Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 3 — Questions & Solutions

What are the names of the lander and rover of the Chandrayaan-3 mission, respectively?

The landing site of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon was named by India as:

Aditya-L1, India's first dedicated solar mission, is placed in a halo orbit around which point?

By which launch vehicle was India's Aditya-L1 solar mission launched in September 2023?

Who was announced in 2024 as one of the four astronaut-designates for India's Gaganyaan mission and later flew on Axiom Mission 4?

Who took charge as the Chairman of ISRO in January 2025, succeeding S. Somanath?

Shubhanshu Shukla, who travelled to the ISS aboard Axiom Mission 4 in 2025, became which Indian to travel to space?

Which Indian became the first Indian citizen to travel to space, aboard the Soviet Soyuz T-11 mission in 1984?

In March 2024, India successfully conducted 'Mission Divyastra', the first flight test of the Agni-5 missile equipped with which technology?

INS Arighaat, commissioned in August 2024, is India's:

ISRO's SpaDeX mission, whose docking was achieved on 16 January 2025, demonstrated which capability, making India the fourth country to do so?

The SpaDeX satellites were launched in December 2024 using which ISRO launch vehicle?

India's first semiconductor fabrication (fab) facility, approved under the India Semiconductor Mission, is being built by Tata Electronics (with PSMC) at:

The NISAR satellite, launched in July 2025, is a joint Earth-observation mission between ISRO and which space agency?

NISAR is notable for being the first satellite to carry radar operating in which two frequency bands?

In which year was the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?

In November 2024, DRDO successfully conducted the first flight trial of India's first long-range hypersonic missile off the coast of which state?

XPoSat, launched by ISRO on 1 January 2024, is a satellite dedicated to the study of:

The first aircraft of the indigenous Tejas Mk1A variant completed its maiden flight in March 2024 at Bengaluru. It is manufactured by:

Which gas, making up about 78% of the Earth's atmosphere by volume, is the most abundant atmospheric gas?

Which vitamin is synthesised in the human skin on exposure to sunlight (ultraviolet rays)?

The chemical formula of common table salt (sodium chloride) is:

Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the Raman Effect, for which he received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930?

The 'Digital India' programme was launched by the Government of India in which year?

India's first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier, commissioned in 2022, is:

The indigenously developed BrahMos supersonic cruise missile is a joint venture between India and which country?

Which ISRO mission was India's first interplanetary mission, making India the first country to reach Mars orbit on its maiden attempt?

The Indian regional satellite navigation system developed by ISRO, providing positioning services over India, is known as:

The heaviest rocket of ISRO, used to launch Chandrayaan-3 and capable of carrying heavy payloads to geostationary transfer orbit, is:

Who, along with Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, was named a recipient of the 58th Jnanpith Award (for 2023)?

The Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, was conferred posthumously on which socialist leader and former Chief Minister of Bihar in 2024?

The Nobel Peace Prize 2024 was awarded to the Japanese organisation Nihon Hidankyo for its efforts towards which cause?

Samantha Harvey won the Booker Prize 2024 for which novel set aboard the International Space Station?

How many medals did India win at the 2024 Paris Olympic Games?

Who was the first woman to hold the office of President of India?

Who was the first woman to receive India's highest sporting honour, now called the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?

The International Day of Yoga is celebrated worldwide on which date, following its adoption by the United Nations in 2014?

National Science Day is celebrated in India on 28 February to commemorate the discovery of which phenomenon?

Where is the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) located?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?

The headquarters of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is located in which city?

The headquarters of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is located in which city?

Who is the author of the autobiography 'Wings of Fire'?

The book 'The Discovery of India' was written by which author?

For which collection of poems did Rabindranath Tagore become the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature (1913)?

World Health Day is observed on 7 April every year to mark the founding anniversary of which organisation?

Which country won the ICC Men's Cricket World Cup 2023, defeating India in the final?

Veteran actor Waheeda Rehman was honoured with which award, considered the highest honour in Indian cinema?

