Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 1 — Questions & Solutions

How many dance forms are officially recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, the national academy for music, dance and drama?

The classical dance form Sattriya, recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000, is associated with which state?

Mohiniyattam, a classical dance characterised by graceful swaying movements, is the classical dance of which state?

Kuchipudi, one of the eight classical dance forms, originated in which state?

Kathakali, known for its elaborate make-up and costumes depicting stories from the epics, is the classical dance-drama of which state?

Odissi, a classical dance noted for its sculpturesque tribhanga poses, is associated with which state?

The ancient Sanskrit treatise on dramaturgy, dance and music, traditionally attributed to the sage Bharata, is known as the:

The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple at Khajuraho is a classic example of which style of Indian temple architecture?

The Brihadeeswara (Brihadishvara) Temple at Thanjavur, built by Rajaraja Chola I, is a celebrated example of which architectural style?

The Vesara style of Indian temple architecture is best described as:

The 13th-century Sun Temple at Konark, designed in the form of a colossal chariot of the Sun God, was built by which ruler?

The ruins of Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, were the capital of which empire?

The Great Stupa at Sanchi, one of the oldest stone structures in India, was originally commissioned by which Mauryan emperor?

India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site, inscribed in July 2024, is the Moidams (mound-burial system) of which dynasty?

Santiniketan, inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, is associated with which Indian figure?

The 'Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas', inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, includes temples at Belur, Halebidu and which third site?

Which trio of composers is collectively known as the 'Trinity of Carnatic Music'?

Which of the following is a classical dance form predominantly associated with Uttar Pradesh, having flourished in the courts of North India?

Madhubani (Mithila) painting, a traditional folk art using natural colours, originates from which state?

Warli painting, characterised by simple geometric shapes depicting daily life, is a tribal art form of which state?

Pattachitra, a cloth-based scroll painting tradition depicting Lord Jagannath and Krishna legends, is chiefly associated with which state?

Tanjore (Thanjavur) painting, distinguished by the use of gold foil and precious stones on a wooden base, is a classical art tradition of which state?

As of the October 2024 Cabinet decision, how many languages enjoy 'Classical Language' status in India?

Which language was the first to be granted 'Classical Language' status in India, in 2004?

The Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, was established in which year?

Which national academy is responsible for the promotion of the visual and fine arts (painting, sculpture and graphics) in India?

Which festival was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2021 as 'Durga Puja in Kolkata'?

'Garba of Gujarat', inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2023, is performed chiefly during which festival?

Kalbelia folk songs and dances, on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list, are associated with a snake-charming community of which state?

Which was the first product in India to receive a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, in 2004?

On which date did Chandrayaan-3's lander module make its historic soft landing near the Moon's south polar region, making India the first country to land there?

The Chandrayaan-3 landing site on the Moon has been officially named:

Which day is observed in India as 'National Space Day', marking the Chandrayaan-3 landing?

India's first dedicated solar mission, Aditya-L1, was placed in a halo orbit around which point?

On 21 June 2023, India became a signatory to which US-led framework for principles governing civil space exploration?

The three new criminal laws that replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act came into force on:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaces which colonial-era law?

In its February 2024 verdict, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme primarily for violating which constitutional right?

The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides for the reservation of what proportion of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

Implementation of the women's reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is contingent on the completion of which two exercises?

Which state became the first in independent India to implement a Uniform Civil Code, with the law coming into force on 27 January 2025?

According to United Nations data released in 2023, India overtook which country to become the world's most populous nation?

Under the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the earlier 10+2 school structure is replaced by which curricular and pedagogical design?

NEP 2020 recommends that, wherever possible, the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5 (and preferably Grade 8) should be the:

As per the 'Status of Tigers in India 2022' estimation, the average estimated tiger population in India was about:

The year 2023 marked the completion of how many years of India's flagship tiger conservation programme, Project Tiger?

Under 'Project Cheetah', the first batch of eight cheetahs introduced into Kuno National Park in September 2022 were brought from which country?

