Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 2 — Questions & Solutions

The Ganga is the longest river of India. Approximately what is its total length?

The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

Indian Standard Time is based on the standard meridian of 82°30' E longitude, which passes near which town in Uttar Pradesh?

Which is the largest Indian state by geographical area?

Indira Point, the southernmost point of India's territory, is located on which island?

According to the 2011 Census, which state has the largest population in India?

Which state is the leading producer of sugarcane in India?

Which Indian state is the largest producer of coffee?

Which Indian state shares its boundary with the maximum number of other Indian states?

Wular Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, is located in which Union Territory/State?

Chilika Lake, the largest brackish-water lagoon in India, lies in which state?

Nathu La, a Himalayan mountain pass on the India-China border, is located in which Indian state?

The Zoji La pass, on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway, connects the Kashmir Valley with which region?

The Narmada and Tapi rivers are notable among peninsular rivers because they flow:

Black soil (regur), well suited to cotton cultivation, is chiefly associated with which physiographic region of India?

Which state is the largest producer of iron ore in India?

Which is the smallest Indian state by geographical area?

Which mainland Indian state has the longest coastline?

Assam is the leading Indian state in the production of which beverage crop?

The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet at which hill range in the south?

The Palk Strait separates India from which neighbouring country?

Which is the highest peak of the Western Ghats?

The northernmost range of the Himalayas, containing peaks such as Everest and Kanchenjunga, is known as the:

The Sundarbans delta, the world's largest delta, is formed by which river system?

Which strait separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands?

The Damodar river, once called the 'Sorrow of Bengal', is a tributary of which major river?

India's first iron and steel plant set up at Jamshedpur (TISCO) lies in which present-day state?

The Aravalli Range, one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, runs mainly through which state?

Which two states does the Indira Gandhi Canal, drawing water from the Sutlej-Beas, mainly serve to irrigate?

The two largest and most well-known cities of the Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation were Harappa and which other city, known for its 'Great Bath'?

The mature (urban) phase of the Harappan Civilisation is generally dated by archaeologists to approximately which period?

The oldest of the four Vedas, a collection of hymns, is which one?

Vardhamana Mahavira is traditionally regarded in Jainism as which Tirthankara?

Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon (Dhammachakkappavattana), expounding the Four Noble Truths, at which place near Varanasi?

Which ancient kingdom (mahajanapada) had its capital first at Rajagriha and later at Pataliputra and rose to dominance under the Haryanka rulers?

The Maurya Empire was founded around 322 BCE by which ruler, aided by his adviser Chanakya (Kautilya)?

Megasthenes, who wrote the 'Indica' describing Pataliputra, was a Greek ambassador sent to the Mauryan court by which Hellenistic ruler?

The Kalinga War, which led Emperor Ashoka to renounce war and embrace Dhamma, is generally dated to about which year?

Most of Ashoka's edicts (rock and pillar inscriptions) were written predominantly in which script?

The Third Buddhist Council is traditionally said to have been held at Pataliputra during the reign of which emperor?

Which Kushana ruler is most associated with the spread of Mahayana Buddhism and convening the Fourth Buddhist Council?

The Gupta Empire, often called the 'Golden Age' of ancient India, flourished approximately during which span?

Which Gupta ruler, celebrated for his extensive conquests recorded in the Allahabad Prashasti, was dubbed the 'Napoleon of India' by historian V.A. Smith?

The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien (Faxian) visited India primarily during the reign of which Gupta emperor?

The mathematician-astronomer Aryabhata, who worked on the place-value system and the rotation of the earth, belonged to which classical age?

The Chinese pilgrim Hsuan-tsang (Xuanzang) visited India during the reign of which northern Indian ruler in the 7th century CE?

The Chola king Rajaraja I built which great Dravidian temple at Thanjavur, completed around 1010 CE?

The famous Rathas and the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) were built under the patronage of which dynasty?

