Gujarat Judiciary Mock Test 7 — Questions & Solutions
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The offence formerly known as sedition has been replaced under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 by 'acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India' contained in:
aSection 152
bSection 150
cSection 124A
dSection 147
Answer: A
Section 152 BNS penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, replacing the offence of sedition under the erstwhile Section 124A IPC.
Whoever, by deceitful means or by making a promise to marry a woman without any intention of fulfilling it, has sexual intercourse with her not amounting to rape, commits an offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 63
bSection 70
cSection 69
dSection 64
Answer: C
Section 69 BNS is a new provision punishing sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means, including a false promise of marriage, employment or promotion, with imprisonment up to ten years and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder is provided under:
aSection 105
bSection 106
cSection 101
dSection 103
Answer: A
Section 105 BNS prescribes the punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder, the quantum depending on whether the act was done with intention or merely with knowledge of likely death.
X kidnaps Z and keeps him in detention, threatening to cause his death in order to compel the payment of a ransom. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this offence is dealt with under:
aSection 137
bSection 143
cSection 139
dSection 140
Answer: D
Section 140 BNS deals with kidnapping or abducting in order to murder or for ransom, punishable with death, or imprisonment for life, and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the attempt to murder is dealt with under:
aSection 110
bSection 103
cSection 105
dSection 109
Answer: D
Section 109 BNS deals with attempt to murder; where hurt is caused by such an act, the offender may be punished with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment and fine.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is provided in :
aSection 100
bSection 103
cSection 105
dSection 101
Answer: B
Section 103(1) BNS prescribes the punishment for murder (death or imprisonment for life and fine). Culpable homicide amounting to murder is defined in Section 101.
A, intending to cause B's death, gives B a fatal poison and B dies. Under the BNS, A's culpable homicide amounts to murder and A is liable to be punished under :
aSection 103 BNS
bSection 102 BNS
cSection 105 BNS
dSection 106 BNS
Answer: A
An act done with the intention of causing death falls under Section 101 (murder), and the punishment is under Section 103(1) BNS. Section 105 deals with culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
Find the principal if the simple interest for 4 years at 6% per annum is Rs. 240.
aRs. 800
bRs. 1000
cRs. 1200
dRs. 900
Answer: B
Principal = (SI x 100)/(R x T) = (240 x 100)/(6 x 4) = 24000/24 = Rs. 1000.
Q13English / Aptitude
Fill in the blank with the correct phrasal verb: The meeting was ______ because the chairman fell ill.
acalled for
bcalled on
ccalled up
dcalled off
Answer: D
'Called off' means cancelled, which fits the context of the meeting being abandoned due to illness.
Q14English / Aptitude
Choose the word which is the SYNONYM of: CANDID
aReserved
bDeceptive
cFrank
dCunning
Answer: C
Candid means open and honest in expression; frank is its closest synonym.
Q15English / Aptitude
The average age of 5 students is 16 years. If a teacher's age is included, the average becomes 22 years. What is the age of the teacher?
a52 years
b50 years
c48 years
d46 years
Answer: A
Total of 5 students = 80; total of 6 persons = 132. Teacher's age = 132 - 80 = 52 years.
Q16English / Aptitude
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: She has been working in this firm ______ 2015.
afrom
bfor
csince
dby
Answer: C
'Since' is used with a point of time (2015) in the present perfect continuous tense to indicate a starting point.
Q17English / Aptitude
If in a certain month the 3rd day is a Monday, what day of the week will the 24th of that month be?
aSaturday
bMonday
cSunday
dTuesday
Answer: B
The difference between the 24th and the 3rd is 21 days, which is exactly 3 weeks; hence the 24th is also a Monday.
Q18English / Aptitude
A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 25%. What is his percentage profit?
a15%
b5%
c12%
d10%
Answer: B
Let CP = 100; marked price = 140; selling price after 25% discount = 105. Profit = 5, i.e. 5%.
Q19English / Aptitude
Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'CANDID'.
aFrank
bHonest
cSincere
dEvasive
Answer: D
'Candid' means open and truthful; its antonym is 'evasive', meaning deliberately vague or avoiding the truth. The other three are synonyms of candid.
Q20English / Aptitude
Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'EXONERATE'.
aAccuse
bConvict
cPunish
dAbsolve
Answer: D
To 'exonerate' is to clear of blame or free from an accusation, which is the meaning of 'absolve'. The remaining options denote the opposite.
Q21English / Aptitude
Find the next term in the series: 3, 7, 16, 35, 74, ___
a153
b148
c151
d143
Answer: A
Each term follows the rule: multiply by 2 and add successive odd numbers (×2+1, ×2+2, ×2+3, ×2+4); thus 74×2+5 = 153.
Q22English / Aptitude
If 'PAPER' is coded as 'OZODQ', how is 'PENCIL' coded in the same scheme?
aODMAHK
bODMBHK
cQFODJM
dOENCIL
Answer: B
Each letter is shifted one position back in the alphabet (P->O, A->Z, P->O, E->D, R->Q). Applying the same shift to PENCIL gives ODMBHK.
Q23General Knowledge / Current Affairs
Who was the first Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award?
aSardar Vallabhbhai Patel
bJawaharlal Nehru
cRajendra Prasad
dDr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Answer: D
Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was among the first three recipients of the Bharat Ratna in 1954, and is conventionally regarded as the first Indian honoured with it (alongside C. Rajagopalachari and C. V. Raman).
In the 2025 ICC Champions Trophy final, who was named Player of the Match for India's title-winning side?
aRachin Ravindra
bRohit Sharma
cVirat Kohli
dShreyas Iyer
Answer: B
India captain Rohit Sharma was named Player of the Match in the 2025 Champions Trophy final, while New Zealand's Rachin Ravindra was Player of the Series.
Who was elected as the 15th Vice-President of India in the September 2025 election?
aHarivansh Narayan Singh
bJagdeep Dhankhar
cC. P. Radhakrishnan
dB. Sudershan Reddy
Answer: C
C. P. Radhakrishnan, the NDA nominee, won the Vice-Presidential election held on 9 September 2025, defeating the INDIA bloc candidate B. Sudershan Reddy, and was sworn in as the 15th Vice-President on 12 September 2025.
The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado for her work promoting democratic rights in which country?
aColombia
bBolivia
cVenezuela
dCuba
Answer: C
The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize to Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado for her struggle to achieve a just and peaceful transition from dictatorship to democracy in Venezuela.
India won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 by defeating which team in the final at Dubai?
aSouth Africa
bNew Zealand
cAustralia
dEngland
Answer: B
India beat New Zealand by four wickets in the final played on 9 March 2025 at the Dubai International Cricket Stadium, claiming a record third Champions Trophy title.
In financial year 2024-25, which port in Gujarat became the first Indian port to handle over 200 million metric tonnes of cargo?
aMundra Port
bKandla Port
cHazira Port
dPipavav Port
Answer: A
Mundra Port, operated by Adani Ports and SEZ, crossed the historic 200 MMT mark in FY 2024-25 (handling about 200.7 MMT), becoming the first Indian port to do so.
ISRO's Gaganyaan programme aims to send Indian astronauts to space. In which year is the first crewed Gaganyaan mission targeted to take place?
a2026
b2025
c2028
d2027
Answer: D
ISRO targets the first crewed Gaganyaan mission carrying three Indian astronauts to low-Earth orbit in 2027, preceded by uncrewed test flights such as G1.
The Sabarmati river, on whose banks Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar are situated, originates from the Aravalli hills in which state before entering Gujarat?
aMadhya Pradesh
bHaryana
cMaharashtra
dRajasthan
Answer: D
The Sabarmati rises in the Aravalli Range in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan and flows south-west through Gujarat to join the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat.
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the settlement of disputes outside the court through arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, or mediation is provided for under:
aSection 96
bSection 100
cSection 89
dSection 80
Answer: C
Section 89 CPC empowers the court, where it appears that elements of a settlement exist, to formulate terms of settlement and refer the dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, or mediation.
Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with the requirement of giving particulars of set-off in the written statement?
aOrder 7, Rule 11
bOrder 8, Rule 6
cOrder 5, Rule 1
dOrder 6, Rule 17
Answer: B
Order 8, Rule 6 CPC permits a defendant to claim a set-off in respect of an ascertained sum of money legally recoverable and requires the particulars of such set-off to be stated in the written statement.
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, the amendment of pleadings is governed by:
aOrder 7, Rule 14
bOrder 6, Rule 2
cOrder 8, Rule 9
dOrder 6, Rule 17
Answer: D
Order 6, Rule 17 CPC allows the court at any stage to permit either party to alter or amend pleadings; its proviso bars amendment after the trial has commenced unless, despite due diligence, the matter could not have been raised earlier.
A second appeal to the High Court under the Code of Civil Procedure lies only:
awhere the value of the suit exceeds rupees one lakh
bwhere the appellate court so certifies on a question of fact
cwhere a substantial question of law is involved
dwhere there is an error of fact in the decree
Answer: C
Under Section 100 CPC, a second appeal lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only if the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be precisely stated in the memorandum of appeal.
An appeal from an original decree (first appeal) under the Code of Civil Procedure is provided for under:
aSection 100
bSection 115
cSection 96
dSection 104
Answer: C
Section 96 CPC provides for an appeal from every decree passed by a court exercising original jurisdiction, including an ex parte decree, except where otherwise expressly barred.
Under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the High Court in exercise of its revisional jurisdiction shall NOT vary or reverse any order:
ain which the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it
bin which the subordinate court has failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested
cagainst which an appeal lies to the High Court or to a court subordinate thereto
dwhich has been passed without jurisdiction
Answer: C
The proviso to Section 115 CPC bars the High Court from varying or reversing, in revision, any order against which an appeal lies either to the High Court or to any court subordinate to it.
Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substitution of the legal representative on the death of one of several defendants or of the sole defendant where the right to sue survives?
aOrder 22, Rule 4
bOrder 22, Rule 9
cOrder 22, Rule 10
dOrder 22, Rule 3
Answer: A
Order 22, Rule 4 CPC governs procedure on the death of a defendant; the court, on application, causes the legal representative of the deceased defendant to be made a party where the right to sue survives.
Before instituting a suit against the Government or against a public officer in respect of an act purporting to be done in his official capacity, notice under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure must be served, and the suit cannot ordinarily be instituted until the expiry of:
athree months
bone month
csix months
dtwo months
Answer: D
Section 80 CPC mandates a prior written notice and bars institution of the suit until the expiry of two months after notice has been delivered or left at the office of the appropriate authority.
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, the rejection of a plaint is provided for under:
aOrder 7, Rule 11
bOrder 7, Rule 1
cOrder 9, Rule 8
dOrder 6, Rule 16
Answer: A
Order 7, Rule 11 CPC enumerates the grounds for rejection of a plaint, such as non-disclosure of a cause of action, undervaluation, insufficient stamping, or the suit being barred by law.
The grant of a temporary injunction in cases where property in dispute is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated is provided for under:
aOrder 39, Rules 1 and 2
bOrder 38, Rule 5
cOrder 40, Rule 1
dOrder 39, Rule 10
Answer: A
Order 39, Rules 1 and 2 CPC empower the court to grant a temporary injunction, inter alia, where property in dispute is in danger of being wasted, damaged or wrongfully alienated, or where the defendant threatens to dispossess the plaintiff.
A man walks 5 km towards South, then turns to his left and walks 3 km, then turns left again and walks 5 km. How far is he from his starting point?
a13 km
b5 km
c3 km
d8 km
Answer: C
He goes 5 km south, 3 km east, then 5 km north, cancelling the north-south legs and leaving him 3 km east of the start.
Q48Reasoning / Mathematics
Complete the series: 7, 14, 28, 56, 112, ____
a196
b168
c210
d224
Answer: D
Each term is double the previous term, so 112 x 2 = 224.
Q49Reasoning / Mathematics
If in a certain code FRIEND is written as IULHQG, then how is CANDLE written in that code?
aFDQHOG
bFDPGOH
cEDQGOH
dFDQGOH
Answer: D
Each letter is shifted three places forward in the alphabet: C+3=F, A+3=D, N+3=Q, D+3=G, L+3=O, E+3=H, giving FDQGOH.
Q50Reasoning / Mathematics
A man's present age is three times his son's age. Five years ago he was four times as old as his son was then. What is the man's present age?
a42 years
b36 years
c48 years
d45 years
Answer: D
Let son's age be x; man's age is 3x. Five years ago: 3x-5 = 4(x-5), so 3x-5 = 4x-20, giving x=15 and man's age 3x=45.
Q51Reasoning / Mathematics
Pointing to a photograph, a woman said, "He is the only son of the mother of my mother." How is the man in the photograph related to the woman?
aCousin
bFather
cMaternal uncle
dBrother
Answer: C
The mother of her mother is her grandmother; the only son of her grandmother is her mother's brother, i.e., her maternal uncle.
Q52Reasoning / Mathematics
The simple interest on a sum of money at 8% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 800. What is the compound interest on the same sum at the same rate for the same period?
aRs. 816
bRs. 832
cRs. 824
dRs. 840
Answer: B
SI = P x 8 x 2 / 100 = 800 gives P = Rs. 5000. CI = 5000[(1.08)^2 - 1] = 5000 x 0.1664 = Rs. 832.
Q53Computer Awareness
Which of the following file extensions is normally associated with an Adobe Portable Document Format file?
a.xlsx
b.pdf
c.pptx
d.docx
Answer: B
The .pdf extension denotes a Portable Document Format file; .docx, .pptx and .xlsx belong to Word, PowerPoint and Excel respectively.
The BNSS, 2023 casts a statutory duty on every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the State. This obligation is contained in:
aSection 398
bSection 412
cSection 360
dSection 430
Answer: A
Section 398 BNSS, a new provision, mandates every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme to ensure the protection of witnesses.
Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, a convict under sentence of death, or his legal heir or relative, may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within a period of how many days from the date on which the Superintendent of the jail informs him of the dismissal of the appeal or confirmation of the death sentence?
aSixty days
bThirty days
cSeven days
dFifteen days
Answer: B
Section 472 BNSS, a new provision, requires a mercy petition in a death sentence case to be filed within thirty days of the jail Superintendent informing the convict of dismissal of the appeal or confirmation of the sentence.
A confession or statement made in the course of an investigation may be recorded by a Magistrate, and the BNSS, 2023 newly permits such confession to be recorded by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the advocate of the accused. The provision governing recording of confessions and statements is:
aSection 183
bSection 161
cSection 180
dSection 164
Answer: A
Section 183 BNSS (replacing Section 164 CrPC) empowers a Magistrate to record confessions and statements during investigation, and now allows recording by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the accused's advocate.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the concept of a "Zero FIR" — registration of information relating to a cognizable offence irrespective of the area where it is committed — is now statutorily recognised under which provision?
aSection 190
bSection 175
cSection 154
dSection 173
Answer: D
Section 173 BNSS deals with information relating to cognizable offences and expressly permits registration irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, codifying the Zero FIR concept (corresponding to old Section 154 CrPC).
Under Section 173(3) of the BNSS, for an offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below which rank, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether there is a prima facie case, within how many days?
aDeputy Superintendent of Police; within fourteen days
bInspector General of Police; within thirty days
cSuperintendent of Police; within seven days
dSub-Divisional Magistrate; within twenty-one days
Answer: A
Section 173(3) BNSS permits a preliminary enquiry within fourteen days, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, for offences punishable with three to seven years' imprisonment.
Which provision of the BNSS makes audio-video electronic recording (videography) of the conduct of search and seizure, and the preparation of the list of seized items, mandatory by the police officer?
aSection 103
bSection 165
cSection 100
dSection 105
Answer: D
Section 105 BNSS introduces a new mandate that the search, seizure and preparation of the list of seized articles be recorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone.
Under the proviso to Section 35(7) of the BNSS, no person who is accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, and who is infirm or above a certain age, shall be arrested except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. What is that age?
aSixty years
bSeventy years
cFifty-eight years
dSixty-five years
Answer: A
The proviso to Section 35(7) BNSS protects a person above sixty years of age (or infirm) accused of an offence punishable with less than three years from arrest without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the provision that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact is contained in:
aSection 134
bSection 141
cSection 137
dSection 139
Answer: D
The rule that no particular number of witnesses is required to prove a fact, earlier Section 134 of the Indian Evidence Act, is now Section 139 of the BSA.
In order to discover or to obtain proof of relevant facts, the Judge may ask any question he pleases, in any form, at any time, of any witness or of the parties, about any fact, and may order the production of any document or thing. This power of the Judge is conferred by which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
aSection 168
bSection 165
cSection 146
dSection 170
Answer: A
The Judge's power to put questions or order production, formerly Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act, is now Section 168 of the BSA, subject to the protected-witness limitations.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence. This rule is contained in:
aSection 24
bSection 22(1)
cSection 23(1)
dSection 25
Answer: C
Section 23(1) of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act) bars proof of a confession made to a police officer against the accused.
A is accused of murder. While in police custody he states, "I will produce the knife with which I stabbed Z; it is buried in my field," and the knife is recovered accordingly. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how much of this information is provable?
aOnly the confession of stabbing, not the recovery
bNothing, since it was made in police custody
cThe entire statement, as it led to recovery
dOnly so much as relates distinctly to the fact discovered
Answer: D
The proviso to Section 23(2) of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 27, IEA) permits proof of only so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact discovered.
Where more persons than one are being tried jointly for the same offence and a confession made by one of them affecting himself and others is proved, the Court may take such confession into consideration against the others as well. This is provided in:
aSection 23 of the BSA, 2023
bSection 24 of the BSA, 2023
cSection 25 of the BSA, 2023
dSection 28 of the BSA, 2023
Answer: B
Section 24 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 30, IEA) allows the Court to consider a proved confession of a co-accused jointly tried for the same offence against the others.
Statements made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death (the dying declaration), are made relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 by:
aSection 25
bSection 32(1)
cSection 26(a)
dSection 27(b)
Answer: C
Section 26(a) of the BSA, 2023 (corresponding to old Section 32(1), IEA) governs dying declarations and statements as to cause of death.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such field are relevant. This provision is:
aSection 51
bSection 47
cSection 39
dSection 45
Answer: C
Section 39 of the BSA, 2023 (old Section 45, IEA) makes opinions of experts relevant and expressly adds the words "or any other field".
Under the Gujarat Control of Terrorism and Organised Crime Act, 2019, a Special Court constituted under the Act is to be presided over by a judge who, immediately before appointment, is:
aa District Collector
ba Chief Judicial Magistrate
ca sitting Judge of the High Court
da Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge
Answer: D
The GCTOC Act, 2019 requires a Special Court to be presided over by a person who, immediately before appointment, was a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge.
Under the Gujarat Panchayats Act, 1993, the three-tier panchayat structure in the State consists of village panchayats and:
amandal panchayats and zilla parishads
bblock panchayats and divisional panchayats
ctaluka panchayats and district panchayats
dnagar panchayats and municipal councils
Answer: C
The Gujarat Panchayats Act, 1993 establishes a three-tier system: village (gram) panchayats, taluka panchayats and district panchayats, together with gram sabhas.
An accused is charged under the Gujarat Control of Terrorism and Organised Crime Act, 2019 with possession of property for which he cannot satisfactorily account, and the trial proceeds before the Special Court. Cognizance of an offence under the Act can be taken by the Special Court only with the previous sanction of the State Government, and the Court takes cognizance:
awithout the accused being committed to it for trial
bonly after a preliminary inquiry by the High Court
conly on a private complaint by the victim
donly on commitment of the case to it by a Magistrate
Answer: A
Under the GCTOC Act, 2019 the Special Court may take cognizance of an offence (with prior sanction) without the accused being committed to it for trial, departing from the ordinary committal procedure.
Under Section 65A of the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 (inserted by the Bombay Prohibition (Gujarat Amendment) Act, 2009), a person who manufactures, keeps, transports or possesses "laththa" is liable to imprisonment for a term which:
amay extend to one year, or fine, or both
bmay extend to three years but shall not be less than six months, and fine
cmay extend to five years but shall not be less than two years, and fine
dmay extend to ten years but shall not be less than seven years, and fine
Answer: D
Section 65A prescribes a minimum of seven years and a maximum of ten years' imprisonment, plus fine, for dealing in laththa (spurious liquor containing methanol or other poisonous substances).
"Laththa", as introduced into the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 by the 2009 Gujarat Amendment, means spurious liquor that contains:
amethanol or any other poisonous substance harmful or injurious to the human body or capable of causing death
bhemp or any preparation of hemp
cdenatured spirit lawfully imported under a permit
dethyl alcohol exceeding the prescribed proof strength
Answer: A
The amendment defined laththa as spurious liquor containing methanol (methyl alcohol) or any other poisonous substance harmful to the body or capable of causing death.
Under the Gujarat Police Act, 1951, the maximum period for which an externment order passed under Sections 55, 56 or 57 may remain in operation, as fixed by Section 58, is:
asix months
bone year
cthree years
dtwo years
Answer: D
Section 58 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 fixes a maximum period of two years for the operation of an externment order made under Sections 55, 56 or 57.
Under the Gujarat Police Act, 1951, the power to remove (extern) a person who is about to commit an offence falling under Chapters XII, XVI or XVII of the penal law from a specified area is conferred by:
aSection 59
bSection 54
cSection 61
dSection 56
Answer: D
Section 56 of the Gujarat Police Act, 1951 empowers the Commissioner/District Magistrate to direct removal of persons about to commit certain offences; Section 57 deals with persons already convicted.
"A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person." This is the definition of:
aContract of indemnity (Section 124)
bQuasi-contract (Section 68)
cContract of guarantee (Section 126)
dContract of bailment (Section 148)
Answer: A
Section 124 defines a contract of indemnity as one where one party promises to save the other from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor or any other person.
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person who gives the guarantee in a contract of guarantee is called the:
aCreditor
bSurety
cPrincipal debtor
dIndemnifier
Answer: B
Under Section 126, the person who gives the guarantee is the surety, the person in respect of whose default it is given is the principal debtor, and the person to whom the guarantee is given is the creditor.
The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is defined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as a:
aHypothecation
bPledge
cLien
dMortgage
Answer: B
Section 172 defines pledge as the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise; the bailor is the pawnor and the bailee is the pawnee.
A consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where the Court regards it as:
aExecutory rather than executed
bPast rather than present
cInadequate in value
dImmoral or opposed to public policy
Answer: D
Under Section 23, consideration or object is unlawful if it is forbidden by law, defeats the provisions of any law, is fraudulent, involves injury to person or property, or is immoral or opposed to public policy.
Under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, agreements by way of wager are:
aValid and enforceable
bVoid, and no suit can be brought for recovery of anything won
cIllegal and punishable as a criminal offence
dVoidable at the option of the loser
Answer: B
Section 30 makes wagering agreements void, and no suit can be brought to recover anything alleged to be won on a wager; a wager is void but not unlawful under Section 23.
At the desire of A, B promises to do something; this act done by B at A's desire constitutes the "consideration" for A's promise. Such consideration may, under Section 2(d), be furnished:
aOnly by the promisee himself
bBy the promisee or any other person
cOnly by a person standing in near relation to the promisee
dOnly by the promisor's agent
Answer: B
Section 2(d) provides that consideration may move from the promisee or any other person, recognising the validity of consideration furnished by a stranger to the contract.
Part IXA of the Constitution dealing with 'The Municipalities' (Articles 243P to 243ZG) and the Twelfth Schedule were inserted by:
aThe 74th Amendment Act, 1992
bThe 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
cThe 76th Amendment Act, 1994
dThe 71st Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: A
The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG) and the Twelfth Schedule, conferring constitutional status on urban local bodies (Municipalities).
Protection against double jeopardy, i.e., that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once, is guaranteed by:
aArticle 20(3)
bArticle 20(2)
cArticle 22(1)
dArticle 20(1)
Answer: B
Article 20(2) embodies the rule against double jeopardy (autrefois convict), providing that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
The protection against self-incrimination, namely that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself, is contained in:
aArticle 20(2)
bArticle 20(3)
cArticle 21
dArticle 20(1)
Answer: B
Article 20(3) guarantees the privilege against self-incrimination, providing that no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
bParliament may establish a common High Court for two or more States
cthe jurisdiction of existing High Courts is preserved
devery High Court shall be a court of record
Answer: A
Article 214 provides that there shall be a High Court for each State; the establishment of a common High Court for two or more States is dealt with separately under Article 231.
Which provision of the Limitation Act, 1963 embodies the principle that once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it?
aSection 6
bSection 17
cSection 9
dSection 12
Answer: C
Section 9 lays down continuous running of time: once limitation starts, a subsequently arising disability or inability does not halt it (subject to the proviso regarding letters of administration).
Under Sections 6 and 8 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where a person entitled to institute a suit is, at the time the right accrues, under a legal disability, the maximum extension allowed after the disability ceases is:
aFive years
bOne year
cThree years
dTwo years
Answer: C
Section 6 allows a disabled person (minor, insane or idiot) to sue after the disability ceases, but Section 8, the special exception, caps that extension at three years from cessation of the disability.
In computing the period of limitation for an appeal under Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following is to be excluded?
aThe entire period of court vacation
bThe time spent in obtaining legal advice
cThe day on which the judgment was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from
dThe time during which the appellant was prosecuting another remedy
Answer: C
Section 12 excludes the day from which the period is to be reckoned and, in appeals, the time requisite for obtaining a certified copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed against.
Under the first proviso to Section 138, an offence is attracted only if the cheque is presented to the bank:
aWithin fifteen days from the date on which it is drawn
bWithin one month from the date on which it is drawn
cWithin a period of six months from the date on which it is drawn, or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier
dWithin one year from the date on which it is drawn
Answer: C
Clause (a) of the proviso to Section 138 requires the cheque to be presented within six months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier (banks now treat cheque validity as three months).
Under Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, offences under Chapter XVII are to be tried by:
aAny Executive Magistrate empowered by the State Government
bA Court of Session in a regular warrant trial
cA Judicial Magistrate of the first class or a Metropolitan Magistrate, who shall try the case summarily
dA civil court exercising small causes jurisdiction
Answer: C
Section 143 provides that notwithstanding anything in the Code of Criminal Procedure, all offences under this Chapter shall be tried by a Judicial Magistrate of the first class or a Metropolitan Magistrate, who shall, as far as practicable, try the case summarily.
The defence that a plaintiff seeking specific performance of a contract must aver and prove his readiness and willingness to perform the essential terms of the contract is contained in:
aSection 10
bClause (c) of Section 16
cSection 20A
dSection 41
Answer: B
Section 16(c) bars specific performance in favour of a person who fails to aver and prove that he has performed or has always been ready and willing to perform the essential terms of the contract.
Under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a right to future maintenance, in whatsoever manner arising, secured or determined:
aCan be transferred only with the leave of the court
bCan be transferred like any other actionable claim
cCannot be transferred, being a personal right
dCan be transferred if reduced to a registered instrument
Answer: C
Clause (dd) of Section 6 declares that a right to future maintenance, in whatsoever manner arising, secured or determined, cannot be transferred, being intended solely for the personal benefit of the holder.
On the intestate succession to the separate property of a male Hindu governed by the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the daughter is:
aa Class II heir who succeeds only in the absence of Class I heirs
ba Class I heir entitled to succeed simultaneously with the son and other Class I heirs
can agnate who succeeds after both Class I and Class II heirs
dentitled to succeed only if there is no surviving son
Answer: B
Under Section 8 read with the Schedule to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the daughter is a Class I heir and succeeds simultaneously with, and takes a share equal to, the son and other Class I heirs.
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