Kuno National Park, the site of India's cheetah reintroduction, is located in which state?

The G20 Leaders' Summit hosted by India in September 2023 was held at which venue in New Delhi?

At the 2023 New Delhi G20 Summit, which regional bloc was admitted as a new permanent member of the G20?

The theme of India's 2023 G20 Presidency, 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future', was drawn from which ancient text?

India's new Parliament building was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on:

The historical sceptre installed in the new Lok Sabha chamber, symbolising the 1947 transfer of power, is known as the:

On 11 December 2023, the Supreme Court of India delivered a verdict upholding the abrogation of which constitutional provision relating to Jammu and Kashmir?

The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated the former state into which two Union Territories?

The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched in September 2023, provides holistic support to artisans and craftspeople engaged in how many traditional trades?

In 2024 the Union Cabinet expanded Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to provide free health cover to all senior citizens irrespective of income above which age?

Senior citizens aged 70 and above newly covered under the expanded Ayushman Bharat scheme are issued which dedicated card, launched in October 2024?

In the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, which party emerged as the single largest party with 240 seats?

The Census of India 2027, whose first official notification was issued in 2025, will be notable as India's first census to be conducted:

On the recommendations of which commission was the Reserve Bank of India established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India nationalised, i.e., transferred to public ownership?

Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India with effect from which date?

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Which body replaced the Planning Commission of India with effect from 1 January 2015?

Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

India's First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on which economic model?

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), which emphasised rapid industrialisation through heavy industries, was based on the model devised by:

In India, one-rupee notes and coins are issued by which authority?

Under which system does the Reserve Bank of India issue currency notes since 1957?

How many major commercial banks were nationalised in India in the first phase in July 1969?

Under whose Prime Ministership and as part of whose finance ministership were the major economic reforms (LPG) of 1991 launched in India?

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was given statutory status through the SEBI Act in which year?

As per the Census of India 2011, the literacy rate of India was approximately:

The 'repo rate' announced by the Reserve Bank of India refers to the rate at which:

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the portion of which of the following that banks must maintain with the RBI?

The Green Revolution in India, launched in the mid-1960s, was associated primarily with the increased production of which crop in its initial phase?

Who is widely regarded as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India'?

At present, which sector contributes the largest share to India's Gross Value Added (GDP)?

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in which year?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (IBRD) were conceived at which 1944 conference?

Where is the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) located?

Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the 'Annual Financial Statement' (Union Budget) laid before Parliament?

The financial year (fiscal year) for the Government of India runs from:

The poverty line methodology that fixed the poverty line at about Rs.27 per day (rural) and Rs.33 per day (urban) for 2011-12 was recommended by which committee?

The first official estimate of India's national income after independence was prepared by the National Income Committee (1949) headed by:

Who is credited with the first attempt to estimate India's national income (per capita income) in 1867-68?

India adopted the decimal system of coinage, dividing the rupee into 100 paise, with effect from:

The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is maintained by commercial banks in the form of:

The Environment (Protection) Act in India was enacted in which year, largely in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the highest degree of legal protection (absolute protection) for species such as the tiger is provided under which Schedule?

In which year did the Government of India launch 'Project Tiger' for the conservation of the tiger?

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) was constituted as a statutory authority under which Act?

In which year was 'Project Elephant' launched by the Government of India as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme?

Which animal has been declared India's 'National Heritage Animal'?

The Ganges River Dolphin is recognised in India as the national ______.

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, under which the Central Pollution Control Board was established, was enacted in which year?

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in India was enacted in which year?

India's first national park (now part of a tiger reserve), established in 1936, was originally named which of the following?

Which was the first Biosphere Reserve to be established in India (in 1986)?

The Montreal Protocol, a landmark international agreement, deals primarily with which environmental issue?

The Ramsar Convention, signed in 1971 in Ramsar (Iran), is concerned with the conservation of which type of ecosystem?

The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, which led to the designation of World Environment Day, was held in 1972 in which city?