The Kailasa (Kailasanatha) temple at Ellora, carved out of a single rock, was built mainly under which dynasty?

Who founded the first dynasty (the Mamluk or 'Slave' dynasty) of the Delhi Sultanate around 1206 CE?

Razia Sultan, the first and only woman to rule from the throne of Delhi, was the daughter of which Sultan?

The introduction of the silver tanka and the copper jital, and the organisation of the iqta system, are associated with which Slave-dynasty Sultan?

Which Delhi Sultan is famous for his market control (price regulation) measures and for repelling Mongol invasions in the early 14th century?

Which Tughlaq Sultan is notorious for shifting his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Devagiri) and for an ill-fated token (copper) currency experiment?

The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by which pair of brothers?

The Vijayanagara Empire reached its zenith under which ruler of the Tuluva dynasty (r. 1509–1529), a great patron of Telugu literature?

The Battle of Talikota (1565), which led to the sacking of Vijayanagara's capital Hampi, was fought against the empire by a confederacy of which states?

Babur founded the Mughal Empire in India by defeating Ibrahim Lodi at which battle in 1526?

Which Mughal emperor promulgated a syncretic religious order called the Din-i-Ilahi in 1582?

The Battle of Plassey, which laid the foundation of British political power in Bengal, was fought in which year?

After the Battle of Buxar (1764), the East India Company obtained the Diwani (right to collect revenue) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II in which year?

The Brahmo Samaj, a reform movement advocating monotheism and opposing idol worship, was founded in 1828 by:

The practice of Sati was legally abolished in British India in 1829 by Regulation XVII under which Governor-General?

The Revolt of 1857 is generally considered to have begun with the firing on his officers by sepoy Mangal Pandey at which cantonment?

During the Revolt of 1857 the rebels proclaimed which person as the symbolic Emperor of India at Delhi?

As a direct consequence of the Revolt of 1857, the Government of India Act 1858 transferred the governance of India from the East India Company to the:

Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress at its inaugural session held in Bombay in December 1885?

The Partition of Bengal that triggered the Swadeshi Movement was announced in 1905 by which Viceroy of India?

The Partition of Bengal of 1905 was annulled in 1911 at the Delhi Durbar during the viceroyalty of:

Mahatma Gandhi's first satyagraha in India, launched in 1917 on behalf of exploited indigo cultivators, took place at:

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, in which troops fired on an unarmed crowd at Amritsar, occurred on:

The repressive law of 1919 that allowed detention without trial and provoked nationwide protests preceding the Jallianwala Bagh massacre was the:

Mahatma Gandhi suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 following a violent incident at which place in present-day Uttar Pradesh?

The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Gandhi in 1920 was closely linked with which other contemporaneous movement?

Lala Lajpat Rai, who later died of injuries from a police lathi-charge, was leading a protest in 1928 against which body?

At which session did the Indian National Congress adopt 'Purna Swaraj' (complete independence) as its goal in 1929?

Mahatma Gandhi began the Dandi Salt March, marking the start of the Civil Disobedience Movement, on:

The Quit India Resolution was passed by the All India Congress Committee at its Bombay session on:

The famous slogan 'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) is associated with which movement led by Mahatma Gandhi?

Subhas Chandra Bose founded which political organisation in 1939 after resigning from the Congress presidency?

Subhas Chandra Bose assumed the leadership of the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in 1943 in which city?

Subhas Chandra Bose was first elected President of the Indian National Congress at which session in 1938?

The Cabinet Mission, which proposed a scheme for an undivided India and the formation of a Constituent Assembly, came to India in:

The plan for the partition of India announced by Lord Mountbatten on 3 June 1947 is commonly known as the:

Under the Indian Independence Act 1947, the partition of British India into the Dominions of India and Pakistan took effect from:

The Swadeshi Movement, emphasising the boycott of British goods and use of indigenous products, arose primarily in response to:

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was directed against the exploitative system that forced peasants to grow indigo, known as the:

The Indian National Congress observed 26 January 1930 for the first time as:

Which Governor-General is associated with the 'Doctrine of Lapse', a policy of annexation that fuelled discontent leading up to the Revolt of 1857?

