Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 7 — Questions & Solutions

Megasthenes, who wrote the 'Indica' describing Pataliputra, was a Greek ambassador sent to the Mauryan court by which Hellenistic ruler?

The Kalinga War, which led Emperor Ashoka to renounce war and embrace Dhamma, is generally dated to about which year?

Most of Ashoka's edicts (rock and pillar inscriptions) were written predominantly in which script?

The Third Buddhist Council is traditionally said to have been held at Pataliputra during the reign of which emperor?

Which Kushana ruler is most associated with the spread of Mahayana Buddhism and convening the Fourth Buddhist Council?

The Gupta Empire, often called the 'Golden Age' of ancient India, flourished approximately during which span?

Which Gupta ruler, celebrated for his extensive conquests recorded in the Allahabad Prashasti, was dubbed the 'Napoleon of India' by historian V.A. Smith?

The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien (Faxian) visited India primarily during the reign of which Gupta emperor?

The mathematician-astronomer Aryabhata, who worked on the place-value system and the rotation of the earth, belonged to which classical age?

The Chinese pilgrim Hsuan-tsang (Xuanzang) visited India during the reign of which northern Indian ruler in the 7th century CE?

The Chola king Rajaraja I built which great Dravidian temple at Thanjavur, completed around 1010 CE?

The famous Rathas and the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) were built under the patronage of which dynasty?

The Kailasa (Kailasanatha) temple at Ellora, carved out of a single rock, was built mainly under which dynasty?

Who founded the first dynasty (the Mamluk or 'Slave' dynasty) of the Delhi Sultanate around 1206 CE?

Razia Sultan, the first and only woman to rule from the throne of Delhi, was the daughter of which Sultan?

The introduction of the silver tanka and the copper jital, and the organisation of the iqta system, are associated with which Slave-dynasty Sultan?

Which Delhi Sultan is famous for his market control (price regulation) measures and for repelling Mongol invasions in the early 14th century?

Which Tughlaq Sultan is notorious for shifting his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Devagiri) and for an ill-fated token (copper) currency experiment?

The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by which pair of brothers?

The Vijayanagara Empire reached its zenith under which ruler of the Tuluva dynasty (r. 1509–1529), a great patron of Telugu literature?

The Battle of Talikota (1565), which led to the sacking of Vijayanagara's capital Hampi, was fought against the empire by a confederacy of which states?

Babur founded the Mughal Empire in India by defeating Ibrahim Lodi at which battle in 1526?

Which Mughal emperor promulgated a syncretic religious order called the Din-i-Ilahi in 1582?

The Battle of Plassey, which laid the foundation of British political power in Bengal, was fought in which year?

After the Battle of Buxar (1764), the East India Company obtained the Diwani (right to collect revenue) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II in which year?

The Brahmo Samaj, a reform movement advocating monotheism and opposing idol worship, was founded in 1828 by:

The practice of Sati was legally abolished in British India in 1829 by Regulation XVII under which Governor-General?

The Revolt of 1857 is generally considered to have begun with the firing on his officers by sepoy Mangal Pandey at which cantonment?

During the Revolt of 1857 the rebels proclaimed which person as the symbolic Emperor of India at Delhi?

As a direct consequence of the Revolt of 1857, the Government of India Act 1858 transferred the governance of India from the East India Company to the:

Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress at its inaugural session held in Bombay in December 1885?

The Partition of Bengal that triggered the Swadeshi Movement was announced in 1905 by which Viceroy of India?

The Partition of Bengal of 1905 was annulled in 1911 at the Delhi Durbar during the viceroyalty of:

Mahatma Gandhi's first satyagraha in India, launched in 1917 on behalf of exploited indigo cultivators, took place at:

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, in which troops fired on an unarmed crowd at Amritsar, occurred on:

The repressive law of 1919 that allowed detention without trial and provoked nationwide protests preceding the Jallianwala Bagh massacre was the:

Mahatma Gandhi suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 following a violent incident at which place in present-day Uttar Pradesh?