World Environment Day is observed every year on which date?

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature in 1992 at the Earth Summit held in which city?

The Cartagena Protocol, a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, primarily deals with which subject?

The Nagoya Protocol, adopted in 2010 under the Convention on Biological Diversity, is concerned with which of the following?

India enacted the Biological Diversity Act in which year, to give effect to the Convention on Biological Diversity?

The headquarters of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) of India is located in which city?

How many global biodiversity hotspots are recognised within India's territory?

Which of the following is one of India's four recognised global biodiversity hotspots?

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in India under an Act of which year?

Where is the Principal Bench (principal place of sitting) of the National Green Tribunal located?

The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, is associated with which international convention?

The Paris Agreement on climate change was adopted in which year under the UNFCCC?

By definition, the global warming potential (GWP) of which gas is taken as the reference value of 1?

The CITES convention regulates which of the following?

In an ecosystem, organisms that synthesise their own food using sunlight, such as green plants, are classified as:

The Forest (Conservation) Act, which restricts the de-reservation of forests and use of forest land for non-forest purposes, was enacted in which year?

Which of the following is a base (fundamental) unit in the International System of Units (SI)?

The SI unit of force is the:

The approximate speed of light in vacuum is:

Which physical quantity is measured in pascal (Pa)?

The SI unit of electrical resistance is the:

A nautical instrument that always points roughly towards the geographic north uses which property?

The phenomenon responsible for the splitting of white light into seven colours by a prism is:

According to Newton's first law of motion, a body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external:

The unit 'watt' is used to measure:

Which mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles because it gives an erect, diminished image and a wider field of view?

The chemical symbol of sodium is:

The chemical symbol 'Au' represents which element?

The pH value of a neutral solution at 25 degrees Celsius is:

The chemical formula of water indicates that one molecule contains:

The hardest naturally occurring substance is:

Common table salt is chemically known as:

Baking soda is chemically:

Which of the following is the lightest noble (inert) gas?

The atomic number of carbon is:

The gas that turns lime water milky is:

Rusting of iron requires the presence of oxygen and:

The total number of bones in a normal adult human body is:

The largest gland in the human body is the:

The green pigment in plants responsible for absorbing light during photosynthesis is:

Deficiency of vitamin C in the human diet causes:

Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets in children?

Malaria in humans is transmitted by the bite of:

Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

The average lifespan of a human red blood cell is about:

The process by which green plants make their own food using sunlight, carbon dioxide and water is called:

Which is the highest mountain peak situated entirely within the territory of India (not on any international border)?

Under Section 2(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a fact is said to be 'proved' when, after considering the matters before it, the Court either believes it to exist or

Where one fact is declared by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) to be 'conclusive proof' of another, the Court

A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, is relevant under Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)

Where, in consequence of information received from an accused person in the custody of a police officer, a fact is discovered, the proviso to Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) permits proof of

A confession made by an accused person to a police officer

Under Section 22 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a confession is irrelevant in a criminal proceeding when it appears to the Court to have been caused by an inducement, threat, coercion or promise which

'When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him.' This rule is contained in

When a person is accused of an offence and claims the benefit of a General Exception in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within that exception

The fact that a person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is, under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA),

In a prosecution for rape under the specified clauses of Section 64(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the woman states in her evidence that she did not consent, Section 120 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) directs that the Court

When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, or of science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant. This is provided in

Following the principle laid down in Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014) 10 SCC 473 (decided under the corresponding earlier provision), secondary evidence of the contents of an electronic record (such as a CD or VCD) under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)

Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), who may testify?

With respect to the testimony of an accomplice, the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) provides under Section 138 that

Under Section 148 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), where it is intended to contradict a witness by a previous statement made by him in writing,

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which section bars a confession made to a police officer from being proved against a person accused of any offence?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the principle that so much of information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved, is contained in—

A dies of injuries. Before death he tells a Magistrate the name of his assailant and how he was attacked. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the relevancy of such a statement (dying declaration) falls under—

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting those of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. With reference to this provision, which of the following statements is correct?