In which city was the Charter of the United Nations signed on 26 June 1945?

How many States are the original (founding) members of the United Nations?

How many members does the United Nations Security Council have in total?

Which of the following is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

Where is the seat of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), the principal judicial organ of the United Nations?

How many judges constitute the International Court of Justice?

In which year was the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) established?

Where is the Secretariat of SAARC located?

The first summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was held in 1961 in which city?

Which Indian leader was among the principal founders of the Non-Aligned Movement?

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in 1967 by the Declaration signed in which city?

Where is the Secretariat of ASEAN located?

In which Russian city was the first BRIC (now BRICS) summit held in 2009?

Which country joined BRIC in 2010, turning the grouping into 'BRICS'?

On what date is World Health Day observed, marking the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

Where is the headquarters of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank were created at which 1944 conference?

Where are the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank located?

The World Trade Organization (WTO), which came into being in 1995, replaced which earlier arrangement?

Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located?

How many member states does the United Nations currently have?

Who was the first Secretary-General of the United Nations?

Which country's national, Antonio Guterres, currently serves as the Secretary-General of the United Nations?

How many principal organs are established under the Charter of the United Nations?

In which year did India officially join the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) as a full member?

In which city was the 18th G20 Leaders' Summit held in September 2023 under India's presidency?

Which entity was admitted as a permanent member of the G20 during India's 2023 presidency?

The Paris Agreement on climate change was adopted in 2015 at which session of the Conference of the Parties (COP)?

What does 'BIMSTEC' stand for?

At the time of its commencement, the Constitution of India consisted of how many Articles, Parts and Schedules respectively?

The Constituent Assembly of India held its first sitting on which date?

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?

The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Constitution by which amendment?

Article 1 of the Constitution of India describes India, that is Bharat, as a:

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described which Article as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?

Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?

The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed mainly from the Constitution of which country?

The concept of Fundamental Rights and Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is primarily borrowed from the Constitution of:

The Parliamentary form of government and the concept of Rule of Law in India are borrowed from the Constitution / system of:

Which Article of the Constitution provides for the abolition of 'Untouchability'?

The Right to Education (Article 21A), making elementary education a Fundamental Right, was inserted by which amendment?

How many freedoms are guaranteed to citizens under Article 19 of the Constitution at present?

The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with which system of voting?

The Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of which House of Parliament?

On what ground can the President of India be removed from office through impeachment under Article 61?

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is appointed by:

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added which new Part and Schedule to the Constitution?

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, dealing with Municipalities, added which Schedule to the Constitution?

The anti-defection provisions are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985?

The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:

Which Article empowers the Parliament to amend the Constitution and lays down the procedure for amendment?

The writ issued by a court to secure the release of a person who has been unlawfully detained is known as:

Which writ is issued against a person who unlawfully holds or usurps a public office, questioning the authority by which the office is held?

Under Article 226, the power to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose is vested in the:

The Finance Commission of India is constituted under which Article of the Constitution?

The superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in the Election Commission under which Article?

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is established under which Article of the Constitution?

Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution (as Article 51A, Part IV-A) on the recommendation of which committee?

The power to form a new State or alter the boundaries of existing States is given to the Parliament under which Article?

On which date did ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 mission achieve a soft landing on the Moon, making India the first country to land near the lunar south pole?

A witness, while under examination, refers to entries in a register that he himself made at the time of the transaction to recall the facts. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this is permitted under the provision dealing with refreshing memory, namely—

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, 'all laws in force in the territory of India' and 'every international treaty, agreement or convention' are among the facts of which the Court shall take judicial notice. This enumeration is contained in—

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where an electronic record is produced as evidence, the certificate required to render it admissible must be signed by—

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the doctrine that a fact discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody may be proved 'so much as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered' is embodied in which provision?

