Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 6 — Questions & Solutions

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaces which colonial-era law?

In its February 2024 verdict, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme primarily for violating which constitutional right?

The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides for the reservation of what proportion of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

Implementation of the women's reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is contingent on the completion of which two exercises?

Which state became the first in independent India to implement a Uniform Civil Code, with the law coming into force on 27 January 2025?

According to United Nations data released in 2023, India overtook which country to become the world's most populous nation?

Under the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the earlier 10+2 school structure is replaced by which curricular and pedagogical design?

NEP 2020 recommends that, wherever possible, the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5 (and preferably Grade 8) should be the:

As per the 'Status of Tigers in India 2022' estimation, the average estimated tiger population in India was about:

The year 2023 marked the completion of how many years of India's flagship tiger conservation programme, Project Tiger?

Under 'Project Cheetah', the first batch of eight cheetahs introduced into Kuno National Park in September 2022 were brought from which country?

Kuno National Park, the site of India's cheetah reintroduction, is located in which state?

The G20 Leaders' Summit hosted by India in September 2023 was held at which venue in New Delhi?

At the 2023 New Delhi G20 Summit, which regional bloc was admitted as a new permanent member of the G20?

The theme of India's 2023 G20 Presidency, 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future', was drawn from which ancient text?

India's new Parliament building was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on:

The historical sceptre installed in the new Lok Sabha chamber, symbolising the 1947 transfer of power, is known as the:

On 11 December 2023, the Supreme Court of India delivered a verdict upholding the abrogation of which constitutional provision relating to Jammu and Kashmir?

The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated the former state into which two Union Territories?

The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched in September 2023, provides holistic support to artisans and craftspeople engaged in how many traditional trades?

In 2024 the Union Cabinet expanded Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to provide free health cover to all senior citizens irrespective of income above which age?

Senior citizens aged 70 and above newly covered under the expanded Ayushman Bharat scheme are issued which dedicated card, launched in October 2024?

In the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, which party emerged as the single largest party with 240 seats?

The Census of India 2027, whose first official notification was issued in 2025, will be notable as India's first census to be conducted:

On the recommendations of which commission was the Reserve Bank of India established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India nationalised, i.e., transferred to public ownership?

Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India with effect from which date?

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Which body replaced the Planning Commission of India with effect from 1 January 2015?

Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

India's First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on which economic model?

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), which emphasised rapid industrialisation through heavy industries, was based on the model devised by:

In India, one-rupee notes and coins are issued by which authority?

Under which system does the Reserve Bank of India issue currency notes since 1957?

How many major commercial banks were nationalised in India in the first phase in July 1969?

Under whose Prime Ministership and as part of whose finance ministership were the major economic reforms (LPG) of 1991 launched in India?

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was given statutory status through the SEBI Act in which year?

As per the Census of India 2011, the literacy rate of India was approximately:

The 'repo rate' announced by the Reserve Bank of India refers to the rate at which:

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the portion of which of the following that banks must maintain with the RBI?

The Green Revolution in India, launched in the mid-1960s, was associated primarily with the increased production of which crop in its initial phase?

Who is widely regarded as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India'?

At present, which sector contributes the largest share to India's Gross Value Added (GDP)?

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in which year?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (IBRD) were conceived at which 1944 conference?

Where is the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) located?

Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the 'Annual Financial Statement' (Union Budget) laid before Parliament?

The financial year (fiscal year) for the Government of India runs from:

The poverty line methodology that fixed the poverty line at about Rs.27 per day (rural) and Rs.33 per day (urban) for 2011-12 was recommended by which committee?

The first official estimate of India's national income after independence was prepared by the National Income Committee (1949) headed by:

Who is credited with the first attempt to estimate India's national income (per capita income) in 1867-68?

India adopted the decimal system of coinage, dividing the rupee into 100 paise, with effect from:

The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is maintained by commercial banks in the form of:

The Environment (Protection) Act in India was enacted in which year, largely in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the highest degree of legal protection (absolute protection) for species such as the tiger is provided under which Schedule?

In which year did the Government of India launch 'Project Tiger' for the conservation of the tiger?

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) was constituted as a statutory authority under which Act?

In which year was 'Project Elephant' launched by the Government of India as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme?

Which animal has been declared India's 'National Heritage Animal'?

The Ganges River Dolphin is recognised in India as the national ______.

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, under which the Central Pollution Control Board was established, was enacted in which year?

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in India was enacted in which year?

