
bInspector of Police
cDeputy Superintendent of Police
dSuperintendent of Police
Answer: C
Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023 prohibits arrest in such cases without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the medical examination of the victim of an offence of rape by a registered medical practitioner is specifically provided for in :
aSection 185
bSection 53A
cSection 183
dSection 184
Answer: D
Section 184 of the BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 164A CrPC) deals with the medical examination of the victim of rape, requiring it within twenty-four hours of receipt of information regarding the offence.
A new provision introduced by the BNSS, 2023 enabling all trials, inquiries and proceedings, including the recording of evidence, to be held in electronic mode is contained in :
aSection 530
bSection 532
cSection 482
dSection 510
Answer: B
Section 532 of the BNSS, 2023 expressly permits all trials, inquiries and proceedings (including issuance of summons/warrants and recording of evidence) to be held in electronic mode, a key technological reform absent from the old CrPC.
Certified copies, copies made from the original by a mechanical process, and oral accounts of the contents of a document given by a person who has himself seen it, are illustrations of:
aConclusive proof under Section 2
bDocumentary evidence under Section 56
cPrimary evidence under Section 57
dSecondary evidence under Section 58
Answer: D
Section 58 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 63 of the Evidence Act) enumerates secondary evidence, which includes certified copies, mechanical copies and oral accounts of contents by a person who has seen the document.
"Whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist." This general rule of burden of proof is contained in:
aSection 105 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
bSection 104 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
cSection 101 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
dSection 106 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
Answer: B
Section 104 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 101 of the Evidence Act) lays down the general rule that the burden of proof lies on the person who asserts the existence of facts on which he relies.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, in a suit or proceeding the burden of proof lies on that person who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side. This is provided in:
aSection 108
bSection 104
cSection 105
dSection 109
Answer: C
Section 105 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 102 of the Evidence Act) provides that the burden of proof lies on the party who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side.
The doctrine of estoppel, whereby a person who has by his declaration, act or omission intentionally caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon such belief is not allowed to deny its truth, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 115
bSection 124
cSection 121
dSection 118
Answer: C
Section 121 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 115 of the Evidence Act) embodies the rule of estoppel.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a leading question, i.e., any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive, is dealt with under:
aSection 143
bSection 146
cSection 148
dSection 151
Answer: B
Section 146 of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 141 of the Evidence Act) defines a leading question as one which suggests the answer the questioner wishes or expects to receive.
Under Section 39(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when the court has to form an opinion on any matter relating to information transmitted or stored in a computer resource or other electronic or digital form, the opinion of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence is a relevant fact. The Examiner of Electronic Evidence referred to in this sub-section is the one notified under which of the following provisions?
aSection 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000
bSection 84A of the Information Technology Act, 2000
cSection 65B of the repealed Indian Evidence Act, 1872
dSection 45A of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
Answer: A
Section 39(2) of the BSA expressly relies on the opinion of the 'Examiner of Electronic Evidence referred to in section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000', and the Explanation deems such examiner to be an expert.
Under Section 92 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where a document purporting or proved to be thirty years old is produced from custody which the Court considers proper, the Court may presume which of the following?
aThat the document was registered under the Registration Act regardless of any endorsement
bThat the contents of the document are admitted by every party to the proceeding
cThat the signature and every part of the document in a particular person's handwriting is in that handwriting, and, if executed or attested, that it was duly executed and attested
dThat every recital of fact contained in the document is conclusively true and cannot be rebutted
Answer: C
Section 92 of the BSA (corresponding to Section 90 of the repealed Evidence Act) raises a presumption that the handwriting/signature is genuine and that an executed or attested thirty-year-old document was duly executed and attested; it does not presume the truth of recitals.
Under the Gujarat Police Act, 1951, an order of removal (externment) of a person from any area under Section 56 may be made for a period not exceeding:
aThree years
bTwo years
cOne year
dSix months
Answer: B
Section 56 of the Gujarat (Bombay) Police Act, 1951 empowers the competent authority to direct removal of a person whose movements or acts are dangerous to public peace for a period not exceeding two years.
A person aggrieved by an order of externment passed under Section 56 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 may, under Section 60, prefer an appeal to:
aThe Sessions Court within thirty days
bThe State Government within thirty days
cThe Director General of Police within fifteen days
dThe High Court within sixty days
Answer: B
Section 60 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 provides that any person aggrieved by an externment order under Section 56 may appeal to the State Government within thirty days, and the State Government must give a reasonable opportunity of being heard before disposing of the appeal.
Under Section 37 of the Bombay Land Revenue Code, 1879 (as applicable in Gujarat), all public roads, lanes and paths, and all lands which are not the property of any person, are declared to:
abelong to and be the property of the State Government
bbe held in trust by the Collector for the occupants
cbe the common property of the adjoining occupants
dvest absolutely in the village panchayat
Answer: A
Section 37 of the Bombay Land Revenue Code, 1879 declares that all public roads, lanes, paths, bridges, ditches, rivers and all lands wherever situated which are not the property of others belong to and are the property of the State Government.