Explanation VIII to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976) provides that an issue heard and finally decided by a court of limited jurisdiction, competent to decide such issue, shall operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit. The effect of this Explanation is that:

A foreign judgment is conclusive under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, except in the cases specified therein. Which of the following is NOT a ground on which a foreign judgment ceases to be conclusive under Section 13?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the power of the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding from a High Court or other civil court in one State to a High Court or other civil court in any other State is contained in:

Under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a plaint shall be rejected in certain cases. Which of the following is a ground for rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11?

Under the proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the defendant fails to file the written statement within thirty days, he shall be allowed to file it on such other day, as may be specified by the court, for reasons to be recorded in writing, but which shall not be later than:

A decree was passed ex parte against the defendant. The defendant applies under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to set aside the ex parte decree. The court may set aside the decree if it is satisfied that:

During the pendency of a suit, the sole defendant dies and an application to bring his legal representatives on record is not made within the period of limitation prescribed therefor. Under Order XXII Rule 4 read with the Limitation Act, 1963, the consequence is that:

Under Order XXIII Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has been adjusted wholly or in part by a lawful agreement or compromise, such agreement or compromise must, after the 1976 amendment, be:

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes, when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:

Under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a second appeal lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only:

Under Section 102 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, as substituted by the Amendment Act of 2002, no second appeal shall lie from any decree when the subject-matter of the original suit is for recovery of money not exceeding:

Under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the High Court may call for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where such subordinate court appears to have:

Where, in any suit, a person claims a right to lodge a caveat so that he may be heard before an application made in the contemplated proceeding is granted, the relevant provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is:

Rule 5 of Order XV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, as inserted by the U.P. Civil Laws (Amendment) Act, 1972 in its application to Uttar Pradesh, empowers the court in a suit by a lessor for eviction of a lessee to strike off the defence where the defendant fails to:

In its application to Uttar Pradesh, Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (as amended by U.P. Act No. 46 of 1999, w.e.f. 1.7.2002) confers revisional jurisdiction in cases arising out of original suits of value exceeding one lakh rupees upon-

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in a suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes, no appeal shall lie except on a question of law where the value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed-

Assertion (A): No appeal lies from a decree passed by the court with the consent of the parties. Reason (R): A party who has consented to the terms of a decree cannot be said to be aggrieved by it. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if the act were done by him alone. This principle of joint liability is contained in:

In the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the definition of 'culpable homicide' and the definition of 'murder' are contained respectively in:

Punishment for murder under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is provided in:

A provision newly framed in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 prescribes that when a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any other ground, each member of that group shall be liable. This 'mob lynching' provision is contained in:

'Z', a girl below eighteen years of age, commits suicide. It is proved that 'A' instigated her to do so. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, abetment of suicide of a child or a person with mental illness is dealt with under:

The offence of 'snatching', introduced for the first time in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is defined and punished under:

Match List-I (offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (Section) and select the correct answer: List-I: (A) Theft (B) Extortion (C) Robbery (D) Dacoity List-II: (1) Section 308 (2) Section 303 (3) Section 310 (4) Section 309

'A' is entrusted by 'B' with certain printing blocks for the purpose of printing 'B's catalogue. 'A' instead uses the same blocks to print the catalogue of a rival firm. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is guilty of:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of robbery is converted into a graver form when, among other circumstances, it is committed on a highway between sunset and sunrise, raising the maximum imprisonment to fourteen years. The provision dealing with robbery is:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'criminal conspiracy' is defined in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death of the assailant only in the situations enumerated in:

An assembly of five or more persons becomes an 'unlawful assembly' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 if the common object of the persons composing it falls within the enumerated heads. The definition of unlawful assembly is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime' and the offence of 'terrorist act' — both introduced into the general penal law — are contained respectively in:

'A' intentionally puts 'Z' in fear of grievous hurt and thereby dishonestly induces 'Z' to hand over his gold ring. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' has committed:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'defamation' is contained in:

'A' and 'B', sharing a common intention to commit dacoity, break into 'Z's house. While inside, 'B' alone fatally stabs 'Z'. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the provision under which 'A' may be held vicariously liable for the act of 'B' is contained in -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, each member shall be liable to imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which one of the following Sections corresponds to the order for maintenance of wives, children and parents (the provision that replaced Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973)?