India's first national park (now part of a tiger reserve), established in 1936, was originally named which of the following?

Which was the first Biosphere Reserve to be established in India (in 1986)?

The Montreal Protocol, a landmark international agreement, deals primarily with which environmental issue?

The Ramsar Convention, signed in 1971 in Ramsar (Iran), is concerned with the conservation of which type of ecosystem?

The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, which led to the designation of World Environment Day, was held in 1972 in which city?

World Environment Day is observed every year on which date?

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature in 1992 at the Earth Summit held in which city?

The Cartagena Protocol, a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, primarily deals with which subject?

The Nagoya Protocol, adopted in 2010 under the Convention on Biological Diversity, is concerned with which of the following?

India enacted the Biological Diversity Act in which year, to give effect to the Convention on Biological Diversity?

The headquarters of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) of India is located in which city?

How many global biodiversity hotspots are recognised within India's territory?

Which of the following is one of India's four recognised global biodiversity hotspots?

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in India under an Act of which year?

Where is the Principal Bench (principal place of sitting) of the National Green Tribunal located?

The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, is associated with which international convention?

The Paris Agreement on climate change was adopted in which year under the UNFCCC?

By definition, the global warming potential (GWP) of which gas is taken as the reference value of 1?

The CITES convention regulates which of the following?

In an ecosystem, organisms that synthesise their own food using sunlight, such as green plants, are classified as:

The Forest (Conservation) Act, which restricts the de-reservation of forests and use of forest land for non-forest purposes, was enacted in which year?

Which of the following is a base (fundamental) unit in the International System of Units (SI)?

The SI unit of force is the:

The approximate speed of light in vacuum is:

Which physical quantity is measured in pascal (Pa)?

The SI unit of electrical resistance is the:

A nautical instrument that always points roughly towards the geographic north uses which property?

The phenomenon responsible for the splitting of white light into seven colours by a prism is:

According to Newton's first law of motion, a body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external:

The unit 'watt' is used to measure:

Which mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles because it gives an erect, diminished image and a wider field of view?

The chemical symbol of sodium is:

The chemical symbol 'Au' represents which element?

The pH value of a neutral solution at 25 degrees Celsius is:

The chemical formula of water indicates that one molecule contains:

The hardest naturally occurring substance is:

Common table salt is chemically known as:

Baking soda is chemically:

Which of the following is the lightest noble (inert) gas?

The atomic number of carbon is:

The gas that turns lime water milky is:

Rusting of iron requires the presence of oxygen and:

The total number of bones in a normal adult human body is:

The largest gland in the human body is the:

The green pigment in plants responsible for absorbing light during photosynthesis is:

Deficiency of vitamin C in the human diet causes:

Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets in children?

Malaria in humans is transmitted by the bite of:

Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

The average lifespan of a human red blood cell is about:

The process by which green plants make their own food using sunlight, carbon dioxide and water is called:

Which is the highest mountain peak situated entirely within the territory of India (not on any international border)?

The Ganga is the longest river of India. Approximately what is its total length?

The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

Indian Standard Time is based on the standard meridian of 82°30' E longitude, which passes near which town in Uttar Pradesh?

Which is the largest Indian state by geographical area?

Indira Point, the southernmost point of India's territory, is located on which island?

According to the 2011 Census, which state has the largest population in India?

Which state is the leading producer of sugarcane in India?

Which Indian state is the largest producer of coffee?

Which Indian state shares its boundary with the maximum number of other Indian states?

Wular Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, is located in which Union Territory/State?

Chilika Lake, the largest brackish-water lagoon in India, lies in which state?

Nathu La, a Himalayan mountain pass on the India-China border, is located in which Indian state?

The Zoji La pass, on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway, connects the Kashmir Valley with which region?

The Narmada and Tapi rivers are notable among peninsular rivers because they flow:

Black soil (regur), well suited to cotton cultivation, is chiefly associated with which physiographic region of India?

Which state is the largest producer of iron ore in India?

Which is the smallest Indian state by geographical area?

Which mainland Indian state has the longest coastline?

Assam is the leading Indian state in the production of which beverage crop?

The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet at which hill range in the south?

The Palk Strait separates India from which neighbouring country?

Which is the highest peak of the Western Ghats?

The northernmost range of the Himalayas, containing peaks such as Everest and Kanchenjunga, is known as the:

The Sundarbans delta, the world's largest delta, is formed by which river system?

Which strait separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands?