The Dronacharya Award, instituted by the Government of India, is given for excellence in which field?

At the Paris 2024 Olympics, Neeraj Chopra won a silver medal in which event?

The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is located in which city?

International Women's Day is observed across the world on which date?

The Nobel Prizes are awarded annually in Stockholm, except for one prize awarded in Oslo. Which prize is awarded in Oslo?

Which Indian institution conducts the Census of India and is the source of official population data?

World Press Freedom Day is observed every year on which date?

The book 'The God of Small Things', which won the Booker Prize in 1997, was written by which author?

United Nations Day, marking the entry into force of the UN Charter, is observed on which date?

How many dance forms are officially recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, the national academy for music, dance and drama?

The classical dance form Sattriya, recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000, is associated with which state?

Mohiniyattam, a classical dance characterised by graceful swaying movements, is the classical dance of which state?

Kuchipudi, one of the eight classical dance forms, originated in which state?

Kathakali, known for its elaborate make-up and costumes depicting stories from the epics, is the classical dance-drama of which state?

Odissi, a classical dance noted for its sculpturesque tribhanga poses, is associated with which state?

The ancient Sanskrit treatise on dramaturgy, dance and music, traditionally attributed to the sage Bharata, is known as the:

The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple at Khajuraho is a classic example of which style of Indian temple architecture?

The Brihadeeswara (Brihadishvara) Temple at Thanjavur, built by Rajaraja Chola I, is a celebrated example of which architectural style?

The Vesara style of Indian temple architecture is best described as:

The 13th-century Sun Temple at Konark, designed in the form of a colossal chariot of the Sun God, was built by which ruler?

The ruins of Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, were the capital of which empire?

The Great Stupa at Sanchi, one of the oldest stone structures in India, was originally commissioned by which Mauryan emperor?

India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site, inscribed in July 2024, is the Moidams (mound-burial system) of which dynasty?

Santiniketan, inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, is associated with which Indian figure?

The 'Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas', inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, includes temples at Belur, Halebidu and which third site?

Which trio of composers is collectively known as the 'Trinity of Carnatic Music'?

Which of the following is a classical dance form predominantly associated with Uttar Pradesh, having flourished in the courts of North India?

Madhubani (Mithila) painting, a traditional folk art using natural colours, originates from which state?

Warli painting, characterised by simple geometric shapes depicting daily life, is a tribal art form of which state?

Pattachitra, a cloth-based scroll painting tradition depicting Lord Jagannath and Krishna legends, is chiefly associated with which state?

Tanjore (Thanjavur) painting, distinguished by the use of gold foil and precious stones on a wooden base, is a classical art tradition of which state?

As of the October 2024 Cabinet decision, how many languages enjoy 'Classical Language' status in India?

Which language was the first to be granted 'Classical Language' status in India, in 2004?

The Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, was established in which year?

Which national academy is responsible for the promotion of the visual and fine arts (painting, sculpture and graphics) in India?

Which festival was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2021 as 'Durga Puja in Kolkata'?

'Garba of Gujarat', inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2023, is performed chiefly during which festival?

Kalbelia folk songs and dances, on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list, are associated with a snake-charming community of which state?

Which was the first product in India to receive a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, in 2004?

On which date did Chandrayaan-3's lander module make its historic soft landing near the Moon's south polar region, making India the first country to land there?

The Chandrayaan-3 landing site on the Moon has been officially named:

Which day is observed in India as 'National Space Day', marking the Chandrayaan-3 landing?

India's first dedicated solar mission, Aditya-L1, was placed in a halo orbit around which point?

On 21 June 2023, India became a signatory to which US-led framework for principles governing civil space exploration?

The three new criminal laws that replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act came into force on:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaces which colonial-era law?

In its February 2024 verdict, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme primarily for violating which constitutional right?

The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides for the reservation of what proportion of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

Implementation of the women's reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is contingent on the completion of which two exercises?

Which state became the first in independent India to implement a Uniform Civil Code, with the law coming into force on 27 January 2025?