Match List-I (provision under BNSS, 2023) with List-II (subject-matter) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: A. Section 35 B. Section 47 C. Section 144 D. Section 482. List-II: 1. Person arrested to be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail 2. When police may arrest without warrant 3. Direction for grant of bail to person apprehending arrest 4. Order for maintenance of wives, children and parents. Code:

Anticipatory bail, i.e. a direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest, is provided under which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 confers inherent powers on the High Court (the provision corresponding to Section 482 of the CrPC, 1973)?

Information relating to a cognizable offence, popularly called the First Information Report (FIR), and now expressly permitting registration irrespective of the place where the offence is committed (Zero FIR) as well as registration through electronic communication, is provided under which Section of the BNSS, 2023?

Under the BNSS, 2023, the proviso requiring that for offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more the investigation be completed and the police report filed within ninety days (failing which the accused is entitled to default bail) is found in which Section?

Assertion (A): Under the BNSS, 2023, a statement made by a witness to a police officer in the course of investigation need not be signed by the person making it. Reason (R): Section 180 of the BNSS expressly provides that no such statement shall be signed by the person making it, nor shall it be used for any purpose save as provided by the Sanhita. Select the correct answer:

Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023, in the case of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall not be arrested without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of-

Which one of the following is correctly matched with respect to the BNSS, 2023?

Mercy petition in death sentence cases is, for the first time, given statutory recognition in the BNSS, 2023. A convict under sentence of death may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within how many days of being informed by the Superintendent of jail about the dismissal of his appeal/review/SLP or confirmation of the death sentence?

Under Section 176 of the BNSS, 2023, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, it is now mandatory that-

Cognizance of an offence by a Magistrate of the first class (and any Magistrate of the second class specially empowered) upon receiving a complaint, upon a police report, or upon information received from any person other than a police officer, is dealt with under which Section of the BNSS, 2023?

Match List-I (subject-matter) with List-II (Section of the BNSS, 2023) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: A. First Information Report B. Default bail on failure to complete investigation in time C. Mercy petition in death sentence cases D. Inherent powers of the High Court. List-II: 1. Section 528 2. Section 173 3. Section 472 4. Section 187. Code:

Which of the following pairs relating to the BNSS, 2023 is NOT correctly matched?

Under the BNSS, 2023, the obligation of a person arrested without warrant to be informed forthwith of the grounds of his arrest, and where the offence is bailable, of his right to be released on bail, is contained in which Section?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may now be given through electronic communication. Which Section embodies this provision for registration of First Information Report, including by electronic means?

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with the maximum period of detention of an undertrial prisoner and provides for release on bond after specified portions of the maximum sentence have been undergone?

Under Article 23 of the Charter of the United Nations, the Security Council consists of fifteen members. Of these, the number of non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly is -

Under Article 27 of the U.N. Charter, a decision of the Security Council on a non-procedural (substantive) matter requires an affirmative vote of nine members including -

The sources of international law that the International Court of Justice shall apply are enumerated in which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?

Under Article 13 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the members of the Court are elected for a term of -

Which of the following statements regarding contentious jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is correct in light of its Statute?

The International Court of Justice may decide a case ex aequo et bono (according to what is fair and good, going beyond strict legal rules) -

Under the Charter of the United Nations, the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any State is prohibited by -

The inherent right of individual or collective self-defence, which arises 'if an armed attack occurs against a Member of the United Nations', is recognised under which Article of the U.N. Charter?

Under Article 99 of the U.N. Charter, who may bring to the attention of the Security Council any matter which in his opinion may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security?