The Damodar river, once called the 'Sorrow of Bengal', is a tributary of which major river?

India's first iron and steel plant set up at Jamshedpur (TISCO) lies in which present-day state?

The Aravalli Range, one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, runs mainly through which state?

Which two states does the Indira Gandhi Canal, drawing water from the Sutlej-Beas, mainly serve to irrigate?

The two largest and most well-known cities of the Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation were Harappa and which other city, known for its 'Great Bath'?

The mature (urban) phase of the Harappan Civilisation is generally dated by archaeologists to approximately which period?

The oldest of the four Vedas, a collection of hymns, is which one?

Vardhamana Mahavira is traditionally regarded in Jainism as which Tirthankara?

Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon (Dhammachakkappavattana), expounding the Four Noble Truths, at which place near Varanasi?

Which ancient kingdom (mahajanapada) had its capital first at Rajagriha and later at Pataliputra and rose to dominance under the Haryanka rulers?

The Maurya Empire was founded around 322 BCE by which ruler, aided by his adviser Chanakya (Kautilya)?

Match List-I (Offence against woman under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (Section) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Voyeurism (B) Stalking (C) Word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman (D) Sexual harassment List-II: (1) Section 75 (2) Section 77 (3) Section 78 (4) Section 79

'A' has sexual intercourse with 'Z' on a false promise of marriage which he never intended to keep, the act not amounting to rape. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this conduct is now a distinct offence under-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, criminal conspiracy is defined under-

'A', a prisoner on hunger strike, attempts to commit suicide with the intent of compelling a public servant to refrain from discharging his official duty. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the only situation in which attempt to commit suicide is made punishable is dealt with under-

'A', intending to kill 'Z', fires a loaded gun at 'Z' but misses; the bullet instead strikes and kills 'Y', a bystander whose presence was unknown to 'A'. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is liable for the death of 'Y'-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching'-newly carved out as a distinct offence-is dealt with under-

'A', a goldsmith, is entrusted by 'B' with gold ornaments only for the purpose of polishing. 'A' instead pledges the ornaments with a moneylender and pockets the money. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is guilty of-

Which of the following pairs of offence and its governing section under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is NOT correctly matched?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence (anticipatory bail) is contained in -

Under the proviso to Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period for which an accused may be detained otherwise than in the custody of the police (i.e., the total period of detention before charge-sheet) where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for ten years or more, life imprisonment or death is -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the total period for which a person may be remanded to police custody under Section 187 cannot exceed -

Which of the following statements regarding registration of information under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is/are correct? 1. Information relating to a cognizable offence may be given by electronic communication. 2. A 'Zero FIR' may be registered irrespective of the territorial jurisdiction in which the offence was committed. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a preliminary enquiry (with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police) may be conducted before registering a case where the cognizable offence is punishable with imprisonment for -

Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a forensic expert is mandatorily required to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence in respect of any offence punishable with imprisonment for -

Under Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for less than ten years, the police report on completion of investigation must ordinarily be filed within -

A Judicial Magistrate of the First Class, under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, recording of the process of search and seizure through audio-video electronic means (preferably a mobile phone) is provided for under -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision enabling inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender is contained in -

Under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender may be commenced only after the expiry of -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, plea bargaining is permissible, but it is expressly excluded in respect of an offence punishable with -

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death may file a mercy petition before the President under Article 72 or the Governor under Article 161 within -

Which of the following is correctly matched with its provision under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is NOT a circumstance in which a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant and without an order of the magistrate?

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of fine not exceeding-

Which one of the following is a NEW form of punishment that a Magistrate is expressly empowered to award under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, but which had no equivalent in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

Under the UN Charter, members of the United Nations have agreed to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council in accordance with -

The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations consists of fifty-four members elected by the General Assembly. The members are elected for a term of -

The provision that 'Everyone has the right to a nationality' and that no one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality finds place in -

The doctrine of 'rebus sic stantibus' in the law of treaties refers to -

Under Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, which one of the following is treated NOT as a primary source but only as a 'subsidiary means' for the determination of rules of law?

Under Article 27 of the U.N. Charter, a decision of the Security Council on a non-procedural (substantive) matter requires an affirmative vote of-

Under the U.N. Charter, the expulsion of a Member which has persistently violated the Principles of the Charter is effected by-

Match List-I (U.N. Charter Article) with List-II (subject) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (A) Article 4 (B) Article 5 (C) Article 6 (D) Article 23. List-II (1) Suspension of a Member (2) Composition of the Security Council (3) Admission of a new Member (4) Expulsion of a Member.

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the Court consists of how many Members, and for what term are they elected?

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): A treaty is void if at the time of its conclusion it conflicts with a peremptory norm of general international law (jus cogens). Reason (R): A peremptory norm is one from which no derogation is permitted and which can be modified only by a subsequent norm of the same character. Select the correct answer:

Which one of the following Articles of the U.N. Charter enumerates negotiation, enquiry, mediation, conciliation, arbitration and judicial settlement as means for the pacific settlement of disputes?

Under Article 96 of the U.N. Charter, who among the following may request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question?

Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (A) World Health Organization (B) Food and Agriculture Organization (C) UNESCO (D) International Monetary Fund. List-II (1) Rome (2) Paris (3) Geneva (4) Washington, D.C.

Article 7 of the U.N. Charter establishes the principal organs of the United Nations. Which one of the following is NOT among them?

Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 declares that 'All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights'?

Under Article 23 of the U.N. Charter, the Security Council consists of fifteen Members, of whom the permanent members are-

The principle 'pacta sunt servanda', that every treaty in force is binding upon the parties and must be performed by them in good faith, is embodied in which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969?

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where a guarantee extends to a series of transactions, it is called a:

'A' promises 'B' to drop a criminal prosecution he has instituted against 'B' for an offence, and 'B' promises to restore the value of the things in respect of which the prosecution was begun. The agreement is:

Consider the following statements regarding consideration under the Indian Contract Act, 1872: 1. Consideration may move from the promisee or any other person. 2. Consideration need not be adequate, but must be real and lawful. 3. Past consideration is no consideration under Indian law. Which of the statements is/are correct?

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

A clause in a contract of employment restraining the employee from serving a competitor only during the subsistence (term) of the employment:

In a contract of guarantee under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the liability of the surety is:

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of a proposal is complete-

A agrees to sell a horse to B for Rs. 1,000 if the horse is sound, and for Rs. 500 if it is unsound. The horse proves to be unsound. Which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 makes this agreement valid and not void for uncertainty?

A, for natural love and affection, promises to give his brother B Rs. 1,000. A puts his promise in writing and registers it. B sues A on the promise. Which statement is correct?

Where a person is induced to enter into an agreement by undue influence, the contract is-

Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, unless-

Necessaries are supplied to a minor suited to his condition in life. Under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person who has furnished such supplies is entitled to be reimbursed-

An agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is-

Which of the following correctly describes the legal status of an agreement by way of wager under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

In a contingent contract dependent on the happening of a future uncertain event, if that event becomes impossible, the contract-

In which kind of mortgage under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does the mortgagor deliver possession of the property to the mortgagee and authorise him to retain it until payment, receiving the rents and profits in lieu of interest or in payment of principal?

Under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the absence of a contract, local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for manufacturing purposes shall be deemed to be:

Which of the following is an actionable claim within the meaning of Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Under Section 130 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of an actionable claim, whether with or without consideration, can be effected only:

A by a deed gives B his house and by the same deed purports to give to C a sum of money belonging to B. If B elects to retain his money, what is the consequence under the doctrine of election in Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

During the pendency of a suit in which the right to specified immovable property is directly and specifically in question, a party transfers that property to a third person. Under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer:

Which of the following kinds of property is NOT capable of being transferred under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate (spes successionis):

'A' professes to transfer to 'B' a field which in fact belongs to 'C', and by the same instrument confers Rs. 50,000 on 'C'. 'C' wishes to keep the field. Under the doctrine of election (Section 35), 'C':

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, sale of tangible immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards can be made:

Where the mortgagor ostensibly sells the property on condition that on default of payment by a certain date the sale shall become absolute, the mortgage is a:

In the absence of a contract, local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for manufacturing purposes is deemed under Section 106 to be:

Which of the following correctly states the doctrine of subrogation under Section 92 of the Transfer of Property Act?

The doctrine that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 does not extend to altering its 'basic structure' was first propounded by the Supreme Court in:

Article 368(2) provides that for an amendment of certain entrenched provisions, in addition to passage by a special majority of Parliament, ratification is required by the Legislatures of:

The residuary power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List is vested exclusively in Parliament by:

The three-tier system of Panchayati Raj institutions was given constitutional status by the insertion of Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) through which Constitutional Amendment Act?

The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures is vested in the Election Commission by:

Under Article 360, the President may proclaim a Financial Emergency if satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby:

Match List-I (Provision) with List-II (Article) and select the correct answer using the codes below: List-I: (A) Abolition of untouchability (B) Abolition of titles (C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (D) Right to constitutional remedies List-II: (1) Article 32 (2) Article 17 (3) Article 22 (4) Article 18

The right to property was deleted from the chapter on Fundamental Rights and made an ordinary legal/constitutional right under Article 300-A by which Amendment?

Which Article obliges the Union to recommend the constitution of a Finance Commission at stated intervals to distribute the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States?

Assertion (A): The 38th Amendment had made the President's satisfaction in proclaiming an Emergency final and immune from judicial review. Reason (R): The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 deleted that provision, so the President's satisfaction is no longer beyond judicial review. Select the correct answer using the code below:

Under which Article of the Constitution of India may the President refer a question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its opinion, such opinion not being binding on the President?

A law under Article 169 for the creation or abolition of a State Legislative Council can be passed by Parliament only after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect supported by-

The creation of a new All-India Service under Article 312 requires, as a condition precedent, a resolution declaring it necessary or expedient in the national interest passed by-

According to John Salmond, law is best defined as the body of principles recognised and applied by the State in the:

In Hans Kelsen's Pure Theory of Law, the validity of every legal norm is ultimately traced to a single fundamental presupposed norm known as the:

Roscoe Pound's celebrated theory which treats law as an instrument for balancing competing interests in society to secure the maximum satisfaction of wants with the minimum of friction is known as the theory of:

Under Hohfeld's scheme of fundamental jural relations, the jural correlative of a 'right' is a:

The conception that law is the expression of the common consciousness or spirit of the people (Volksgeist), gradually evolving like language and custom, is associated with:

According to John Austin's analytical theory, law properly so called is:

H.L.A. Hart's concept of law rests on the union of primary rules of obligation with secondary rules, the most important of which, identifying valid law in a legal system, is the:

A right which avails against the whole world at large, such as the right of ownership, is classified by Salmond as a right in:

The 'will theory' and the 'interest theory' in jurisprudence are competing explanations concerning the nature of:

A corporation, an idol or a company is regarded in jurisprudence as a:

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea', forming the basis of the doctrine of mens rea, signifies that:

In Salmond's classification of the sources of law, a judicial decision which itself lays down a new principle of law and is binding on courts is a:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the order of examination of a witness, that is, examination-in-chief, followed by cross-examination and then re-examination, is provided in which section?

A witness may, while under examination, refresh his memory by referring to a writing made by himself at the time of the transaction concerning which he is questioned. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this is dealt with in which section?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no confession made to a police officer can be proved against an accused. Which provision embodies this bar?

The proviso permitting proof of so much of the information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A statement made by a person, since deceased, as to the cause of his death is relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

The opinion of a person specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, or in identifying handwriting or finger impressions is relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the fact that a child was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between its mother and any man is conclusive proof of legitimacy under which section?

The court's power to presume that a person caused the dowry death of a woman, where she was subjected to cruelty for dowry soon before her death, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him. This rule is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

An accomplice is declared a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon his uncorroborated testimony, under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Leading questions must not, if objected to by the adverse party, be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination except with the permission of the court. This is governed by which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A witness may, while under examination, refresh his memory by referring to a writing made by him at the time of the transaction. This is permitted under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of which section?

Where a fact is declared by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 to be conclusive proof of another fact, the court, on proof of the one fact:

The rule of estoppel, under which a person who has by declaration, act or omission caused another to believe a thing to be true and act upon it cannot deny its truth, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A confession made by an accused is rendered irrelevant in a criminal proceeding if it appears to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from a person in authority. This is provided in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the fact that a child was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is conclusive proof of his legitimacy, unless -

Under Section 118 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), when it is shown that soon before her death a woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with a demand for dowry, the Court -

An appeal heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court from an appellate decree or order shall not be open to a further appeal, notwithstanding anything contained in the Letters Patent. This bar is contained in which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

The doctrine of res judicata under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 bars the trial of a subsequent suit on a matter that has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit. This doctrine is embodied in:

In a money suit, the defendant seeks to plead, in the written statement, an ascertained sum of money legally recoverable by him from the plaintiff arising out of a distinct transaction and not exceeding the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Court. This is a legal set-off governed by:

Where a defendant against whom a money decree has been passed has a debt due to him from a third party, the executing Court may, on the decree-holder's application, direct that third-party debtor to pay the decree-holder instead of the judgment-debtor. Such a 'garnishee order' is provided under:

After a higher Court has reversed a decree under which a party had recovered money, the Court of first instance, on application, places the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the erroneous decree. The power to grant such restitution is conferred by:

The source of the Court's power to grant a temporary injunction, attachment before judgment, appointment of a receiver, and other interlocutory orders by way of supplemental proceedings is found in:

After examining the parties under Order 10, where it appears to the Court that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, the Court formulates the terms and refers the dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (including Lok Adalat) or mediation. This is provided under:

Which one of the following is NOT a ground on which a plaint shall be rejected under Order 7, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

The Court may at any stage of the proceedings allow either party to alter or amend his pleadings as may be necessary to determine the real questions in controversy; however, after the commencement of trial no such amendment shall be allowed unless the Court concludes that despite due diligence the party could not have raised the matter earlier. This proviso governing amendment of pleadings is contained in:

A first appeal from an original decree lies under Section 96, while a second appeal to the High Court lies only on a 'substantial question of law'. The provision permitting a second appeal is:

The High Court's power to call for the record of a case decided by a subordinate Court in which no appeal lies, where such Court appears to have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted with material irregularity in the exercise of its jurisdiction, is the power of:

A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply to the Court that passed it to set aside the decree on the ground that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing. Such an application lies under:

Courts shall (subject to the provisions of the Code) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. This declaration of the civil court's jurisdiction is contained in:

Suits for the recovery of immovable property, for partition of immovable property, or for the determination of any right to or interest in immovable property shall (subject to the pecuniary or other limitations prescribed by law) be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the property is situate. This rule of forum is laid down in:

Assertion (A): The bar of res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure prevents a court from trying a matter directly and substantially in issue in a former suit. Reason (R): The doctrine of res judicata also operates as a bar where the matter might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack in the former suit. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The maxim 'nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa' (no one shall be vexed twice for the same cause) forms the foundation of which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (res sub judice), the court shall stay the trial of a subsequently instituted suit only where, among other conditions -

Which one of the following modes of settlement is NOT enumerated in Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for reference of a dispute by the court?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, robbery amounts to dacoity when it is committed conjointly by-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'voyeurism' against a woman is punishable under-

A new offence introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, having no direct equivalent in the repealed Indian Penal Code, is contained in Section 111 which deals with-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a person who causes the death of another by rash and negligent driving of a vehicle (not amounting to culpable homicide) and escapes without reporting it to a police officer or Magistrate soon after the incident is liable to imprisonment which may extend to-

'A' instigates 'B' to murder 'C'. 'B', in consequence of the instigation, stabs and kills 'C'. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the liability of 'A' for abetment is governed by the provisions beginning with-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following statements regarding the right of private defence is correct?

Match the offence with its correct section under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: (A) Wrongful restraint (B) Wrongful confinement (C) Kidnapping (D) Abduction Using the codes: (1) 137 (2) 126 (3) 138 (4) 127

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where the death of a woman is caused by burns or bodily injury, or occurs otherwise than under normal circumstances, within seven years of marriage and she was subjected soon before her death to cruelty in connection with a demand for dowry, the offence (dowry death) falls under-

'A' tells 'Z', 'I will publish a defamatory article about you unless you pay me Rs. 50,000', and 'Z', put in fear, hands over the money. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' has committed-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following kinds of hurt is NOT designated as 'grievous hurt' under Section 116?

'A' shoots at 'Z' with the intention of killing him and under such circumstances that, if death had ensued, 'A' would be guilty of murder; however, 'Z' survives with grievous injuries. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is liable for attempt to murder under-

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder of a man solely on the ground of his caste. Which provision specifically penalises this act and what is the minimum punishment prescribed for each member of the group?

In the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the principle that 'when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if done by him alone' is contained in:

Which one of the following is a wholly NEW offence introduced for the first time by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, having no direct equivalent section in the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'causing death by negligence' (not amounting to culpable homicide) is dealt with in which section?

Match List-I (offence) with List-II (BNS section) and select the correct answer: List-I: A. Murder B. Punishment for murder C. Punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder D. Attempt to murder List-II: 1. Section 109 2. Section 101 3. Section 105 4. Section 103

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a man has sexual intercourse with a woman by deceitfully promising to marry her, having no intention of fulfilling that promise. This conduct is specifically made punishable under:

Under Section 35(7) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no arrest of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age, for an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, shall be made without the prior permission of-