According to United Nations data released in 2023, India overtook which country to become the world's most populous nation?

Under the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the earlier 10+2 school structure is replaced by which curricular and pedagogical design?

NEP 2020 recommends that, wherever possible, the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5 (and preferably Grade 8) should be the:

As per the 'Status of Tigers in India 2022' estimation, the average estimated tiger population in India was about:

The year 2023 marked the completion of how many years of India's flagship tiger conservation programme, Project Tiger?

Under 'Project Cheetah', the first batch of eight cheetahs introduced into Kuno National Park in September 2022 were brought from which country?

Kuno National Park, the site of India's cheetah reintroduction, is located in which state?

The G20 Leaders' Summit hosted by India in September 2023 was held at which venue in New Delhi?

At the 2023 New Delhi G20 Summit, which regional bloc was admitted as a new permanent member of the G20?

The theme of India's 2023 G20 Presidency, 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future', was drawn from which ancient text?

India's new Parliament building was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on:

The historical sceptre installed in the new Lok Sabha chamber, symbolising the 1947 transfer of power, is known as the:

On 11 December 2023, the Supreme Court of India delivered a verdict upholding the abrogation of which constitutional provision relating to Jammu and Kashmir?

The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated the former state into which two Union Territories?

The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched in September 2023, provides holistic support to artisans and craftspeople engaged in how many traditional trades?

In 2024 the Union Cabinet expanded Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to provide free health cover to all senior citizens irrespective of income above which age?

Senior citizens aged 70 and above newly covered under the expanded Ayushman Bharat scheme are issued which dedicated card, launched in October 2024?

In the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, which party emerged as the single largest party with 240 seats?

The Census of India 2027, whose first official notification was issued in 2025, will be notable as India's first census to be conducted:

On the recommendations of which commission was the Reserve Bank of India established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India nationalised, i.e., transferred to public ownership?

Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India with effect from which date?

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Which body replaced the Planning Commission of India with effect from 1 January 2015?

Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

India's First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on which economic model?

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), which emphasised rapid industrialisation through heavy industries, was based on the model devised by:

In India, one-rupee notes and coins are issued by which authority?

Under which system does the Reserve Bank of India issue currency notes since 1957?

How many major commercial banks were nationalised in India in the first phase in July 1969?

Under whose Prime Ministership and as part of whose finance ministership were the major economic reforms (LPG) of 1991 launched in India?

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was given statutory status through the SEBI Act in which year?

As per the Census of India 2011, the literacy rate of India was approximately:

The 'repo rate' announced by the Reserve Bank of India refers to the rate at which:

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the portion of which of the following that banks must maintain with the RBI?

The Green Revolution in India, launched in the mid-1960s, was associated primarily with the increased production of which crop in its initial phase?

Who is widely regarded as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India'?

At present, which sector contributes the largest share to India's Gross Value Added (GDP)?

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in which year?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (IBRD) were conceived at which 1944 conference?

Where is the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) located?

Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the 'Annual Financial Statement' (Union Budget) laid before Parliament?

The financial year (fiscal year) for the Government of India runs from:

The poverty line methodology that fixed the poverty line at about Rs.27 per day (rural) and Rs.33 per day (urban) for 2011-12 was recommended by which committee?

The first official estimate of India's national income after independence was prepared by the National Income Committee (1949) headed by:

Who is credited with the first attempt to estimate India's national income (per capita income) in 1867-68?

India adopted the decimal system of coinage, dividing the rupee into 100 paise, with effect from:

The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is maintained by commercial banks in the form of:

The Environment (Protection) Act in India was enacted in which year, largely in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the highest degree of legal protection (absolute protection) for species such as the tiger is provided under which Schedule?

In which year did the Government of India launch 'Project Tiger' for the conservation of the tiger?

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) was constituted as a statutory authority under which Act?

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the period of ninety days prescribed under Order VIII Rule 1 CPC for filing a written statement is directory and not mandatory?