Amendments to the U.N. Charter come into force when adopted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the members of the United Nations. This is provided in -

Under the U.N. Charter, the admission of a new State to membership of the United Nations is effected by -

Under Article 9 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, the receiving State may declare a member of the diplomatic staff 'persona non grata' -

Inviolability of the premises of a diplomatic mission, so that agents of the receiving State may not enter them except with the consent of the head of mission, is guaranteed by which Article of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961?

Among the principal organs of the United Nations, which one suspended its operations on 1 November 1994 after the last trust territory (Palau) attained independence?

Match List-I (concept) with List-II (instrument/provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I: (A) Sources of international law (B) Right of self-defence (C) Veto in Security Council (D) Persona non grata List-II: (1) Article 51, U.N. Charter (2) Article 9, Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961 (3) Article 38, ICJ Statute (4) Article 27, U.N. Charter

Under which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice are the sources of international law enumerated?

Which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice provides that the Court shall consist of fifteen members, no two of whom may be nationals of the same State?

Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer-

In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, the Privy Council held that an agreement entered into by a minor is-

Where necessaries suited to his condition in life are supplied to a minor, the supplier under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is entitled to be reimbursed-

An agreement made without consideration is valid under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 if it is-

Every agreement by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under a contract by the usual legal proceedings is, to that extent, void under-

The doctrine of frustration under Indian law, as explained by the Supreme Court in Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co., is held to be-

A 'contract of guarantee' under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872-

A guarantee which extends to a series of transactions is, under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, called a-

Which of the following persons is NOT entitled to a general lien in the absence of a contract to the contrary under Section 171 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Assertion (A): A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void when it so ceases to be enforceable. Reason (R): A void agreement and a void contract are identical, both being unenforceable from their very inception. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Match List-I (Concept) with List-II (Provision/Authority) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I: A. Doctrine of frustration B. Anticipatory breach of contract C. Necessaries supplied to a minor D. General lien. List-II: 1. Section 68 2. Hochster v. De La Tour 3. Section 56 4. Section 171

A contract of indemnity under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him-

An agreement entered into by way of wager is, under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872-

'A' promises 'B' to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against 'B' for robbery, and 'B' promises to restore the value of the things taken. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, this agreement is-

The substitution of a new contract for an existing one between the same parties, with the result that the old contract need not be performed, is known under Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as-

Under Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the expression 'living person' for the purpose of a transfer of property -

Spes successionis, i.e., the mere chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, is dealt with under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in -

A transfers property to B for life, and after B's death to such of B's sons as shall first attain the age of 25 years. The interest in favour of B's sons -

Where a person erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property and professes to transfer it for consideration, and he subsequently acquires an interest in that property, such interest at the option of the transferee passes to the transferee. This rule of 'feeding the grant by estoppel' is contained in -

The doctrine of lis pendens under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 provides that during the pendency of a suit in which a right to immovable property is directly in question, the property -

Which one of the following is NOT a condition for invoking the doctrine of part performance under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Where, with the express or implied consent of the persons interested in immovable property, a person is the ostensible owner and transfers it for consideration, the transfer is not voidable on the ground that the transferor was not authorised, provided the transferee took reasonable care and acted in good faith. This protection is contained in -

Under the doctrine of election as embodied in Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, where a person professes to transfer property he has no right to transfer and as part of the same transaction confers a benefit on the owner of that property, the owner -

An interest created on a transfer of property which is made to take effect on the fulfilment of a condition that is forbidden by law fails under -

Match List-I (Type of mortgage under Section 58, TPA) with List-II (Essential feature) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Simple mortgage (B) Mortgage by conditional sale (C) Usufructuary mortgage (D) English mortgage List-II: (1) Mortgagee put in possession and authorised to retain rents and profits in lieu of interest/principal (2) Mortgagor binds himself to repay and gives mortgagee the right to cause the property to be sold, without delivering possession (3) Mortgagor ostensibly sells, the sale becoming absolute on default and void on payment (4) Mortgagor absolutely transfers the property with a proviso for re-transfer on repayment

Any provision in a mortgage deed that has the effect of preventing or impeding the mortgagor from redeeming the mortgaged property after the principal money has become due is -

In the absence of a contract to the contrary or local usage, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall be deemed to be a lease -

A gift of immovable property under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is effected -

With respect to revocation of gifts under Section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following statements is correct?