The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Gandhi in 1920 was closely linked with which other contemporaneous movement?

Lala Lajpat Rai, who later died of injuries from a police lathi-charge, was leading a protest in 1928 against which body?

At which session did the Indian National Congress adopt 'Purna Swaraj' (complete independence) as its goal in 1929?

Mahatma Gandhi began the Dandi Salt March, marking the start of the Civil Disobedience Movement, on:

The Quit India Resolution was passed by the All India Congress Committee at its Bombay session on:

The famous slogan 'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) is associated with which movement led by Mahatma Gandhi?

Subhas Chandra Bose founded which political organisation in 1939 after resigning from the Congress presidency?

Subhas Chandra Bose assumed the leadership of the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in 1943 in which city?

Subhas Chandra Bose was first elected President of the Indian National Congress at which session in 1938?

The Cabinet Mission, which proposed a scheme for an undivided India and the formation of a Constituent Assembly, came to India in:

The plan for the partition of India announced by Lord Mountbatten on 3 June 1947 is commonly known as the:

Under the Indian Independence Act 1947, the partition of British India into the Dominions of India and Pakistan took effect from:

The Swadeshi Movement, emphasising the boycott of British goods and use of indigenous products, arose primarily in response to:

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was directed against the exploitative system that forced peasants to grow indigo, known as the:

The Indian National Congress observed 26 January 1930 for the first time as:

Which Governor-General is associated with the 'Doctrine of Lapse', a policy of annexation that fuelled discontent leading up to the Revolt of 1857?

In which city was the Charter of the United Nations signed on 26 June 1945?

How many States are the original (founding) members of the United Nations?

How many members does the United Nations Security Council have in total?

Which of the following is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

Where is the seat of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), the principal judicial organ of the United Nations?

How many judges constitute the International Court of Justice?

In which year was the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) established?

Where is the Secretariat of SAARC located?

The first summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was held in 1961 in which city?

Which Indian leader was among the principal founders of the Non-Aligned Movement?

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in 1967 by the Declaration signed in which city?

Where is the Secretariat of ASEAN located?

In which Russian city was the first BRIC (now BRICS) summit held in 2009?

Which country joined BRIC in 2010, turning the grouping into 'BRICS'?

On what date is World Health Day observed, marking the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

Where is the headquarters of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank were created at which 1944 conference?

Where are the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank located?

The World Trade Organization (WTO), which came into being in 1995, replaced which earlier arrangement?

Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located?

How many member states does the United Nations currently have?

Who was the first Secretary-General of the United Nations?

Which country's national, Antonio Guterres, currently serves as the Secretary-General of the United Nations?

How many principal organs are established under the Charter of the United Nations?

In which year did India officially join the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) as a full member?

In which city was the 18th G20 Leaders' Summit held in September 2023 under India's presidency?

Which entity was admitted as a permanent member of the G20 during India's 2023 presidency?

The Paris Agreement on climate change was adopted in 2015 at which session of the Conference of the Parties (COP)?

What does 'BIMSTEC' stand for?

At the time of its commencement, the Constitution of India consisted of how many Articles, Parts and Schedules respectively?

The Constituent Assembly of India held its first sitting on which date?

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?

The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Constitution by which amendment?

Article 1 of the Constitution of India describes India, that is Bharat, as a:

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described which Article as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?

Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?

The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed mainly from the Constitution of which country?

The concept of Fundamental Rights and Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is primarily borrowed from the Constitution of:

The Parliamentary form of government and the concept of Rule of Law in India are borrowed from the Constitution / system of:

Which Article of the Constitution provides for the abolition of 'Untouchability'?

The Right to Education (Article 21A), making elementary education a Fundamental Right, was inserted by which amendment?

How many freedoms are guaranteed to citizens under Article 19 of the Constitution at present?

The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with which system of voting?

The Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of which House of Parliament?

On what ground can the President of India be removed from office through impeachment under Article 61?

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is appointed by:

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added which new Part and Schedule to the Constitution?

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, dealing with Municipalities, added which Schedule to the Constitution?