An application to set aside an ex parte decree by a defendant against whom it has been passed is provided under-

Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, dealing with settlement of disputes outside the court, does NOT contemplate which of the following modes?

Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 has been judicially regarded as being in the nature of a power to issue a writ of certiorari to subordinate courts?

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Temporary injunction (B) Attachment before judgment (C) Death, marriage and insolvency of parties (D) Addition or substitution of parties List-II: (1) Order XXXVIII (2) Order I Rule 10 (3) Order XXXIX (4) Order XXII

A suit by or against the Government or a public officer in respect of an act purporting to be done in his official capacity cannot be instituted unless a notice has first been served under Section 80 CPC. The period of such notice is-

The doctrine of restitution, under which a party is restored to the position it would have occupied but for an erroneous decree later varied or reversed, is embodied in-

Where a decree for an injunction has been passed and the judgment-debtor has had an opportunity of obeying it but has wilfully failed to do so, the decree may be enforced under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Assertion (A): A civil court is barred from arresting or detaining a woman in execution of a decree for payment of money. Reason (R): Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 prohibits such arrest or detention of a woman. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the doctrine of constructive res judicata is contained in which provision?

An appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (second appeal) lies to the High Court only where the case involves—

Match List-I (provision) with List-II (subject) and select the correct answer: A. Section 9 — 1. Restitution; B. Section 144 — 2. Inherent powers; C. Section 151 — 3. Right to lodge caveat; D. Section 148-A — 4. Jurisdiction of civil courts.

A foreign judgment shall NOT be conclusive under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 where—

The three settled requirements for the grant of a temporary injunction under Order 39, Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 are—

Under Section 96(3) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal lies from—

All questions arising between the parties to the suit in which the decree was passed and relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree are to be determined by—

Where the decree is for the payment of money exceeding five thousand rupees, the maximum period for which a judgment-debtor may be detained in civil prison under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is—

Under Order 7, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a plaint shall be rejected where—

The rule of joint criminal liability — 'when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if it were done by him alone' — is now contained in which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Match List-I (offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (section) and select the correct answer using the code below: (A) Robbery (B) Dacoity (C) Theft (D) Extortion — (1) Section 303 (2) Section 308 (3) Section 309 (4) Section 310

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime' — a continuing unlawful activity carried on by a crime syndicate such as through violence, extortion or economic offences — has been newly introduced under—

Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, murder is the genus and culpable homicide is the species. Reason (R): Every murder is culpable homicide, but every culpable homicide is not murder. Select the correct answer using the code below:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of abetment of suicide is punishable under which section?

Which of the following kinds of hurt is NOT designated as 'grievous hurt' under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

'A', entrusted by 'B' as a warehouse-keeper with goods to be stored, dishonestly sells them for his own profit in violation of the contract of bailment. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is guilty of—

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'dowry death' is dealt with under which section?

Match List-I (concept under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (section) and select the correct answer using the code below: (A) Right of private defence — general (B) Criminal conspiracy (C) Abetment (D) Attempt to murder — (1) Section 45 (2) Section 61 (3) Section 34 (4) Section 109

'A' assaults a woman intending to outrage her modesty. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, assault or use of criminal force to a woman with intent to outrage her modesty is punishable under—

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, criminal trespass and house-trespass are defined and made punishable under which section?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a wholly new offence of 'snatching' has been carved out as a distinct species of theft. Which of the following correctly states the provision and the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for it?

'A', a first-time offender, dishonestly removes from a roadside stall a transistor radio worth Rs. 3,000 belonging to 'B', and is convicted. He returns the radio to 'B'. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the sentence the court may award in such a case of petty theft?

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has introduced a specific provision dealing with murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any other similar ground. Under which provision does this fall, and what is the minimum punishment?

Under the scheme of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which pair correctly matches the offence with its defining/penal section?

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has, for the first time in the general penal law, codified 'organised crime' (including economic offences, contract killing, land grabbing and cyber-crimes committed by a syndicate) as a substantive offence. Under which section is organised crime dealt with?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, each member of such group is punishable under which provision?