By which Constitutional Amendment was the right to property deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a constitutional right under Article 300A?

The reservation of 10 per cent for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) was introduced by the insertion of which clauses through the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019?

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, containing the anti-defection provisions, was inserted by which Amendment, and was held constitutionally valid in which case?

In Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court struck down the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act and the NJAC Act primarily on the ground that they violated which part of the basic structure?

Arrange the following landmark cases of the Supreme Court in the correct chronological order: (i) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (ii) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (iii) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (iv) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

Assertion (A): A High Court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose. Reason (R): The writ jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226 is wider than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under which Article of the Constitution can Parliament, by a resolution of the Council of States supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, create one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States?

Match List-I (Provision) with List-II (Article) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Equal pay for equal work (B) Uniform Civil Code (C) Organisation of village panchayats (D) Separation of judiciary from executive. List-II: (1) Article 40 (2) Article 39(d) (3) Article 50 (4) Article 44

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the 'right to vote' and the 'right to contest an election' are statutory rights and not fundamental rights, while the freedom of voting is a facet of the freedom of expression?

The bar on interference by courts in electoral matters relating to delimitation and elections to Panchayats is contained in which Article, inserted by the 73rd Amendment?

Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President. Reason (R): The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill and must return it within fourteen days. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which Article empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public importance?

Match List-I (Subject) with List-II (Schedule) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Allocation of seats in the Council of States (B) Forms of oaths or affirmations (C) Languages (D) Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection. List-II: (1) Third Schedule (2) Fourth Schedule (3) Tenth Schedule (4) Eighth Schedule

Which jurist defined jurisprudence as "the science of the first principles of the civil law"?

According to John Austin's command theory, law properly so called is the command of the sovereign backed by a sanction. Which of the following did Austin therefore NOT regard as 'law properly so called'?

In Hans Kelsen's Pure Theory of Law, the validity of every norm in a legal order is ultimately traced to a single basic presupposed norm. This basic norm is termed:

Roscoe Pound's analogy comparing the work of lawyers to that of engineers — balancing competing interests to secure the maximum satisfaction of wants with the minimum of friction and waste — is known as the theory of:

In Hohfeld's scheme of fundamental legal conceptions, what is the jural correlative of a 'right' (claim) in the strict sense?

In Hohfeld's analysis of jural relations, the jural opposite of 'power' is:

Who propounded the theory that custom is the expression of the common consciousness or spirit of the people (Volksgeist), and that law is not made but found and grows with the nation?

Sir Henry Maine summarised the course of progressive societies by the famous formula that the movement has hitherto been:

The objective theory of possession, which insists that the mental element required is merely the intention to exclude others (animus excludendi) rather than the intention to hold as owner, is associated with:

The doctrine of social solidarity, built upon the division of labour and the interdependence of individuals in society, was developed by:

In Salmond's classification, a 'corporation sole' is best illustrated by:

The maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' (where there is a right, there is a remedy) most directly expresses the relationship in jurisprudence between:

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the rule that 'whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts must prove that those facts exist' is contained in—

Under Section 109 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when a fact is especially within the knowledge of a person, the burden of proving that fact—

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the fact that a child was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man (or within 280 days after its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried) is, in the absence of proof of non-access, conclusive proof of legitimacy under—

The presumption that a person caused a dowry death where it is shown that soon before her death the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment for dowry is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A notable departure of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 from the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is found in Section 138 (accomplice), which now states that a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the—

Which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 provides that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a question 'suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive' is called a leading question and is defined in—

When a witness called by a party turns hostile, the Court may, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, permit that party to put to the witness questions that might be put in cross-examination. This power is conferred by—