Under the Mamlatdars' Courts Act, 1906, the jurisdiction of a Mamlatdar's Court to grant injunctions and order removal of impediments is essentially confined to which class of property?
aOnly Government waste lands and forest lands
bAll immovable property, whether agricultural or urban
cAgricultural lands and premises used for agriculture or grazing
dResidential and commercial buildings in municipal limits
Answer: C
The Mamlatdars' Courts Act, 1906 confers a summary jurisdiction limited to agricultural lands or land used for agriculture/grazing; under Section 5 the Mamlatdar may grant injunctions and order removal of impediments to lawful use of such land, but cannot grant declarations of title.
Under Section 34 of the Bombay (Gujarat) Stamp Act, 1958, an instrument chargeable with duty but not duly stamped is, as a general rule:
ainadmissible in evidence for any purpose unless the duty and penalty are paid
bvoid ab initio and incapable of validation
cadmissible only in civil and not in criminal proceedings
dadmissible in evidence but cannot be registered
Answer: A
Section 34 of the Bombay (Gujarat) Stamp Act, 1958 bars an instrument not duly stamped from being admitted in evidence or acted upon; however the proviso allows it to be admitted on payment of the deficient duty together with the prescribed penalty.
In a trial in Gujarat for a mob-lynching killing, the prosecution invokes Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (group of five or more persons committing murder on the ground of caste, community, etc.). The minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for each member of such group is:
aNot less than seven years
bImprisonment for life only
cNot less than five years
dNot less than ten years
Answer: A
Section 103(2) BNS, 2023 provides that where a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any other ground, each member shall be punished with death or imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term not less than seven years, and fine.
Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a police officer may, with prior permission of a superior officer, conduct a preliminary enquiry before registering an FIR only where the cognizable offence is punishable with imprisonment for:
aany term, at the officer's discretion
bthree years or more but less than seven years
cseven years or more
dless than three years
Answer: B
Section 173(3) BNSS, 2023 permits a preliminary enquiry (with prior permission of an officer not below DSP rank) to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists, but only for cognizable offences punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years; for graver offences registration of FIR is mandatory.
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which section provides that any variance made without the surety's consent in the terms of the contract between the principal debtor and the creditor discharges the surety as to transactions subsequent to the variance?
aSection 133
bSection 141
cSection 134
dSection 128
Answer: A
Section 133 provides that a variance made without the surety's consent in the terms of the contract between the principal debtor and the creditor discharges the surety as to transactions subsequent to the variance. Section 128 deals with the co-extensive liability of the surety.
Section 171 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which deals with the general lien retaining goods as security for a general balance of account, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, is available to all of the following EXCEPT:
aWharfingers and policy-brokers
bBankers
cInnkeepers
dFactors
Answer: C
Section 171 confers a general lien only on bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers, in the absence of a contract to the contrary. Innkeepers are not within the enumerated class; other bailees have only a particular lien under Section 170.
Under Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called:
aA lien, the bailee being the lienholder
bA pledge, the bailor being the pawnor and the bailee the pawnee
cA hypothecation, the bailor being the mortgagor
dAn indemnity, the bailor being the indemnifier
Answer: B
Section 172 defines a pledge as the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise; the bailor is the pawnor and the bailee is the pawnee. It is a special kind of bailment.
Under Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when an agreement is discovered to be void, or a contract becomes void, any person who has received an advantage under it is bound to:
aForfeit the advantage to the State
bRestore it only if the agreement was void from the beginning
cRetain it absolutely, the agreement being void
dRestore it, or make compensation for it, to the person from whom he received it
Answer: D
Section 65 provides that when an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, any person who has received any advantage under it is bound to restore it, or to make compensation for it, to the person from whom he received it.
Under Section 202 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where an agent has himself an interest in the property which forms the subject-matter of the agency, the agency:
aIs void from the outset
bCannot, in the absence of an express contract, be terminated to the prejudice of that interest
cTerminates automatically on the death of the principal
dCan be terminated at any time by the principal
Answer: B
Section 202 provides that where the agent has himself an interest in the subject-matter of the agency, the agency cannot, in the absence of an express contract, be terminated to the prejudice of such interest. This creates an agency coupled with interest, which is irrevocable.
Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful in which of the following circumstances?
aWhere it is forbidden by law
bWhere the court regards it as immoral or opposed to public policy
cWhere it would, if permitted, defeat the provisions of any law, or is fraudulent, or involves injury to the person or property of another
dAll of the above
Answer: D
Section 23 declares the consideration or object of an agreement unlawful where it is forbidden by law, would defeat the provisions of any law, is fraudulent, involves or implies injury to the person or property of another, or is regarded by the court as immoral or opposed to public policy. In each such case the agreement is void.
Under Article 213, an Ordinance promulgated by the Governor shall cease to operate at the expiration of:
asix weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature
bthe date on which the Legislature next reassembles
csix months from the date of promulgation
dfour weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature
Answer: A
Under Article 213, a Governor's Ordinance must be laid before the State Legislature and ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature, unless approved earlier or withdrawn sooner.
Which Article of the Constitution was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution and is itself a fundamental right?
aArticle 19
bArticle 21
cArticle 32
dArticle 14
Answer: C
Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) was called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar; it guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights and is itself a fundamental right.
A Judge of a High Court holds office, under Article 217(1), until he attains the age of:
asixty years
bsixty-five years
csixty-two years
dfifty-eight years
Answer: C
Under Article 217(1), a High Court Judge holds office until the age of sixty-two years, in contrast to Supreme Court Judges who retire at sixty-five years under Article 124(2).
Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for possession of immovable property or any interest therein based on title is governed by a limitation period of:
aTwelve years from the date the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff
bTwelve years from the date of the plaintiff's dispossession
cThree years from dispossession
dThirty years from accrual of title
Answer: A
Article 65 prescribes twelve years for a possession suit based on title, computed from the point when the defendant's possession becomes adverse to the plaintiff (the burden of proving adverse possession lying on the defendant).
Article 136 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 prescribes the period for execution of a decree or order of a civil court (other than a decree granting a mandatory injunction) as:
aThree years from the date of the decree
bSix years from the date of the decree
cTwelve years from when the decree or order becomes enforceable
dThirty years from the date of the decree
Answer: C
Article 136 fixes twelve years for execution of a decree or order, running from when it becomes enforceable; a decree granting a perpetual injunction is expressly not subject to any period of limitation.
Which of the following carries the longest period of limitation of thirty years under the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963?
aAn application to set aside an ex parte decree under Article 123
bA suit by a mortgagor to redeem or recover possession of immovable property mortgaged under Article 61
cA suit for compensation for breach of contract under Article 55
dA suit for possession based on title under Article 65
Answer: B
Article 61, a suit by the mortgagor to redeem or recover possession of mortgaged immovable property, carries a thirty-year period (the longest in the Schedule, shared with suits by/against Government under Article 112); the others carry shorter periods.
On conviction for dishonour of a cheque under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the offender may be punished with imprisonment which may extend up to a term, and/or with fine. What is the maximum punishment prescribed?
aImprisonment up to two years and mandatory fine equal to the amount of the cheque
bImprisonment up to three years, or fine up to twice the amount of the cheque, or both
cImprisonment up to one year, or fine up to the amount of the cheque, or both
dImprisonment up to two years, or fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque, or both
Answer: D
Section 138 prescribes punishment with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque, or with both.
Under Section 143A of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the court trying an offence under Section 138 may order the drawer to pay interim compensation to the complainant. Such interim compensation shall not exceed:
aTwenty per cent of the amount of the cheque
bTen per cent of the amount of the cheque
cTwenty-five per cent of the amount of the cheque
dFifty per cent of the amount of the cheque
Answer: A
Section 143A (inserted by the 2018 Amendment) provides that interim compensation ordered against the drawer shall not exceed twenty per cent of the amount of the cheque, payable within sixty days of the order.
Under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted in which of the following situations?
aTo protect a registered proprietor's right against infringement
bTo prevent the breach of a contract for the sale of immovable property
cTo restrain a continuing trespass upon the plaintiff's land
dTo prevent a person from instituting or prosecuting a proceeding in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought
Answer: D
Section 41(b) bars an injunction to restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought.
Under Section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a gift of immovable property is effected by:
aDelivery of possession alone, registration being optional
bA registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses
cAn unregistered writing signed by the donor and the donee
dAn oral declaration in the presence of two witnesses
Answer: B
Section 123 requires that a gift of immovable property be effected by a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses; gift of movable property may be effected either by such instrument or by delivery.
As to the effect of a valid adoption under Section 12 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following is correct?
aThe adoption becomes effective only after registration with the Sub-Registrar
bThe adopted child retains all ties with the family of its birth and acquires none in the adoptive family
cThe adopted child acquires rights only of maintenance and not of inheritance in the adoptive family
dFrom the date of adoption the child is deemed to be the child of the adoptive parents, and ties with the family of birth are severed and replaced by those in the adoptive family
Answer: D
Under Section 12 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, an adopted child is deemed to be the child of the adoptive parents from the date of adoption, with all ties to the family of birth severed and replaced by ties in the adoptive family (subject to the statutory provisos).
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