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass-

Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender (one who has never been convicted of any offence in the past) is entitled to be released on bond by the Court on having undergone detention for-

Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall be arrested without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police where the offence is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years. Reason (R): The Sanhita seeks to protect vulnerable persons from unnecessary arrest. Select the correct answer using the code below:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the mandatory visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence is required for offences punishable with imprisonment of-

Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces the new requirement that search and seizure proceedings, including the preparation of the list of seized articles, be recorded through audio-video electronic means (preferably mobile phone)?

Under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender), the trial of such absconding accused shall commence only after the expiry of-

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir/relative) may submit a mercy petition to the President or Governor within-

The duty cast on every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the protection of witnesses is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, custody of an accused authorised by a Magistrate for a term not exceeding fifteen days may now be taken-

Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is/are correct? 1. Anticipatory bail is dealt with under Section 482. 2. The inherent powers of the High Court are saved under Section 528. 3. A Court of Session may pass any sentence authorised by law. Select the correct answer using the code below:

Under Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where information about a cognizable offence is given by electronic communication, it shall be taken on record only if it is signed by the person giving it within-

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no person shall be arrested without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police where the offence is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years and the person sought to be arrested is infirm or above a certain age. That age is:

The provision empowering a Magistrate of the first class to order a person of sufficient means to pay a monthly allowance for the maintenance of his wife, children and parents who are unable to maintain themselves is contained, under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may now be given orally, in writing or by electronic communication at any police station irrespective of where the offence is committed (the 'Zero FIR'). This is provided in:

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more, the maximum total period for which a Magistrate may authorise detention of the accused (beyond which the accused is entitled to default bail) is:

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces a statutory mechanism for filing a mercy petition by a convict under sentence of death. The petition must be filed within thirty days of the prescribed intimation by the jail Superintendent. This provision is:

Under the proviso to Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a preliminary enquiry (with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police) to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists may be conducted, on receipt of information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, where the offence is made punishable for-

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, what is the quorum required to constitute the Court?

On non-procedural (substantive) matters, a decision of the Security Council requires an affirmative vote of how many members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members?

Decisions of the General Assembly on 'important questions' are made by which majority of the members present and voting?

The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) presently consists of how many Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly?

The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, which codifies the rules governing treaties between States, was concluded at Vienna in which year?

Which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 declares that a treaty is void if, at the time of its conclusion, it conflicts with a peremptory norm of general international law (jus cogens)?

Under Article 2(1)(a) of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969, the term 'treaty' means an international agreement concluded between States in which form?

The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San Francisco on 26 June 1945, but the United Nations formally came into existence on which date when the Charter entered into force?

Each permanent and non-permanent member of the United Nations Security Council is entitled to how many representatives on the Council?

The provision that 'everyone has the right to a nationality' and that no one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality is contained in Article 15 of which instrument?

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the President and Vice-President of the Court are elected by the judges themselves for a term of how many years, with eligibility for re-election?

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the members of the Court are elected for a term of how many years, and by which organs of the United Nations?

Article 53 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969, declares a treaty void if, at the time of its conclusion, it conflicts with-

Which Article of the Charter of the United Nations preserves the inherent right of individual or collective self-defence 'if an armed attack occurs' against a Member, until the Security Council has taken necessary measures?

Under Article 3 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the Court consists of how many members, and what is the rule as to their nationality?

The World Health Organisation (WHO), a specialised agency of the United Nations, has its headquarters at-

Under Article 27(3) of the Charter of the United Nations, a decision of the Security Council on a non-procedural (substantive) matter requires an affirmative vote of nine members. In addition to this number, what further condition must be satisfied?

Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a promise to pay a time-barred debt is a valid contract without consideration provided that-

Under Section 19A of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a contract whose consent was induced by undue influence may be set aside by the court-

Under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a 'contract of indemnity' is a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him-

In Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913), the Allahabad High Court denied the servant's claim to the reward for tracing the missing nephew principally because-

Consider the second paragraph of Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. A contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible, or by reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent becomes unlawful-

Under Section 64 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it-

Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal, and secondly, under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which are illegal, the position under Section 57 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is that-

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when a person to whom a proposal is made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be -

The communication of a proposal is complete -

An agreement made by a minor is -

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with its leading case?

An agreement, the consideration or object of which is unlawful, is -

Consider the following statements regarding consideration under the Indian Contract Act, 1872: 1. Consideration may move from the promisee or any other person. 2. Consideration must be adequate. 3. An agreement made without consideration is void, subject to exceptions in Section 25. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Which one of the following agreements is valid as an exception under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, even though made without consideration?

An agreement in restraint of any lawful profession, trade or business is -

Under Section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, a gift of immovable property can be effected only by:

A transferee of immovable property who, believing in good faith that he is absolutely entitled to it, makes improvements and is subsequently evicted by a person having a better title, is entitled under Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act to:

In Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah (AIR 1962 SC 847), the Supreme Court resolved the apparent conflict between Section 6(a) and Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, by holding that:

The proviso to Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (transfer by an unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest) protects:

For the doctrine of lis pendens under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 to operate, which of the following conditions is NOT required?

Which of the following is an essential requirement before the doctrine of part performance under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 can be pleaded by a transferee?

Under Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a transfer by an ostensible owner for consideration shall not be voidable on the ground of want of authority only where the transferee, in addition to the real owner's express or implied consent, establishes that he:

Under Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the expression 'transfer of property' means an act by which a living person conveys property, in present or in future, to which of the following?

Under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following is NOT validly transferable?

'A', the owner of property, transfers it to 'B' for his life, and after B's death to such of B's sons as shall first attain the age of 25 years. The eldest son of B was 5 years old at the date of the transfer. The interest created in favour of the son is:

The rule against perpetuity contained in Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does NOT apply to which of the following by virtue of Section 18?

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, where on a transfer of property an interest is created for the benefit of an unborn person, when does such person acquire a vested interest under Section 20?

The doctrine of election under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is contained in which section?

'A', having no present title to certain land, fraudulently sells it to 'B' for value, and afterwards A acquires the land. Under Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer:

Under Article 124(2) of the Constitution, every Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of -

The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is contained in Article 246, which operates with reference to the -

Article 31C, as enacted by the 25th Amendment and later expanded by Section 4 of the 42nd Amendment, was partly struck down in Minerva Mills because the expanded version sought to give primacy to -

Match List-I (Power/Office) with List-II (Article) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Power of the President to grant pardon (B) Executive power of the Union (C) Appointment of the Attorney-General for India (D) Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President List-II: (1) Article 53 (2) Article 72 (3) Article 74 (4) Article 76

Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of an All India Service, including an All India Judicial Service, only if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) has declared by resolution supported by-

In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the basic structure doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court. The Bench that decided the case and the majority by which the doctrine was laid down were respectively-

Assertion (A): The writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 is wider than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32. Reason (R): A High Court may issue writs not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also for 'any other purpose'. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under Article 110 of the Constitution, when any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of which authority is final?

In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court struck down a part of Article 31C inserted by the Twenty-fifth Amendment. The portion held unconstitutional was the clause which-

Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143 is/are correct? 1. On a reference under Article 143(1), the Supreme Court may decline to express its opinion. 2. The opinion rendered by the Supreme Court is binding on the President. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court, through a nine-Judge Bench, hold that secularism is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and that a Proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review?

Which of the following amendments to the Constitution require ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States, in addition to a special majority in Parliament? 1. Amendment of any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. 2. Amendment affecting the manner of election of the President. 3. Amendment of the provisions relating to Fundamental Rights in Part III. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2022), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the One Hundred and Third Amendment providing reservation for Economically Weaker Sections. The decision was rendered by-

A right available against the whole world at large (such as the right of ownership) is classified in jurisprudence as a-

Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: A. H.L.A. Hart B. Ronald Dworkin C. John Rawls D. Hans Kelsen List-II: 1. A Theory of Justice 2. Taking Rights Seriously 3. The Concept of Law 4. General Theory of Law and State

The doctrine of 'Social Solidarity', built upon the idea of division of labour and the social interdependence of human beings, was developed by-

In Hohfeld's table of jural relations, the jural opposite of a 'Right' is-

Which one of the following pairs of jurists belongs to the Natural Law (idealist) school of jurisprudence?

In Kelsen's hierarchy of norms, the validity of every legal norm is derived from-

Who defined jurisprudence as 'the science of the first principles of the civil law'?

According to John Austin's imperative theory, law is properly understood as-

Who is regarded as the founder of the Analytical School of jurisprudence and authored 'The Province of Jurisprudence Determined'?

In Hans Kelsen's Pure Theory of Law, the norm from which all other norms of a legal system derive their validity is called-

In Hohfeld's scheme of jural relations, the correlative of a 'Right' is-

Match List-I (Hohfeldian jural correlative) with List-II and select the correct answer: List-I A. Power B. Immunity C. Privilege D. Right ; List-II 1. Duty 2. Liability 3. Disability 4. No-right

The rule that the fact of a person's birth during the continuance of a valid marriage (or within 280 days of its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried) is conclusive proof of legitimacy, unless non-access is shown, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of a person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him. This rule is embodied in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused, and as enacted, a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. This rule is found in:

Leading questions, that is, questions suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes to receive, are dealt with under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Judge may, in order to discover or obtain proper proof of relevant facts, ask any question he pleases of any witness or party about any relevant or irrelevant fact. This power is conferred by:

Under Section 39(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where the Court has to form an opinion on any matter relating to information transmitted or stored in a computer resource or other electronic or digital form, the opinion of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence referred to in Section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 is:

As per Section 146 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, even where the adverse party objects, the Court shall permit leading questions in examination-in-chief as to matters which are:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court may, in its discretion, permit the person who calls a witness to put to him any question which might be put in cross-examination by the adverse party. This power (relating to a hostile witness) is contained in:

Under Section 93 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where an electronic record purporting or proved to be a certain age is produced from custody which the Court considers proper, the Court may presume that the electronic signature was affixed by the person it purports to belong to. The age prescribed for this presumption is:

Under the proviso to Section 60 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when the original is a public document within the meaning of Section 74, or a document of which a certified copy is permitted to be given in evidence, the secondary evidence admissible is:

Among the illustrations to Section 119 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (Court may presume existence of certain facts), one illustration enables the Court to presume that:

Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 bars proof of confessions made to a police officer or in police custody; however, its proviso permits proof of so much of the information received from an accused in custody as relates distinctly to:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which provision corresponds to the rule of res gestae by making relevant facts that, though not in issue, are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction?

A police officer, in the course of investigation, records a statement from an accused in custody who then leads the police to a field and points out a weapon buried there. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how much of that information is admissible against the accused?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a confession made by an accused person is irrelevant in a criminal proceeding if it appears to the court to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise. This rule is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a statement made by a person since deceased as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, is relevant under:

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the provision that 'no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact' is found in:

The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which is in the nature of a power to keep subordinate courts within the bounds of their jurisdiction, is contained in—

Settlement of disputes outside the court through arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, or mediation is provided for under which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a 'decree' includes the rejection of a plaint but does NOT include—

An order for attachment of property before judgment under Order 38, Rule 5 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may be made where the court is satisfied that the defendant, with intent to obstruct or delay the execution of any decree, is about to—

The institution of suits is governed by which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, read with the relevant Order?

Under Section 100A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where an appeal from an original or appellate decree has been heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court—

Under Rule 3-A of Order XXIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit to set aside a decree on the ground that the compromise on which the decree is based was not lawful -

Under Section 35-B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, when a party is ordered to pay costs for causing delay, payment of such costs is -

Under the proviso to Section 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit to obtain relief respecting immovable property held by the defendant, where the relief sought can be entirely obtained through the personal obedience of the defendant, may be instituted -