A married woman commits suicide within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that her husband had subjected her to cruelty. Under Section 117 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the court-

Which of the following statements about the presumption as to dowry death under Section 118 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) is correct?

Birth during the continuance of a valid marriage between the mother and any man is, under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), treated as-

In Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014), the Supreme Court held that the admissibility of the contents of a secondary electronic record (decided on the then Indian Evidence Act, the position now being carried forward into the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) is governed by-

Match List-I (provision) with List-II (Section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023): A. Estoppel B. Burden of proof lies on the person who asserts C. Accomplice is a competent witness D. Dying declaration. Select the correct code.

An appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to the High Court from an appellate decree of a subordinate court lies only when the case involves-

The doctrine that a civil court has jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred, and the seven propositions governing exclusion of such jurisdiction, were laid down by the Supreme Court in-

Under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no suit shall be instituted against the Government or a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiration of-

Match List-I (Provision) with List-II (Subject-matter) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Section 11 (B) Section 144 (C) Section 151 (D) Section 89 List-II: (1) Restitution (2) Inherent powers of court (3) Res judicata (4) Settlement of disputes outside court Code:

Which one of the following is NOT a ground specified under Order VII, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for rejection of a plaint?

The power of the court to add, strike out or substitute parties so that all questions involved in the suit may be completely adjudicated upon is contained in-

Assertion (A): No suit shall be defeated merely by reason of the misjoinder or non-joinder of parties. Reason (R): The court may in every suit deal with the matter in controversy so far as regards the rights and interests of the parties actually before it. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A temporary injunction restraining a defendant from alienating or wasting property in dispute, or from dispossessing the plaintiff, may be granted by the court under-

Where the court is satisfied that the defendant, with intent to obstruct or delay the execution of any decree that may be passed against him, is about to dispose of or remove his property from the local limits of the court's jurisdiction, the court may direct attachment before judgment under-

Amendment of pleadings at any stage of the proceedings, in such manner and on such terms as may be just, to determine the real questions in controversy between the parties, is provided under-

The principle of res judicata, which bars the trial of a suit or issue in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties and finally decided by a competent court, is embodied in-

Where and in so far as a decree has been varied or reversed in appeal or revision, the court which passed the decree shall, on application, cause such restitution to be made as will place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree. This power of restitution is conferred by-

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the principle of res judicata is contained in which of the following sections?

A suit for recovery of possession of immovable property situated within the local limits of the jurisdiction of one court, while the defendant resides in another, must ordinarily be instituted in the court within whose limits the property is situate by virtue of which provision?

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Under Section 35-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the maximum amount of compensatory costs that a court may award in respect of a false or vexatious claim or defence cannot exceed-

A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies only when the case involves-

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Appeal from original decree (B) Reference to High Court (C) Review (D) Revision List-II: (1) Section 113 (2) Section 96 (3) Section 115 (4) Section 114

Which one of the following pairs relating to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is NOT correctly matched?

The offence of 'snatching', introduced for the first time as a distinct offence, is defined under which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

'A', the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder having been committed by him with the intention of causing death, is liable under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 to be punished with -

Match List-I (Offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (Section) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (P) Voyeurism (Q) Stalking (R) Sexual harassment (S) Dowry death List-II: (1) Section 75 (2) Section 77 (3) Section 78 (4) Section 80

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime' resulting in the death of a person is punishable under which Section, and with what minimum sentence?

The offence which replaced the offence of sedition (formerly Section 124-A IPC), namely 'acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India', is contained in which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

'A', a police officer, tortures 'Z' in order to induce 'Z' to confess that he has committed a crime. Although the section number has changed, the substantive offence of voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession continues under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an assembly of five or more persons is designated an 'unlawful assembly' under -

'A' instigates 'B' to murder 'C'. 'B' refuses to do so. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the definition of 'abetment of a thing' and of an 'abettor' is found respectively in -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'dacoity' is constituted when robbery is committed or attempted to be committed conjointly by -

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched with reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the general exceptions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of the body and of property is conferred by -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of defamation is defined and made punishable under -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching' — where, in order to commit theft, the offender suddenly or quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property from a person or his possession — is dealt with under which section?