The anti-defection provisions are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985?

The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:

Which Article empowers the Parliament to amend the Constitution and lays down the procedure for amendment?

The writ issued by a court to secure the release of a person who has been unlawfully detained is known as:

Which writ is issued against a person who unlawfully holds or usurps a public office, questioning the authority by which the office is held?

Under Article 226, the power to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose is vested in the:

The Finance Commission of India is constituted under which Article of the Constitution?

The superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in the Election Commission under which Article?

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is established under which Article of the Constitution?

Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution (as Article 51A, Part IV-A) on the recommendation of which committee?

The power to form a new State or alter the boundaries of existing States is given to the Parliament under which Article?

On which date did ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 mission achieve a soft landing on the Moon, making India the first country to land near the lunar south pole?

What are the names of the lander and rover of the Chandrayaan-3 mission, respectively?

The landing site of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon was named by India as:

Aditya-L1, India's first dedicated solar mission, is placed in a halo orbit around which point?

By which launch vehicle was India's Aditya-L1 solar mission launched in September 2023?

Who was announced in 2024 as one of the four astronaut-designates for India's Gaganyaan mission and later flew on Axiom Mission 4?

Who took charge as the Chairman of ISRO in January 2025, succeeding S. Somanath?

Shubhanshu Shukla, who travelled to the ISS aboard Axiom Mission 4 in 2025, became which Indian to travel to space?

Which Indian became the first Indian citizen to travel to space, aboard the Soviet Soyuz T-11 mission in 1984?

In March 2024, India successfully conducted 'Mission Divyastra', the first flight test of the Agni-5 missile equipped with which technology?

INS Arighaat, commissioned in August 2024, is India's:

ISRO's SpaDeX mission, whose docking was achieved on 16 January 2025, demonstrated which capability, making India the fourth country to do so?

The SpaDeX satellites were launched in December 2024 using which ISRO launch vehicle?

India's first semiconductor fabrication (fab) facility, approved under the India Semiconductor Mission, is being built by Tata Electronics (with PSMC) at:

The NISAR satellite, launched in July 2025, is a joint Earth-observation mission between ISRO and which space agency?

NISAR is notable for being the first satellite to carry radar operating in which two frequency bands?

In which year was the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?

In November 2024, DRDO successfully conducted the first flight trial of India's first long-range hypersonic missile off the coast of which state?

XPoSat, launched by ISRO on 1 January 2024, is a satellite dedicated to the study of:

The first aircraft of the indigenous Tejas Mk1A variant completed its maiden flight in March 2024 at Bengaluru. It is manufactured by:

Which gas, making up about 78% of the Earth's atmosphere by volume, is the most abundant atmospheric gas?

Which vitamin is synthesised in the human skin on exposure to sunlight (ultraviolet rays)?

The chemical formula of common table salt (sodium chloride) is:

Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the Raman Effect, for which he received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930?

The 'Digital India' programme was launched by the Government of India in which year?

India's first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier, commissioned in 2022, is:

The indigenously developed BrahMos supersonic cruise missile is a joint venture between India and which country?

Which ISRO mission was India's first interplanetary mission, making India the first country to reach Mars orbit on its maiden attempt?

The Indian regional satellite navigation system developed by ISRO, providing positioning services over India, is known as:

The heaviest rocket of ISRO, used to launch Chandrayaan-3 and capable of carrying heavy payloads to geostationary transfer orbit, is:

Who, along with Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, was named a recipient of the 58th Jnanpith Award (for 2023)?

The Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, was conferred posthumously on which socialist leader and former Chief Minister of Bihar in 2024?

The Nobel Peace Prize 2024 was awarded to the Japanese organisation Nihon Hidankyo for its efforts towards which cause?

Samantha Harvey won the Booker Prize 2024 for which novel set aboard the International Space Station?

How many medals did India win at the 2024 Paris Olympic Games?

Who was the first woman to hold the office of President of India?

Who was the first woman to receive India's highest sporting honour, now called the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?

The requirement that a police officer issue a notice of appearance to the accused, instead of making an arrest, for offences punishable with imprisonment up to seven years, is contained in-

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention permitted where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, is-

A significant change introduced by Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, as compared to Section 167 CrPC, regarding police custody, is that the fifteen days of police custody-

Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence given orally to the officer in charge of a police station-

Under the proviso to Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for an offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists may be conducted within-

The mandatory visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence, for offences punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, is provided under-

The power of the High Court or Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail to a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence is now contained in-

Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender who has never been convicted of any offence in the past shall be released on bond by the Court where he has undergone detention as an undertrial for-

An entirely new procedure introduced by Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, that had no general equivalent in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, is-

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a petition for mercy may be filed before the President of India or the Governor of a State by a convict-

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a Magistrate of the second class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding-

Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, no person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall be arrested without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

Under Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence is given by electronic communication, it shall be taken on record on being signed by the informant within:

Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP, conduct a preliminary enquiry which must be completed within:

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention pending investigation, beyond which the accused becomes entitled to default bail, for an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for not less than ten years, is:

Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender who has never been convicted of any offence in the past shall be released on bond by the Court when he has undergone detention for:

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the official languages of the Court are-

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The decision of the International Court of Justice in a contentious case has no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case. Reason (R): The Statute of the International Court of Justice expressly recognises the doctrine of binding precedent (stare decisis). Select the correct answer:

Under which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice are the sources of international law to be applied by the Court enumerated?

The principal judicial organ of the United Nations and the provision declaring that its Statute is based upon the Statute of the Permanent Court of International Justice is contained in which Article of the U.N. Charter?

Under the U.N. Charter, if a party to a case fails to perform the obligations incumbent upon it under a judgment of the International Court of Justice, the other party may have recourse to which organ?

The six principal organs of the United Nations are enumerated in which Article of the U.N. Charter?

Which of the following statements regarding the composition of the International Court of Justice is correct?

Which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice provides that only States may be parties in contentious cases before the Court?

The power of the Court to give an advisory opinion on any legal question at the request of a body authorised by the U.N. Charter is conferred by which Article of the ICJ Statute?

Under the U.N. Charter, the consideration and approval of the budget of the Organisation is the function of which organ?

The inherent right of individual or collective self-defence, if an armed attack occurs against a Member of the United Nations, is recognised by which Article of the U.N. Charter?

The determination of the existence of any threat to the peace, breach of the peace, or act of aggression, with which Chapter VII enforcement action begins, is vested by which Article of the U.N. Charter?

Measures not involving the use of armed force, such as complete or partial interruption of economic relations and severance of diplomatic relations, may be decided by the Security Council under which Article of the U.N. Charter?

Under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, the principle that the person of a diplomatic agent is inviolable and that he shall not be liable to any form of arrest or detention is laid down in which Article?

Under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, a receiving State may at any time and without explaining its decision declare a member of the diplomatic staff to be 'persona non grata'. This is provided in which Article?

An amendment to the Charter of the United Nations comes into force when adopted by a vote of two-thirds of the members of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the Members, including which category of members?

In order to ensure continuity in the International Court of Justice, what fraction of the Court is elected every three years?

In Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. (AIR 1954 SC 44), the Supreme Court held that the word 'impossible' in Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act-

Where two persons have made a reciprocal promise to marry each other within a fixed time, and one of them dies before that time, the contract-

When a contract contains a stipulation by way of penalty for breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 entitles the party complaining of the breach to receive-

Under Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called a pledge, and the bailor in such a case is called the-

In the absence of any contract to that effect, an agent entering into a contract on behalf of his principal-

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is described as -

'A' contracts to sing for 'B' at a concert for Rs. 1,000, paid in advance. 'A' is too ill to sing. With reference to Section 2(j) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the contract -

A defendant's servant had been sent to trace his missing nephew before the defendant announced a reward; the servant later claimed the reward. On these facts the claim was rejected because -

Which of the following statements correctly reflects the rule on a general offer made to the public at large?

Which of the following is NOT an exception recognised under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to the rule that an agreement without consideration is void?

Consider the following statements regarding consideration under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: 1. The act or abstinence must be at the desire of the promisor. 2. Consideration may move from the promisee or any other person. 3. Consideration must be adequate to the promise. Which of the above are correct?

A minor mortgaged his property to a moneylender whose agent knew of the minority, and later sought to avoid the transaction. The leading authority establishing that an agreement by a minor is void ab initio is -

Under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where necessaries suited to his condition in life are supplied to a minor, the person supplying them is entitled to be reimbursed -

Which one of the following agreements is expressly declared void by Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, subject to the statutory exception relating to sale of goodwill?

'A' promises 'B' to drop a prosecution he has instituted against 'B' for robbery, and 'B' promises to restore the value of the things taken. The agreement is -

'A', the ostensible owner of land with the implied consent of the real owner 'B', sells it for consideration to 'C', who after taking reasonable care to ascertain 'A's power and acting in good faith buys it. The transfer:

Under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, which of the following is NOT capable of being transferred?

Under Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act, an interest created for the benefit of a person not in existence at the date of the transfer, subject to a prior interest, is valid only if:

During the pendency of a suit in which a right to immovable property is directly and specifically in question, a party transfers the suit property to a stranger. Under Section 52, the transfer:

Under Section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, a gift may be validly revoked where the donor and donee agree that the gift shall be suspended or revoked:

Where a transferor fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property and professes to transfer it for consideration, and the transferor afterwards acquires an interest in that property, then under Section 43:

For the doctrine of part performance under Section 53A to be available as a defence, which of the following is essential?

A mortgage which is neither a simple mortgage, a mortgage by conditional sale, an usufructuary mortgage, an English mortgage, nor a mortgage by deposit of title-deeds, is known under Section 58 as a/an:

Under Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the maximum period for which the vesting of an interest may be postponed (the rule against perpetuity) is the life or lives of persons living at the date of transfer together with:

'A' transfers his land to 'B' for life, and after B's death to such of B's sons as shall first attain the age of 25 years. B has no son living at the date of transfer. The interest created in favour of the unborn son is:

The transfer of a mere chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate (spes successionis) is:

'A', a Hindu, who has separated from his father 'P', sells to 'B' three fields, X, Y and Z, representing that he is authorised to transfer the same. Of these fields, Z does not then belong to A, having been retained by P on the partition; but on P's death A as heir obtains Z. Which provision allows B, at his option, to obtain field Z?

Where, with the consent of the persons interested in immovable property, one person is the ostensible owner thereof and transfers it for consideration, the transfer is not voidable on the ground that the transferor was not authorised, provided the transferee, after taking reasonable care, acted in good faith. This protection is contained in:

During the pendency of a non-collusive suit in which a right to immovable property is directly and specifically in question, a party transfers the suit property to a stranger. Under the doctrine of lis pendens:

The doctrine of 'basic structure', which limits the amending power of Parliament under Article 368, was propounded by the Supreme Court in-

Clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368, inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 — which sought to bar judicial review of constitutional amendments and to confer unlimited amending power — were struck down by the Supreme Court in-

Which of the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226 is correct?

Where a law made by a State Legislature on a matter in the Concurrent List is repugnant to an earlier law made by Parliament, the State law shall prevail in that State if-

If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, whose decision under Article 110 is declared to be final?

Under Article 61, a charge for the impeachment of the President for violation of the Constitution must be preferred by a resolution moved after at least fourteen days' notice in writing signed by-

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the satisfaction of the President under Article 356 is subject to judicial review and that secularism is part of the basic structure of the Constitution?

Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court. Reason (R): Article 37 expressly declares that the principles in Part IV are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The power of a Governor to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature is contained in-

Match List-I (Subject) with List-II (Seventh Schedule List) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Public order (B) Defence of India (C) Criminal law and criminal procedure (D) Inter-State trade and commerce List-II: (1) Union List (2) State List (3) Concurrent List

The 'Doctrine of Pith and Substance', applied to sustain a law that incidentally encroaches on a field allotted to another Legislature, is principally associated with the interpretation of-

Under the Constitution of India, the appointment of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in a State is made by the Governor of the State in consultation with -

The portion of a judicial decision which constitutes the binding principle of law under the doctrine of precedent is the:

Bentham's theory that the proper end of law is to secure 'the greatest happiness of the greatest number' is an expression of the doctrine of:

The view that 'law is what the courts will in fact do' and the emphasis on the prediction of judicial behaviour rather than on rules is the hallmark of which school of jurisprudence?

Who among the following jurists defined law as "the command of the sovereign backed by sanction", forming the foundation of the Analytical/Positivist school?

The "Pure Theory of Law", which seeks to keep law free from ethics, politics and sociology and rests on the concept of the Grundnorm, was propounded by:

In H.L.A. Hart's theory, the law is a union of primary and secondary rules. The "rule of recognition" is classified as a:

Sir Henry Maine's famous generalisation that the movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement "from status to contract" appears in his work:

The theory of "social engineering", under which law is regarded as a means of balancing competing social interests, is associated with:

According to Salmond, a legal right which is available against the world at large, as opposed to a right available against a determinate person, is classified as a:

Wesley Newcomb Hohfeld analysed legal relations into jural correlatives. The correlative of a "right" (claim) in his scheme is:

The two essential elements of possession recognised in jurisprudence are corpus possessionis and animus. The element of "animus possidendi" refers to:

Who authored the book "The Concept of Law" (1961), a foundational text of modern legal positivism?

An accused in police custody states, 'I will produce the knife with which I stabbed the deceased and which I buried in my field', and the knife is recovered from the spot indicated. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), how much of this statement is provable?

Section 139 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) provides that -

The case of Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor, AIR 1939 PC 47, is a leading authority on -

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a leading question -

'A' is accused of a crime. The fact that, when in custody of the police, 'A' made the same statement to several different persons is sought to be proved as corroboration. Under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the doctrine of res gestae is best described as -

A witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence in writing in open court. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), such evidence shall be deemed to be -

Under Section 138 read with Illustration (b) to Section 119 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the correct legal position regarding accomplice evidence is that -

When a fact is especially within the knowledge of a person, the burden of proving that fact, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), is upon -

Under Section 128 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), communications made between spouses during marriage -

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the Court 'may presume' a fact. This means that the Court -

Match List-I (Provision) with List-II (Section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Dying declaration (B) Presumption as to documents thirty years old (C) Opinion of handwriting expert (D) Cross-examination as to previous statements in writing List-II: (1) Section 92 (2) Section 149 (3) Section 26 (4) Section 39

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the expression 'evidence' as defined in Section 2 includes which of the following?

A confession made to a police officer is rendered inadmissible against the maker by which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

Under the proviso to Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), when information received from an accused in police custody leads to the discovery of a fact, how much of that information may be proved?

In Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor (AIR 1939 PC 47), interpreting the words 'circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death' as embodied in Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the Privy Council held that:

Opinions of persons specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

In Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014) 10 SCC 473, the Supreme Court held that secondary evidence of an electronic record is admissible (the requirement now being carried forward in Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)):

Where a person born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is sought to be proved illegitimate, Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) treats the fact of legitimacy as conclusive proof unless it is shown that:

A right to lodge a caveat, entitling a person to notice before any order is made on an application expected to be filed against him, is provided under which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

The doctrine of restitution, whereby a court places the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree subsequently varied or reversed, is contained in -

Notwithstanding anything contained in any Letters Patent, where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order is heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court, no further appeal shall lie. This bar is contained in -

Under Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the defendant shall present a written statement of his defence ordinarily within thirty days from the date of service of summons, which the court may extend, but not later than -

In Kailash v. Nanhku (2005), the Supreme Court held that the ninety-day outer limit for filing a written statement under Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, in an ordinary civil suit, is -

A suit for the recovery of immovable property, or for the determination of any right to or interest in immovable property, shall, subject to the pecuniary or other limitations prescribed by law, be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction -

Under Section 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an objection as to the place of suing (territorial jurisdiction) shall not be allowed by any appellate or revisional court unless, inter alia, the objection -

Which one of the following is NOT a ground on which a plaint is liable to be rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply to the court which passed it to set it aside on the ground that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing. This remedy is provided under -

Under Order I, Rule 10(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the power of the court to strike out or add parties may be exercised -

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the doctrine of res sub judice, which empowers a court to stay the trial of a subsequently instituted suit, is contained in which one of the following Sections?

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I: (A) Jurisdiction of civil courts (B) Stay of suit (C) Res judicata (D) Bar to further suit. List-II: 1. Section 11 2. Section 9 3. Section 12 4. Section 10. Code:

Under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no suit shall be instituted against the Government or a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiration of how many months after a notice in writing has been delivered?

Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (as amended), after what maximum period from the date of service of summons does the defendant forfeit the right to file a written statement?

Which one of the following is NOT a ground for rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 lies only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves -

Under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal shall lie from a decree -

The provision for settlement of disputes outside the court through arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, or mediation is contained in which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime' is defined and punished under which section?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'dowry death' is dealt with in which section, and what is the period within which the death must occur for the presumption to operate?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence formerly known as sedition has been replaced. Which section now penalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death of the assailant under which section, when the assault reasonably causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'criminal breach of trust' is defined and made punishable under which section?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' instigates 'B', a child below the age of understanding, to commit suicide and B does so. Which provision is specifically attracted?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'criminal conspiracy' is defined and dealt with in which section?

Match List-I (offence against the human body) with List-II (BNS section) and select the correct answer: List-I: A. Voluntarily causing hurt B. Grievous hurt C. Wrongful restraint D. Wrongful confinement List-II: 1. Section 127 2. Section 115 3. Section 126 4. Section 116

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a person convicted of theft (Section 303) for a SECOND time is liable to which enhanced punishment?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the substantive offence of murder is defined and its punishment is prescribed respectively in:

'A', with the intention of causing the death of 'Z', administers him a fatal dose of poison. While 'Z' is still alive but unconscious, a stranger 'B', acting independently and without A's knowledge, shoots 'Z' dead. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

The principle of joint liability based on 'common intention', under which each person doing an act in furtherance of the common intention of all is liable as if he had done it alone, is contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Which one of the following is a NEW kind of punishment introduced for the first time in the list of punishments under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A man who has sexual intercourse with a woman by employing 'deceitful means' such as a false promise of marriage or employment, where the act does not amount to rape, commits an offence newly carved out under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

'A', a police officer, tortures 'Z' in order to extort from him a confession that he committed a crime. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A is guilty of which offence?

The specific definition and punishment for the offence of 'organised crime', including being a member of an organised crime syndicate, has been introduced in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a death is caused by rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide, and such death is caused by rash and negligent driving of a vehicle by a person who escapes without reporting the incident to a police officer or Magistrate, the maximum imprisonment provided is:

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death, on rejection or disposal of his mercy petition by the Governor, must make the petition to the President of India within:

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding:

Under Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the statutory recognition of the 'Zero FIR' is achieved through the expression that information relating to a cognizable offence may be given to an officer in charge of a police station:

Under Section 183 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a confession or statement made in the course of an investigation may be recorded by:

A police officer issues a notice of appearance under Section 35(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. As clarified by the Karnataka High Court, such notice must be served:

Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a person complies with and continues to comply with a notice of appearance issued by the police, he:

Under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a Judicial Magistrate of the Second Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding:

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of detention pending investigation, after which the accused is entitled to default bail, for an offence other than those punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of not less than ten years, is:

Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, before arresting a person a police officer must:

Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the benefit of release on bond on undergoing one-half (or one-third for first-time offenders) of the maximum period of imprisonment is NOT available to a person accused of an offence:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a cognizable offence is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years and the person to be arrested is infirm or above sixty years of age, the police officer shall not make such arrest except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of: