Gujarat Judiciary Mock Test 4 — Questions & Solutions
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Where a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, each member is punishable under:
aSection 111 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
bSection 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
cSection 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
dSection 117(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
Answer: B
Section 103(2) BNS is the new provision dealing with 'mob lynching' type murder by a group of five or more persons on the listed grounds, prescribing death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of not less than seven years.
The new offence of having sexual intercourse with a woman by employing 'deceitful means', including a false promise of marriage made with no intention of fulfilling it, falls under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 69
bSection 70
cSection 63
dSection 64
Answer: A
Section 69 BNS is a wholly new offence punishing sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means, which is defined to include inducement by a false promise of employment, promotion or marriage by suppressing identity, punishable up to ten years.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime', committed by a member of an organised crime syndicate, is provided for under:
aSection 109
bSection 115
cSection 113
dSection 111
Answer: D
Section 111 BNS introduces 'organised crime' (acts such as kidnapping, extortion, cyber-crime etc. by a crime syndicate) as a fresh offence; petty organised crime is separately dealt with under Section 112.
'Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India', the provision that replaces the offence of sedition, is found under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 147
bSection 196
cSection 152
dSection 150
Answer: C
Section 152 BNS penalises acts exciting secession, armed rebellion or subversive activities endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. It replaces the old sedition provision (Section 124A IPC), which finds no direct counterpart.
Cheating is punishable under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 under which provision, which consolidates the erstwhile Sections 415, 417, 418 and 420 IPC?
aSection 320
bSection 318
cSection 316
dSection 336
Answer: B
Section 318 BNS deals with cheating and consolidates the IPC provisions on cheating, while Section 316 deals with criminal breach of trust.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for rape where the woman raped is under sixteen years of age is provided under:
aSection 63
bSection 65
cSection 64
dSection 70
Answer: B
Section 65 BNS prescribes aggravated punishment for rape where the victim is below sixteen years (and separately below twelve years). Section 63 defines rape and Section 64 prescribes the general punishment.
Criminal conspiracy is defined and made punishable under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (corresponding to Sections 120A and 120B IPC)?
aSection 61
bSection 69
cSection 59
dSection 120
Answer: A
Section 61 BNS defines criminal conspiracy and prescribes its punishment, corresponding to Sections 120A and 120B of the IPC.
A, intending to extract a confession, voluntarily causes grievous hurt to B. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, voluntarily causing grievous hurt simpliciter is punishable under:
aSection 115
bSection 117
cSection 121
dSection 118
Answer: B
Section 117 BNS deals with voluntarily causing grievous hurt, while Section 115 covers voluntarily causing (simple) hurt. (Causing hurt to extort confession is separately aggravated.)
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'kidnapping' (kidnapping from India and kidnapping from lawful guardianship) is defined under:
aSection 139
bSection 140
cSection 137
dSection 135
Answer: C
Section 137 BNS defines kidnapping, covering both kidnapping from India and kidnapping from lawful guardianship (a child under eighteen or a person of unsound mind).
Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony, is an offence under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
aSection 152
bSection 194
cSection 196
dSection 197
Answer: C
Section 196 BNS deals with promoting enmity between different groups (corresponding to Section 153A IPC), distinct from Section 152 which deals with acts endangering the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, defamation is defined and made punishable under which provision, which for the first time prescribes community service as one of the alternative punishments for the offence?
aSection 354
bSection 499
cSection 358
dSection 356
Answer: D
Section 356 BNS defines defamation and provides punishment of simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both, or community service, the community-service option being a new feature.
3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ______ (Complete the given series)
a42
b38
c36
d40
Answer: B
The differences increase by consecutive odd numbers (3, 5, 7, 9, 11); 27 + 11 = 38.
Q13English / Aptitude
In a certain code language, 'PEN' is written as 'QFO'. How would 'BOOK' be written in that code language?
aCPPM
bCPPL
cBPPL
dCPQL
Answer: B
Each letter is shifted forward by one position; B→C, O→P, O→P, K→L gives 'CPPL'.
Q14English / Aptitude
The simple interest on a sum of money for 4 years at 6% per annum is Rs. 480. Find the principal.
aRs. 1,800
bRs. 2,200
cRs. 2,000
dRs. 2,400
Answer: C
Principal = (SI x 100) / (Rate x Time) = (480 x 100) / (6 x 4) = 48000 / 24 = Rs. 2,000.
Q15English / Aptitude
The average age of 5 boys is 12 years. When a sixth boy joins them, the average becomes 13 years. What is the age of the sixth boy?
a18 years
b17 years
c16 years
d19 years
Answer: A
Total of 5 boys = 60; total of 6 boys = 78; so the sixth boy's age = 78 - 60 = 18 years.
Q16English / Aptitude
Pen : Write :: Knife : ______ (Complete the analogy)
aBlade
bMetal
cSharp
dCut
Answer: D
A pen is an instrument used to write; analogously, a knife is an instrument used to cut.
Q17English / Aptitude
If 'A' is coded as 1, 'B' as 2, 'C' as 3 and so on, what is the sum of the codes of the letters in the word 'CAB'?
a6
b7
c8
d5
Answer: A
C = 3, A = 1, B = 2; their sum is 3 + 1 + 2 = 6.
Q18English / Aptitude
Ephemeral (Choose the Antonym)
aDelicate
bFleeting
cEverlasting
dTransparent
Answer: C
Ephemeral means lasting a very short time; its antonym is 'everlasting' (permanent or enduring).
Q19English / Aptitude
Candid (Choose the Synonym)
aDoubtful
bCunning
cReserved
dFrank
Answer: D
Candid means truthful and straightforward; its closest synonym is 'frank'.
Q20English / Aptitude
She decided to ______ the meeting because the key members were absent. (Fill in the blank with the correct phrasal verb.)
aCall up
bCall for
cCall on
dCall off
Answer: D
'Call off' means to cancel; the meeting was cancelled due to absent members.
Q21English / Aptitude
The new clerk learnt the ropes within a week. (Give the appropriate meaning of the underlined portion.)
aUnderstood how to do the job
bBecame tired of the work
cTied up loose ends
dResigned from the post
Answer: A
To 'learn the ropes' means to understand how to do a particular job or task.
Q22English / Aptitude
Complete the given series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ______
a38
b40
c42
d36
Answer: A
The differences increase by 2 each time (3, 5, 7, 9, 11); 27 + 11 = 38.
Q23General Knowledge / Current Affairs
At the G20 Leaders' Summit hosted by India in New Delhi in September 2023, which body was admitted as a new permanent member of the G20?
aThe African Union
bThe Commonwealth of Nations
cThe Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
dThe Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
Answer: A
At the New Delhi summit under India's presidency, the African Union was inducted as a permanent member of the G20, gaining the same status as the European Union.
India's Chandrayaan-3 mission made India the first country to soft-land a spacecraft near which region of the Moon, in August 2023?
aThe lunar equator
bThe lunar south pole
cThe Sea of Tranquility
dThe lunar far side
Answer: B
On 23 August 2023 the Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-3 soft-landed near the Moon's south pole, making India the fourth nation to land on the Moon and the first to land in the south-polar region.
The Sabarmati river, on whose banks the city of Ahmedabad is situated, finally empties into the Arabian Sea through which gulf?
aGulf of Kutch
bPalk Bay
cGulf of Mannar
dGulf of Khambhat (Cambay)
Answer: D
The Sabarmati rises in the Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan, flows through Gujarat past Ahmedabad, and discharges into the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay).
Choose the option that best completes the analogy: Advocate : Bar :: Judge : ____
aBench
bWitness box
cDock
dGallery
Answer: A
Advocates are collectively associated with the 'Bar', while judges are collectively associated with the 'Bench'; hence Judge : Bench completes the analogy.
Choose the option that gives the correct meaning of the idiom underlined in the sentence: 'The lawyer advised his client not to let the cat out of the bag before the hearing.'
aTo waste time
bTo reveal a secret
cTo act carelessly
dTo take a risk
Answer: B
The idiom 'to let the cat out of the bag' means to disclose a secret, especially unintentionally or prematurely.
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will the same sum become four times itself at the same rate?
a16 years
b24 years
c20 years
d32 years
Answer: B
If the principal doubles in 8 years, the interest equals the principal in 8 years (rate 12.5%). To become four times, the interest must equal three times the principal, requiring 3 x 8 = 24 years.
Choose the word which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word: 'ACQUIT'
aConvict
bDischarge
cExonerate
dAbsolve
Answer: A
To 'acquit' means to free a person from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty; its opposite is 'convict', meaning to find guilty. The other options are synonyms of acquit.
Who is the incumbent Chief Justice of India (53rd CJI), having taken oath on 24 November 2025?
aJustice Surya Kant
bJustice D. Y. Chandrachud
cJustice Sanjiv Khanna
dJustice B. R. Gavai
Answer: A
Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding CJI B. R. Gavai, and is due to serve until 9 February 2027.
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the provision that the courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred is contained in:
aSection 20
bSection 11
cSection 9
dSection 15
Answer: C
Section 9 CPC confers on civil courts jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those whose cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred. Sections 11 (res judicata), 15 (court of lowest grade) and 20 (place of suing) deal with other matters.
The doctrine of 'res sub judice', i.e. stay of a subsequently instituted suit where a previously instituted suit between the same parties on the same matter is pending, is embodied in which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSection 12
bSection 11
cSection 9
dSection 10
Answer: D
Section 10 CPC bars the trial of a suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties — the doctrine of res sub judice. Section 11 deals with res judicata.
Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal shall lie except on a question of law from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:
aThree thousand rupees
bTen thousand rupees
cFive thousand rupees
dTwenty-five thousand rupees
Answer: B
Section 96(4) CPC bars an appeal except on a question of law from a decree in a Small Cause nature suit where the value of the subject-matter does not exceed ten thousand rupees.
A second appeal under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves:
aA mixed question of fact and law of any nature
bAn error of jurisdiction only
cA question of fact
dA substantial question of law
Answer: D
Section 100 CPC permits a second appeal to the High Court only where the case involves a substantial question of law, which must be formulated by the Court.
Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that no further appeal shall lie from the judgment and decree of a single Judge of a High Court who has heard and decided an appeal, notwithstanding anything contained in any Letters Patent?
aSection 100
bSection 100A
cSection 104
dSection 115
Answer: B
Section 100A CPC, with a non-obstante clause overriding the Letters Patent, bars any further (Letters Patent) appeal from the judgment and decree of a single Judge of a High Court deciding an appeal.
The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court over subordinate courts which have exercised jurisdiction not vested in them, or failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally in the exercise of jurisdiction, is conferred by:
aSection 151
bSection 114
cSection 113
dSection 115
Answer: D
Section 115 CPC empowers the High Court to call for the record of a case decided by a subordinate court where the latter has exercised, refused to exercise, or illegally exercised its jurisdiction. Section 113 is reference and Section 114 is review.
Where and in so far as a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, the doctrine of restitution — placing the parties in the position they would have occupied but for such decree — is provided under which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
aSection 151
bSection 141
cSection 148
dSection 144
Answer: D
Section 144 CPC provides for restitution, requiring the court to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree that has been varied or reversed.
Where any period is fixed or granted by the court for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, the power of the court to enlarge such period from time to time is found in:
aSection 149
bSection 150
cSection 148
dSection 151
Answer: C
Section 148 CPC empowers the court to enlarge a period fixed or granted by it for doing an act, even after the original period has expired (subject to a maximum of thirty days in total, post-2002 amendment). Section 151 deals with inherent powers.
Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 enables the court, where it appears that there exist elements of a settlement, to refer the dispute for arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat, or mediation?
aSection 96
bSection 80
cSection 89
dSection 94
Answer: C
Section 89 CPC permits the court to formulate terms of a possible settlement and refer the dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (including Lok Adalat) or mediation.
Under the proviso to Rule 1 of Order VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a defendant fails to present his written statement within thirty days, he may be allowed to file it on a later day, but in no case later than how many days from the date of service of summons?
aSixty days
bNinety days
cOne hundred and eighty days
dOne hundred and twenty days
Answer: B
Order VIII Rule 1 CPC requires the written statement within thirty days, and the proviso permits extension for recorded reasons, but not beyond ninety days from the date of service of summons.
A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times itself at the same rate?
a24 years
b16 years
c20 years
d32 years
Answer: A
Doubling in 8 years means the interest equals the principal in 8 years (rate 12.5%). To become four times, interest must equal three times the principal, which takes 3 x 8 = 24 years.
Q46Reasoning / Mathematics
In a row of students facing north, Rahul is 12th from the left end and 18th from the right end. How many students are there in the row?
a30
b29
c28
d31
Answer: B
Total = (position from left) + (position from right) - 1 = 12 + 18 - 1 = 29 students.
Q47Reasoning / Mathematics
In a certain code language, MANGO is written as 13-1-14-7-15. How would the word PEAR be written in that code language?
a15-5-1-18
b16-5-1-18
c16-5-1-17
d16-4-1-18
Answer: B
Each letter is replaced by its position in the English alphabet: P=16, E=5, A=1, R=18, giving 16-5-1-18.
Q48Reasoning / Mathematics
The simple interest on a sum of money for 4 years at 6% per annum is Rs. 1,440. What is the principal sum?
aRs. 5,000
bRs. 5,400
cRs. 6,000
dRs. 6,400
Answer: C
Using SI = (P x R x T)/100, P = (1440 x 100)/(6 x 4) = 144000/24 = Rs. 6,000.
Q49Reasoning / Mathematics
The average age of 5 members of a family is 28 years. If the youngest member, aged 8 years, is excluded, what is the average age of the remaining four members?
a32 years
b35 years
c30 years
d33 years
Answer: D
Total age = 5 x 28 = 140 years. Excluding the youngest: 140 - 8 = 132, divided among 4 = 33 years.
Q50Reasoning / Mathematics
Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?
aCousin
bNiece
cSister
dDaughter
Answer: C
The only son of the man's grandfather is the man's father, so the father's daughter is the man's sister.
Q51Reasoning / Mathematics
A train 180 metres long is running at a speed of 54 km/hr. How long will it take to cross a platform 270 metres long?
a25 seconds
b30 seconds
c12 seconds
d20 seconds
Answer: B
Total distance = 180 + 270 = 450 m; speed = 54 km/hr = 15 m/s; time = 450/15 = 30 seconds.
Q52Reasoning / Mathematics
Doctor : Patient :: Lawyer : _______ (Complete the analogy)
aWitness
bCourt
cJudge
dClient
Answer: D
A doctor renders professional service to a patient, just as a lawyer renders professional service to a client.
Q53Computer Awareness
A device that converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals for transmission over telephone lines, and vice versa, is called a:
aModem
bRouter
cScanner
dPrinter
Answer: A
A modem (modulator-demodulator) converts digital data to analog for transmission and back to digital on reception, enabling communication over telephone or cable lines.
cA fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information by disguising as a trustworthy entity in electronic communication
dA type of computer cooling system
Answer: C
Phishing is a cyber-fraud technique where attackers impersonate legitimate organisations, usually via email or fake websites, to trick users into revealing passwords, bank details or other sensitive data.
What does the abbreviation 'AI', frequently in the news, stand for?
aArtificial Intelligence
bAutomated Internet
cAdvanced Integration
dApplied Informatics
Answer: A
AI stands for Artificial Intelligence, the field of computer science concerned with creating systems capable of performing tasks that normally require human intelligence.
Which of the following is an open-source operating system?
aApple iOS
bApple macOS
cLinux
dMicrosoft Windows 11
Answer: C
Linux is an open-source operating system whose source code is freely available for use and modification, unlike the proprietary Windows, macOS and iOS.
In computer networking, what is the function of the 'World Wide Web (WWW)'?
aIt is the physical cabling that connects computers
bIt is a programming language for databases
cIt is a system of interlinked hypertext documents and resources accessed via the internet
dIt is a brand of computer processor
Answer: C
The World Wide Web is an information system of interlinked hypertext documents and other resources, identified by URLs and accessed over the internet using web browsers; it is distinct from the internet itself.
In a spreadsheet program such as MS-Excel, the intersection of a row and a column is known as :
aA cell
bA block
cA range
dNone of these
Answer: A
The rectangular box formed where a row and a column meet in a spreadsheet is called a cell, and it is identified by its column letter and row number (for example, B5).
The provision empowering a Magistrate to take cognizance of an offence upon a complaint, a police report, or information received from a person other than a police officer (corresponding to Section 190 of the old Code) is:
aSection 175 of the BNSS
bSection 190 of the BNSS
cSection 210 of the BNSS
dSection 223 of the BNSS
Answer: C
Section 210 BNSS provides for cognizance of offences by a Magistrate and replaces Section 190 of the CrPC, 1973.
Under the BNSS, an aggrieved person can move a Magistrate to order police investigation in a cognizable case (corresponding to Section 156(3) CrPC) under:
aSection 210(1)
bSection 190(2)
cSection 173(4)
dSection 175(3)
Answer: D
Section 175(3) BNSS empowers a Magistrate to order investigation, corresponding to the former Section 156(3) CrPC, after considering the application and any preliminary inquiry made.
Under Section 187 of the BNSS, where investigation cannot be completed in 24 hours, the maximum total period of detention an accused may be remanded otherwise than in police custody, for an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for not less than ten years, is:
aone hundred and eighty days
bfifteen days
csixty days
dninety days
Answer: D
Section 187 BNSS retains the ninety-day outer limit for detention pending investigation for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of not less than ten years; beyond it the accused is entitled to default bail.
A novel feature of Section 105 of the BNSS is that the process of conducting a search of a place and seizure, including preparation and signing of the seizure list by witnesses, shall be:
arecorded by the Magistrate in person
bpublished in the Official Gazette within seven days
cattested by two gazetted officers
drecorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably mobile phone, and forwarded to the Magistrate
Answer: D
Section 105 BNSS mandates that searches and seizures be recorded through audio-video electronic means (preferably a mobile phone) and the recording be forwarded without delay to the District/Sub-divisional/Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
Under Section 184 of the BNSS, where rape or attempt to rape is under investigation, the victim shall be sent for medical examination by a registered medical practitioner within:
atwelve hours from the receipt of information of the offence
btwenty-four hours from the receipt of information of the offence
cseven days from the registration of the FIR
dforty-eight hours from the registration of the FIR
Answer: B
Section 184 BNSS requires that the woman be sent for medical examination within twenty-four hours from the receipt of the information relating to the offence, and the report forwarded within seven days of the examination.
The recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate during investigation, corresponding to Section 164 of the CrPC, 1973, is provided under which section of the BNSS?
aSection 183
bSection 180
cSection 187
dSection 193
Answer: A
Section 183 BNSS deals with the recording of confessions and statements by a Judicial Magistrate, corresponding to Section 164 CrPC, and permits recording through audio-video electronic means.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the order of examination of a witness is correctly stated as:
aExamination-in-chief, then cross-examination, then re-examination
bCross-examination, then examination-in-chief, then re-examination
cExamination-in-chief, then re-examination, then cross-examination
dRe-examination, then examination-in-chief, then cross-examination
Answer: A
Section 143(1) of the BSA provides that witnesses shall be first examined-in-chief, then (if the adverse party so desires) cross-examined, then (if the party calling him so desires) re-examined (old Section 138).
When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 such persons are called experts under:
aSection 47
bSection 39
cSection 45
dSection 51
Answer: B
Section 39 of the BSA makes expert opinions relevant; its sub-section (2) treats the Examiner of Electronic Evidence under Section 79A of the IT Act, 2000 as an expert (old Section 45).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the document itself produced for the inspection of the Court is:
aSecondary evidence under Section 58
bOral evidence under Section 54
cPrimary evidence under Section 57
dDocumentary evidence under Section 56
Answer: C
Section 57 of the BSA defines primary evidence as the document itself produced for the inspection of the Court (old Section 62); Section 58 defines secondary evidence.
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the definition of 'document' in Section 2(1)(d) expressly:
aExcludes electronic and digital records
bIncludes only printed and handwritten matter
cIncludes electronic and digital records
dIs confined to public documents
Answer: C
Section 2(1)(d) of the BSA defines 'document' to include electronic and digital records, the illustrations expressly covering emails, server logs and voice mail messages stored on digital devices.
When a person is accused of an offence and claims the benefit of a General Exception, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within that exception:
aDoes not arise at all
bLies on the prosecution
cIs on the Court to determine suo motu
dIs on the person claiming the exception, and the Court presumes the absence of such circumstances
Answer: D
Section 108 of the BSA places on the accused the burden of proving circumstances bringing his case within a General Exception, the Court presuming the absence of such circumstances (old Section 105).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the phrase 'shall presume' in Section 2(1)(l) means that the Court:
aShall regard the fact as conclusive proof, not allowing evidence to disprove it
bMay either regard the fact as proved or call for proof of it
cShall regard the fact as proved unless and until it is disproved
dNeed not regard the fact as proved at all
Answer: C
Under Section 2(1)(l) of the BSA, 'shall presume' requires the Court to regard the fact as proved unless and until it is disproved; this is distinct from 'may presume' (cl. h) and 'conclusive proof' (cl. b).
Which section of the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 provides for the confiscation of articles in respect of which an offence punishable under the Act has been committed?
aSection 100
bSection 98
cSection 102
dSection 96
Answer: B
Section 98 of the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949 provides for confiscation of the liquor, receptacles, animals, carts, vessels and conveyances connected with the offence.
By the Gujarat Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 2017, the maximum punishment for manufacturing, selling, buying or transporting liquor was enhanced to imprisonment which may extend to:
athree years
bfive years
cseven years
dten years
Answer: D
The 2017 amendment raised the maximum imprisonment for such liquor offences from three years to ten years, along with a fine up to Rs. 5 lakh.
Under Section 65A of the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, a person convicted of manufacturing or dealing in "Laththa" is liable to imprisonment for a term which:
ashall not be less than three years and may extend to five years
bmay extend to one year only
cshall be for life in every case
dshall not be less than seven years and may extend to ten years
Answer: D
Section 65A, inserted by the 2009 amendment, prescribes rigorous imprisonment of not less than seven years extendable to ten years for offences involving Laththa.
Where a person manufactures spurious liquor (Laththa) and its consumption results in death, the Bombay Prohibition (Gujarat Amendment) Act, 2009 provides for punishment of:
afine only, with no imprisonment
bimprisonment up to six months and fine
cimprisonment up to two years only
ddeath sentence or imprisonment for life
Answer: D
The 2009 Gujarat amendment introduced death or life imprisonment where consumption of the manufactured/sold spurious liquor (Laththa) causes death.
In a trial for consumption of an intoxicant under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, a statutory presumption against the accused is drawn when the concentration of alcohol found in his blood exceeds the prescribed limit. This presumption is contained in:
aSection 98(3)
bSection 85(1)
cSection 66(2)
dSection 142(2)
Answer: C
Section 66(2) raises a presumption that the accused consumed an intoxicant once the prescribed blood-alcohol concentration is established, shifting the onus to the accused.
Under the Gujarat Money-Lenders Act, 2011, no court shall, in any suit to which the Act applies, decree on account of interest a sum:
aexceeding 24 per cent per annum compounded
bgreater than twice the principal of the loan
cgreater than the principal of the loan due on the date of the decree
dequal to the principal plus statutory costs
Answer: C
The Gujarat Money-Lenders Act, 2011 embodies the damdupat rule, barring a decree for interest exceeding the principal of the loan outstanding on the date of the decree.
A agrees to sell to B a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England; the ship had already sunk and the goods had ceased to exist at the time of the agreement, a fact unknown to both parties. The agreement is:
avoidable at the option of A
bvoidable at the option of B only
cvalid and enforceable against B
dvoid, being an agreement to do an act impossible in itself
Answer: D
Under the first paragraph of Section 56, an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void; where the subject-matter has perished before the contract is made, performance is impossible from the outset and the agreement is void.
A 'contingent contract' is defined under which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
aSection 31
bSection 29
cSection 32
dSection 36
Answer: A
Section 31 defines a 'contingent contract' as a contract to do or not to do something if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen.
When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, the obligation of any person who has received an advantage under it to restore it or make compensation is dealt with under:
aSection 65
bSection 73
cSection 70
dSection 64
Answer: A
Section 65 provides that when an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, any person who has received any advantage under such agreement or contract is bound to restore it, or to make compensation for it, to the person from whom he received it.
A claim for necessaries supplied to a person incapable of contracting, or to anyone whom he is legally bound to support, is recoverable from the property of such incapable person under:
aSection 72
bSection 70
cSection 68
dSection 69
Answer: C
Section 68 provides that where necessaries suited to a person's condition in life are supplied to a person incapable of contracting (such as a minor or lunatic), the supplier is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of such incapable person; the liability is on the estate, not personal.
Compensation for breach of contract where a penalty is stipulated for in the contract is governed by which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
aSection 73
bSection 75
cSection 74
dSection 55
Answer: C
Section 74 provides that where a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, or the contract contains any other stipulation by way of penalty, the aggrieved party is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named, whether or not actual loss is proved.
A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called a:
acontract of guarantee
bquasi-contract
ccontract of indemnity
dcontract of bailment
Answer: C
Section 124 defines a 'contract of indemnity' as a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person.
It is alleged that a public office is being held by a person who is not legally qualified to hold it. The writ that can be issued to call upon such person to show by what authority he holds the office is :
aQuo warranto
bHabeas corpus
cMandamus
dProhibition
Answer: A
The writ of quo warranto is issued to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office, calling upon him to show by what authority he holds it; if the claim is bad, the holder may be ousted.
Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India provides that every Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of :
aSixty-five years
bSeventy years
cSixty-two years
dSixty years
Answer: A
Under Article 124(2), a Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of sixty-five years, as against the age of sixty-two years prescribed for a High Court Judge under Article 217.
The power of superintendence conferred on a High Court by Article 227 of the Constitution of India does NOT extend to :
acriminal courts subordinate to it
bcivil courts subordinate to it
cany court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces
dtribunals exercising quasi-judicial functions within its jurisdiction
Answer: C
The proviso to Article 227 excludes from the High Court's power of superintendence any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces.
By which Constitutional Amendment Act was the right to property omitted as a fundamental right from Part III and made a constitutional right under Article 300A?
aThe 44th Amendment Act, 1978
bThe 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
cThe 1st Amendment Act, 1951
dThe 25th Amendment Act, 1971
Answer: A
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, and inserted Article 300A in Part XII, reducing the right to property to a mere legal/constitutional right.
Under Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where a suit is based upon the fraud of the defendant, the period of limitation does not begin to run until:
athe defendant admits the fraud in writing
bthe plaintiff has discovered the fraud, or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it
cthree years from the date the fraud was committed
dthe date of the fraudulent act itself
Answer: B
Under Section 17, in cases of fraud or mistake limitation does not begin until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud or mistake, or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.
Under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the effect of a valid acknowledgment of liability in writing, signed before the expiry of the prescribed period, is that:
athe original period is extended by ninety days
ba fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time the acknowledgment was so signed
cthe running of limitation is suspended for one year only
dthe claim becomes enforceable without any further limitation
Answer: B
Section 18 provides that where an acknowledgment of liability is made in writing and signed before the prescribed period expires, a fresh period of limitation is computed from the time the acknowledgment was signed.
Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the right to an easement of light or air to a building becomes absolute and indefeasible after peaceable enjoyment as an easement and as of right, without interruption, for a period of:
atwenty years
bsixty years
ctwelve years
dthirty years
Answer: A
Section 25 fixes the prescriptive period for acquiring easements of light, air, way or watercourse at twenty years (thirty years where the property belongs to the Government).
Under Section 9 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a 'holder in due course' is a person who became the possessor of the instrument for consideration:
aOnly where the instrument is payable to bearer
bAfter the amount mentioned in it became payable, with notice of any defect in title
cMerely by being named as payee, irrespective of consideration
dBefore the amount mentioned in it became payable and without sufficient cause to believe that any defect existed in the transferor's title
Answer: D
Section 9 defines a holder in due course as one who for consideration became the possessor (or payee/indorsee) before the amount became payable and without sufficient cause to believe that any defect existed in the title of the transferor.
As defined in Section 6 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a cheque is essentially:
aAn unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum to a specified banker
bAn order in writing addressed to any person to pay money to bearer
cA bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand
dA promissory note payable to a banker on a future date
Answer: C
Section 6 defines a cheque as a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand; it also includes the electronic image of a truncated cheque and a cheque in electronic form.
Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 enables recovery of specific movable property from a person in possession not as owner. In which of the following cases does the Explanation to Section 8 raise a presumption that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief?
aWhere the thing claimed is an article of commercial value capable of being purchased in the open market
bWhere the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff
cWhere the defendant is willing to pay double the market value of the article
dWhere the property has been lawfully purchased by the defendant for value without notice
Answer: B
Section 8(a) covers things held by the defendant as agent or trustee of the plaintiff, and the Explanation presumes that money compensation is inadequate (or damage difficult to ascertain) in cases falling under clauses (b) and (c); agent/trustee possession is the textbook instance.
X, who has no title to a plot, fraudulently represents to Y that he is authorised to transfer it and sells it to Y for consideration. X later inherits the very plot. Under Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the doctrine of feeding the grant by estoppel operates so that:
aAt the option of Y, the transfer operates on the interest X subsequently acquires while the contract subsists
bThe property automatically vests in Y irrespective of Y's wishes
cThe transfer remains void notwithstanding X's later acquisition
dX may retain the property by refunding the consideration
Answer: A
Section 43 embodies feeding the grant by estoppel: where a transferor fraudulently or erroneously represents authority and later acquires the interest, the transfer operates, at the transferee's option, on that subsequently acquired interest, subject to protection of bona fide transferees without notice.
The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights, available where either spouse has, without reasonable excuse, withdrawn from the society of the other, is provided under which provision of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
aSection 25
bSection 9
cSection 24
dSection 13
Answer: B
Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for restitution of conjugal rights when one spouse has withdrawn from the society of the other without reasonable excuse.
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