A mob of seven persons, acting in concert on the ground of the victim's caste, beats him to death. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the specific provision punishing such murder by a group of five or more persons on the ground of caste, race, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief is contained in—

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

'A', a police officer, captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act in circumstances where she would ordinarily expect not to be observed, and later disseminates it. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is liable for the offence of—

Which one of the following pairs under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is correctly matched?

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (BNSS Section) (A) Section 173 (B) Section 187 (C) Section 193 (D) Section 223 List-II (Subject) 1. Police report on completion of investigation 2. Information in cognizable cases 3. Procedure when investigation cannot be completed in twenty-four hours 4. Cognizance of offences by Magistrate

Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, search and seizure or the taking of property during investigation is required to be:

Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 makes it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and collect forensic evidence in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of:

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 casts a duty on every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the State?

Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a proclaimed offender who has absconded may be tried even in his absence. Reason (R): Section 356 BNSS permits trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender where there is no immediate prospect of arresting him. Select the correct answer:

Under the proviso to Section 35(7) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, no arrest shall be made of a person who is infirm or above a certain age, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment up to three years, except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. That age is:

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 confers inherent powers on the High Court to make such orders as may be necessary to give effect to any order under the Sanhita, to prevent abuse of process or to secure the ends of justice?

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the total period of police custody of an accused person, which may now be sought in parts during the initial period of investigation, may extend up to:

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Under the proviso to Section 223 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, before taking cognizance of an offence on a complaint, the Magistrate shall:

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (BNSS Section) (A) Section 35 (B) Section 39 (C) Section 43 (D) Section 47 List-II (Subject) 1. Arrest how made 2. When police may arrest without warrant 3. Arrest by private person and procedure on such arrest 4. Person arrested to be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail

Under Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in cases of certain offences against women and children, the investigation is required to be completed within a fixed outer limit from the date of recording of information. That period is:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a notice of appearance in lieu of arrest (the provision corresponding to old Section 41-A CrPC) is issued under which section, applicable where the offence is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years?

The 'Zero FIR' and registration of an FIR electronically (e-FIR) for a cognizable offence, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, are now expressly provided under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention authorised by a Magistrate where the investigation cannot be completed, for an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than ten years, is-

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with reference to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the members of the Court are elected for a term of:

Which one of the following statements regarding the International Court of Justice is correct?

Under Article 59 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, a decision of the Court:

The official languages of the International Court of Justice are:

Which Article of the Charter of the United Nations declares the International Court of Justice to be the principal judicial organ of the United Nations and provides that its Statute is based on that of the Permanent Court of International Justice?

Under which Article of the Charter of the United Nations have the members agreed to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council?

The Security Council of the United Nations consists of fifteen members, of which the number of permanent members is:

The 'domestic jurisdiction clause', under which nothing in the Charter authorises the United Nations to intervene in matters essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State, is contained in:

The inherent right of individual or collective self-defence in the event of an armed attack is preserved under which Article of the Charter of the United Nations?

An amendment to the Charter of the United Nations comes into force when adopted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the members, a requirement which must, in every case, include:

The Economic and Social Council of the United Nations consists of fifty-four members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly. The number of members elected each year is:

Under the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969, a treaty is void if, at the time of its conclusion, it conflicts with a peremptory norm of general international law (jus cogens). This rule is contained in:

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted and proclaimed by the General Assembly of the United Nations on:

Under which Article of the Charter of the United Nations is the International Court of Justice expressly declared to be the 'principal judicial organ' of the United Nations?

The sources of international law that the International Court of Justice is directed to apply are enumerated in which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?

The Members of the International Court of Justice are elected for a term of nine years and may be re-elected. They are elected by which body or bodies?

With respect to contentious cases before the International Court of Justice, which of the following statements is correct?

In Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt, a servant who traced his master's missing nephew without knowing of the reward announcement was held not entitled to the reward. The case establishes the principle that-

'A', by a deed of gift, transfers certain landed property to her daughter 'B', with a direction that 'B' shall pay an annuity to 'A's brother 'C'. 'C' sues 'B' for the annuity. Which principle, illustrated by Chinnaya v. Ramayya, governs the maintainability of C's suit?

An agreement made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other is enforceable, though made without consideration, only if-

Where necessaries suited to his condition in life are supplied to a minor, the supplier under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is entitled to-

Which of the following statements regarding an agreement in restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is correct?

In Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co., the Supreme Court held that the word 'impossible' in Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872-

If the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it, the original contract need not be performed. This substitution of a new contract for an existing one is known as-

The rule in Hadley v. Baxendale, which finds statutory expression in Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, lays down that compensation for breach of contract may be recovered for loss-

A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is defined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as a contract of-

The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is, under Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, called-

Consider the following with reference to free consent: 1. Coercion renders a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused. 2. Where consent is caused by fraud, the contract is void ab initio. 3. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake. Which of the above are correct?

In Balfour v. Balfour, the husband's promise to pay his wife a monthly allowance while he was abroad was held unenforceable because-

Under Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when an agreement is discovered to be void or when a contract becomes void, the person who has received any advantage under such agreement or contract is bound to-

Under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in which of the following cases is a contract that the agent is personally bound NOT presumed to exist?

Under Section 141 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a surety is entitled to the benefit of every security which the creditor has against the principal debtor at the time the contract of suretyship is entered into-

Under Section 130 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of an actionable claim shall be effected -

Under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which one of the following is NOT capable of being transferred?

The rule against perpetuity in Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 permits postponement of vesting up to the lifetime of one or more living persons plus:

Where, on a transfer for the benefit of a class, the interest of some members of the class fails by reason of Sections 13 or 14, Section 15 of the Transfer of Property Act provides that:

The doctrine of 'feeding the grant by estoppel' is embodied in which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

The doctrine of election under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act requires that a person taking a benefit under an instrument which also purports to transfer his own property must:

For protection under Section 41 (transfer by ostensible owner) of the Transfer of Property Act, which condition is essential?

The doctrine of lis pendens, codified in Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, applies during the pendency of a suit in which:

The doctrine of part performance under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act can be used by the transferee:

Under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, in which kind of mortgage does the mortgagor transfer the property absolutely to the mortgagee subject to a proviso for re-transfer on payment?

A mortgage where the mortgagor delivers possession to the mortgagee and authorises him to retain it and to appropriate the rents and profits in lieu of interest or principal is a:

The right of redemption of a mortgagor under Section 60 of the Transfer of Property Act can be extinguished only by:

Under Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, a lease of immovable property from year to year, or for a term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent, can be made only by:

Under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, in the absence of a contract or local usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be a lease:

In I. R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after which date are open to challenge if they violate the basic structure or abrogate fundamental rights?

During a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, the operation of which Article enabling enforcement of certain fundamental rights cannot be suspended, as expressly protected by Article 359(1) after the 44th Amendment?

Under Article 312 of the Constitution, Parliament may create an All-India Judicial Service only if the Council of States declares it necessary in the national interest by a resolution supported by not less than -

Article 312(3) provides that the all-India judicial service shall not include any post inferior to that of a -

Under Article 233 of the Constitution, the appointment of district judges in a State is made by the Governor -

A person not already in the service of the Union or the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233(2) only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than -

The power of the Governor of a State to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature is contained in -

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes the writ jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226 from that of the Supreme Court under Article 32?

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court first propound the doctrine of 'basic structure' as a limitation on the amending power under Article 368?

In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court struck down clauses (4) and (5) inserted in Article 368 by the 42nd Amendment primarily because they -

Article 20(2) of the Constitution embodies the protection against double jeopardy, expressed in the maxim 'nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa'. This guarantee applies where a person has been -

In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that a Proclamation issued under Article 356 -

Match List-I (Subject) with List-II (Article) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Free legal aid (B) Uniform Civil Code (C) Separation of Judiciary from Executive (D) Equal pay for equal work List-II: (1) Article 39A (2) Article 44 (3) Article 50 (4) Article 39(d)

In H.L.A. Hart's concept of law, a developed legal system is the union of primary rules of obligation with secondary rules. The secondary rule that identifies which rules are valid rules of the system is called the:

The distinction between distributive justice and corrective (or commutative) justice in legal theory is traditionally traced to:

Under the doctrine of precedent, that part of a judgment which states the principle of law on which the decision is based and which alone is binding is known as:

Who among the following jurists defined law as 'the body of principles recognised and applied by the State in the administration of justice'?

In Kelsen's Pure Theory of Law, the 'Grundnorm' is best described as-

The theory that law is a means of 'social engineering' aimed at balancing competing interests in society is associated with-

According to Hohfeld's scheme of fundamental legal conceptions, the jural correlative of a 'Right' is-

The famous thesis that 'the movement of the progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from Status to Contract' was propounded by-

The concept of 'Volksgeist', i.e. that law is an expression of the common consciousness or spirit of the people and grows with the nation, is attributed to-

Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Concept/Theory) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: A. John Austin B. Hans Kelsen C. Roscoe Pound D. H.L.A. Hart List-II: 1. Rule of Recognition 2. Command of the Sovereign 3. Pure Theory of Law 4. Social Engineering

According to Salmond, possession in fact consists of two essential elements. They are-

John Austin's 'Command Theory' regards law as a command of the sovereign backed by a sanction. Which jurist is regarded as the founder of this Analytical (Positivist) School and Austin's teacher?

Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), as enacted, provides that an accomplice is a competent witness and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon his corroborated testimony. The rule requiring corroboration of accomplice evidence in material particulars as a rule of prudence is, however, drawn from-

Which one of the following provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) deals with the opinion of an Examiner of Electronic Evidence as an expert?

A confession made by an accused while in the custody of a police officer is, under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), provable against him only if it is made-

Under Section 120 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved in certain prosecutions for rape and the woman states in her evidence that she did not consent, the court shall presume-

The classic definition of 'confession' as a statement that must either admit in terms the offence or substantially all the facts constituting it was authoritatively laid down by the Privy Council in-

A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, is relevant under-

When the question is whether any act was accidental or intentional, the fact that such act formed part of a series of similar occurrences in each of which the person doing the act was concerned, becomes relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched (under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023)?

The burden of proving that the case of the accused falls within any of the General Exceptions in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 lies, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), upon-

After the repeal of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the law of evidence in criminal and civil proceedings in India is now governed by which enactment?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a confession made to a police officer cannot be proved against an accused. Which provision embodies this bar?

The principle of 'discovery of fact' — that so much of the information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved — is contained in which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A man is fatally injured and states to a bystander the circumstances of the transaction that resulted in his death; he dies thereafter. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the admissibility of this dying declaration is governed by:

When the Court has to form an opinion on a point of foreign law, science, art or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of specially skilled persons are relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the admissibility of an electronic record produced by a computer or communication device, on satisfaction of the prescribed conditions and accompanied by the required certificate, is governed by:

Which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 declares that an electronic or digital record shall not be denied admissibility merely on the ground that it is an electronic or digital record and shall have the same legal effect as other documents?

Where a woman commits suicide within seven years of marriage and it is shown that her husband or his relative subjected her to cruelty, the Court may presume that such person abetted the suicide. This presumption is found in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

In a prosecution for dowry death, where it is shown that soon before her death the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment for dowry, the Court 'shall presume' that the accused caused the dowry death. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 this mandatory presumption is contained in: