Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 9 — Questions & Solutions

The chemical symbol of sodium is:

The chemical symbol 'Au' represents which element?

The pH value of a neutral solution at 25 degrees Celsius is:

The chemical formula of water indicates that one molecule contains:

The hardest naturally occurring substance is:

Common table salt is chemically known as:

Baking soda is chemically:

Which of the following is the lightest noble (inert) gas?

The atomic number of carbon is:

The gas that turns lime water milky is:

Rusting of iron requires the presence of oxygen and:

The total number of bones in a normal adult human body is:

The largest gland in the human body is the:

The green pigment in plants responsible for absorbing light during photosynthesis is:

Deficiency of vitamin C in the human diet causes:

Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets in children?

Malaria in humans is transmitted by the bite of:

Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

The average lifespan of a human red blood cell is about:

The process by which green plants make their own food using sunlight, carbon dioxide and water is called:

Which is the highest mountain peak situated entirely within the territory of India (not on any international border)?

The Ganga is the longest river of India. Approximately what is its total length?

The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

Indian Standard Time is based on the standard meridian of 82°30' E longitude, which passes near which town in Uttar Pradesh?

Which is the largest Indian state by geographical area?

Indira Point, the southernmost point of India's territory, is located on which island?

According to the 2011 Census, which state has the largest population in India?

Which state is the leading producer of sugarcane in India?

Which Indian state is the largest producer of coffee?

Which Indian state shares its boundary with the maximum number of other Indian states?

Wular Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, is located in which Union Territory/State?

Chilika Lake, the largest brackish-water lagoon in India, lies in which state?

Nathu La, a Himalayan mountain pass on the India-China border, is located in which Indian state?

The Zoji La pass, on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway, connects the Kashmir Valley with which region?

The Narmada and Tapi rivers are notable among peninsular rivers because they flow:

Black soil (regur), well suited to cotton cultivation, is chiefly associated with which physiographic region of India?

Which state is the largest producer of iron ore in India?

Which is the smallest Indian state by geographical area?

Which mainland Indian state has the longest coastline?

Assam is the leading Indian state in the production of which beverage crop?

The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet at which hill range in the south?

The Palk Strait separates India from which neighbouring country?

Which is the highest peak of the Western Ghats?

The northernmost range of the Himalayas, containing peaks such as Everest and Kanchenjunga, is known as the:

The Sundarbans delta, the world's largest delta, is formed by which river system?

Which strait separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands?

The Damodar river, once called the 'Sorrow of Bengal', is a tributary of which major river?

India's first iron and steel plant set up at Jamshedpur (TISCO) lies in which present-day state?

The Aravalli Range, one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, runs mainly through which state?

Which two states does the Indira Gandhi Canal, drawing water from the Sutlej-Beas, mainly serve to irrigate?

The two largest and most well-known cities of the Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation were Harappa and which other city, known for its 'Great Bath'?

The mature (urban) phase of the Harappan Civilisation is generally dated by archaeologists to approximately which period?

The oldest of the four Vedas, a collection of hymns, is which one?

Vardhamana Mahavira is traditionally regarded in Jainism as which Tirthankara?

Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon (Dhammachakkappavattana), expounding the Four Noble Truths, at which place near Varanasi?

Which ancient kingdom (mahajanapada) had its capital first at Rajagriha and later at Pataliputra and rose to dominance under the Haryanka rulers?

The Maurya Empire was founded around 322 BCE by which ruler, aided by his adviser Chanakya (Kautilya)?

Megasthenes, who wrote the 'Indica' describing Pataliputra, was a Greek ambassador sent to the Mauryan court by which Hellenistic ruler?

The Kalinga War, which led Emperor Ashoka to renounce war and embrace Dhamma, is generally dated to about which year?

Most of Ashoka's edicts (rock and pillar inscriptions) were written predominantly in which script?

The Third Buddhist Council is traditionally said to have been held at Pataliputra during the reign of which emperor?

Which Kushana ruler is most associated with the spread of Mahayana Buddhism and convening the Fourth Buddhist Council?

The Gupta Empire, often called the 'Golden Age' of ancient India, flourished approximately during which span?

Which Gupta ruler, celebrated for his extensive conquests recorded in the Allahabad Prashasti, was dubbed the 'Napoleon of India' by historian V.A. Smith?

The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien (Faxian) visited India primarily during the reign of which Gupta emperor?

The mathematician-astronomer Aryabhata, who worked on the place-value system and the rotation of the earth, belonged to which classical age?

The Chinese pilgrim Hsuan-tsang (Xuanzang) visited India during the reign of which northern Indian ruler in the 7th century CE?

The Chola king Rajaraja I built which great Dravidian temple at Thanjavur, completed around 1010 CE?

The famous Rathas and the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) were built under the patronage of which dynasty?

The Kailasa (Kailasanatha) temple at Ellora, carved out of a single rock, was built mainly under which dynasty?

Who founded the first dynasty (the Mamluk or 'Slave' dynasty) of the Delhi Sultanate around 1206 CE?

Razia Sultan, the first and only woman to rule from the throne of Delhi, was the daughter of which Sultan?

The introduction of the silver tanka and the copper jital, and the organisation of the iqta system, are associated with which Slave-dynasty Sultan?

Which Delhi Sultan is famous for his market control (price regulation) measures and for repelling Mongol invasions in the early 14th century?

Which Tughlaq Sultan is notorious for shifting his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Devagiri) and for an ill-fated token (copper) currency experiment?

The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by which pair of brothers?

The Vijayanagara Empire reached its zenith under which ruler of the Tuluva dynasty (r. 1509–1529), a great patron of Telugu literature?

The Battle of Talikota (1565), which led to the sacking of Vijayanagara's capital Hampi, was fought against the empire by a confederacy of which states?

Babur founded the Mughal Empire in India by defeating Ibrahim Lodi at which battle in 1526?

Which Mughal emperor promulgated a syncretic religious order called the Din-i-Ilahi in 1582?

The Battle of Plassey, which laid the foundation of British political power in Bengal, was fought in which year?

After the Battle of Buxar (1764), the East India Company obtained the Diwani (right to collect revenue) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II in which year?

The Brahmo Samaj, a reform movement advocating monotheism and opposing idol worship, was founded in 1828 by:

The practice of Sati was legally abolished in British India in 1829 by Regulation XVII under which Governor-General?

The Revolt of 1857 is generally considered to have begun with the firing on his officers by sepoy Mangal Pandey at which cantonment?

During the Revolt of 1857 the rebels proclaimed which person as the symbolic Emperor of India at Delhi?

As a direct consequence of the Revolt of 1857, the Government of India Act 1858 transferred the governance of India from the East India Company to the:

Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress at its inaugural session held in Bombay in December 1885?

The Partition of Bengal that triggered the Swadeshi Movement was announced in 1905 by which Viceroy of India?

The Partition of Bengal of 1905 was annulled in 1911 at the Delhi Durbar during the viceroyalty of:

Mahatma Gandhi's first satyagraha in India, launched in 1917 on behalf of exploited indigo cultivators, took place at:

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, in which troops fired on an unarmed crowd at Amritsar, occurred on:

The repressive law of 1919 that allowed detention without trial and provoked nationwide protests preceding the Jallianwala Bagh massacre was the:

Mahatma Gandhi suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 following a violent incident at which place in present-day Uttar Pradesh?

The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Gandhi in 1920 was closely linked with which other contemporaneous movement?

Lala Lajpat Rai, who later died of injuries from a police lathi-charge, was leading a protest in 1928 against which body?

At which session did the Indian National Congress adopt 'Purna Swaraj' (complete independence) as its goal in 1929?

Mahatma Gandhi began the Dandi Salt March, marking the start of the Civil Disobedience Movement, on:

The Quit India Resolution was passed by the All India Congress Committee at its Bombay session on:

The famous slogan 'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) is associated with which movement led by Mahatma Gandhi?

Subhas Chandra Bose founded which political organisation in 1939 after resigning from the Congress presidency?

Subhas Chandra Bose assumed the leadership of the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in 1943 in which city?

Subhas Chandra Bose was first elected President of the Indian National Congress at which session in 1938?

The Cabinet Mission, which proposed a scheme for an undivided India and the formation of a Constituent Assembly, came to India in:

The plan for the partition of India announced by Lord Mountbatten on 3 June 1947 is commonly known as the:

Under the Indian Independence Act 1947, the partition of British India into the Dominions of India and Pakistan took effect from:

The Swadeshi Movement, emphasising the boycott of British goods and use of indigenous products, arose primarily in response to:

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was directed against the exploitative system that forced peasants to grow indigo, known as the:

The Indian National Congress observed 26 January 1930 for the first time as:

Which Governor-General is associated with the 'Doctrine of Lapse', a policy of annexation that fuelled discontent leading up to the Revolt of 1857?

In which city was the Charter of the United Nations signed on 26 June 1945?

How many States are the original (founding) members of the United Nations?

How many members does the United Nations Security Council have in total?

Which of the following is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

Where is the seat of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), the principal judicial organ of the United Nations?

How many judges constitute the International Court of Justice?

In which year was the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) established?

Where is the Secretariat of SAARC located?

The first summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was held in 1961 in which city?

Which Indian leader was among the principal founders of the Non-Aligned Movement?

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in 1967 by the Declaration signed in which city?

Where is the Secretariat of ASEAN located?

In which Russian city was the first BRIC (now BRICS) summit held in 2009?

Which country joined BRIC in 2010, turning the grouping into 'BRICS'?

On what date is World Health Day observed, marking the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

Where is the headquarters of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank were created at which 1944 conference?

Where are the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank located?

The World Trade Organization (WTO), which came into being in 1995, replaced which earlier arrangement?

Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located?

How many member states does the United Nations currently have?

Who was the first Secretary-General of the United Nations?

Which country's national, Antonio Guterres, currently serves as the Secretary-General of the United Nations?

How many principal organs are established under the Charter of the United Nations?

In which year did India officially join the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) as a full member?

In which city was the 18th G20 Leaders' Summit held in September 2023 under India's presidency?

Which entity was admitted as a permanent member of the G20 during India's 2023 presidency?

The Paris Agreement on climate change was adopted in 2015 at which session of the Conference of the Parties (COP)?

What does 'BIMSTEC' stand for?

At the time of its commencement, the Constitution of India consisted of how many Articles, Parts and Schedules respectively?

The Constituent Assembly of India held its first sitting on which date?

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?

The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Constitution by which amendment?

Article 1 of the Constitution of India describes India, that is Bharat, as a:

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described which Article as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?

Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?

The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed mainly from the Constitution of which country?

The concept of Fundamental Rights and Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is primarily borrowed from the Constitution of:

The Parliamentary form of government and the concept of Rule of Law in India are borrowed from the Constitution / system of:

The four criteria of statehood-a permanent population, a defined territory, a government, and the capacity to enter into relations with other States-are classically associated with which instrument?

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on-

Which of the following is NOT one of the principal organs of the United Nations as enumerated in Article 7 of the UN Charter?

Under Article 25 of the UN Charter, the Members of the United Nations agree to accept and carry out the decisions of-

The theory in international law which holds that international law and municipal law form a single unified legal order is known as-

The advisory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice may be invoked by-

Under Article 25 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, a quorum of how many judges is sufficient to constitute the full Court?

Which principal organ of the United Nations was charged with supervising the administration of trust territories and has suspended its operations since 1994?

Under which Article of the Charter of the United Nations are the principal organs of the United Nations established?

The Security Council of the United Nations, as presently constituted under Article 23 of the Charter, consists of how many members?

Under Article 18 of the Charter of the United Nations, decisions of the General Assembly on 'important questions' shall be made by-

Under Article 97 of the Charter of the United Nations, the Secretary-General is-

The composition of the International Court of Justice is provided in Article 3 of its Statute. The Court shall consist of-

Under Article 4 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the members of the Court are elected by-

Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which provides for compensation for loss caused by breach of contract, embodies the rule laid down in-

Where a sum is named in a contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, entitles the aggrieved party to-

Under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in a contract of guarantee the person who gives the guarantee is called the-

Match List-I (party) with List-II (right) and select the correct answer using the code below. List-I: (A) Bankers (B) Wharfingers (C) Policy-brokers (D) An ordinary bailee with no contract to the contrary. List-II: (1) General lien under Section 171 (2) Particular lien under Section 170 only.

Under Section 64 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, he is bound to-

'A' offered a reward to anyone tracing his missing nephew. 'L', his servant, who at the time of finding the boy had no knowledge of the announcement, later claimed the reward. On these facts-

An agreement made by a minor under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 read with the leading decision in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose is-

Which of the following is NOT a recognised exception under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to the rule that an agreement without consideration is void?

'A' agrees to sell to 'B' the cargo of a particular ship which, unknown to both parties at the time of the agreement, had already sunk and ceased to exist. The agreement is-

The doctrine of frustration, as explained by the Supreme Court in Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co., is in Indian law-

Where a contract is broken and a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 entitles the aggrieved party to-

Under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, compensation is NOT recoverable for-

A 'contract of guarantee' under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is correctly described as-

Which one of the following correctly distinguishes a contract of indemnity (Section 124) from a contract of guarantee (Section 126) under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Every agreement by which any person is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business is, under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872-

For protection under Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (transfer by ostensible owner), which of the following must the transferee establish? 1. The transferor was the ostensible owner with the express or implied consent of the real owner. 2. The transfer was for consideration. 3. The transferee acted in good faith after taking reasonable care to ascertain the transferor's power to transfer. Select the correct answer:

Which one of the following correctly states the requirement of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (doctrine of part performance)?

Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the case of tangible immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards, the sale can be made-

Under Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a lease of immovable property from year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent, can be made-

In the absence of a contract or local usage to the contrary, under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a lease of immovable property for manufacturing purposes is deemed to be-

Under Section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, for making a valid gift of immovable property, the transfer must be effected by-

A gifts a field to B reserving to himself, with B's assent, the right to take back the field in case B and his descendants die before A. B dies without descendants in A's lifetime. With reference to Section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the gift-

The doctrine embodied in Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, rests on the maxim "ut lite pendente nihil innovetur". The effect of this doctrine on a transfer made during the pendency of a suit in which the right to the immovable property is directly and specifically in question is that the transfer-

Under Section 25 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, where an interest is created on a condition precedent that is impossible, or is forbidden by law, or is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law, or is fraudulent, or involves injury to the person or property of another, or is immoral or opposed to public policy, the transfer-

The doctrine of election under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is founded on which principle?

Under Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the maximum period for which the vesting of an interest may be postponed is:

'A', the karta of a joint Hindu family, sells the chance of his nephew succeeding to family property to 'B' for consideration. The transfer is:

In Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah (AIR 1962 SC 847), the Supreme Court reconciled Section 6(a) with Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act by holding that:

Which of the following statements regarding the doctrine of lis pendens under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is correct?

Match List-I (Article) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (1) Article 124 (2) Article 217 (3) Article 233 (4) Article 312 List-II: (P) Appointment of district judges (Q) Establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court (R) All India Services (S) Appointment of High Court Judges

In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court was primarily concerned with the scope of which constitutional provision and its judicial reviewability?

Which was the largest Bench of the Supreme Court of India ever constituted, and in which case did it lay down that Parliament cannot, under Article 368, alter the basic structure of the Constitution?

Assertion (A): The writ jurisdiction of a High Court is wider in scope than that of the Supreme Court. Reason (R): Unlike Article 32, Article 226 permits writs to be issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights 'and for any other purpose'. Select the correct answer:

Under the Constitution of India, appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a State is made by which authority?

The control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons holding posts inferior to that of district judge, is vested in the High Court under which Article?

Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution is correct?

Match List-I (Constitutional Provision) with List-II (Subject Matter) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Article 213 (B) Article 200 (C) Article 233 (D) Article 235 List-II: (1) Assent to Bills by the Governor (2) Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances (3) High Court's control over subordinate courts (4) Appointment of district judges

The Governor of a State may promulgate an Ordinance during the recess of the State Legislature under which Article, such Ordinance having the same force as an Act of the State Legislature?

Under Article 243-O of the Constitution, the validity of any election to a Panchayat can be questioned -

In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that the strength of a Ministry, when its majority is in doubt after invocation of Article 356, must be tested -

Which of the following has been recognised by the Supreme Court as part of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution?

Under Article 200 of the Constitution, when a Bill is presented to the Governor after passage by the State Legislature, the Governor may NOT -

In Hohfeld's analysis of jural relations, the correlative of a 'power' is-

The theory of 'social engineering', under which law is a means of balancing competing interests so as to satisfy the maximum of wants with the minimum of friction, is associated with-

Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Concept) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Roscoe Pound (B) Hans Kelsen (C) Leon Duguit (D) John Rawls List-II: (1) Grundnorm (2) Social Solidarity (3) Theory of Justice (4) Social Engineering

The doctrine of 'stare decisis', the basis of the rule of binding precedent, signifies that-

Which of the following statements regarding 'ratio decidendi' and 'obiter dicta' is correct?

The author of the book 'The Concept of Law' (1961), who criticised Austin's command theory and propounded the 'rule of recognition', is-

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that constitutional morality must prevail over notions of social morality, while striking down the exclusion of women aged 10 to 50 from a temple?

Leon Duguit founded his theory of law on a single overriding principle, denying the metaphysical concept of sovereignty. That principle is-

Friedrich Karl von Savigny, the founder of the Historical School, propounded that law is the product of the spirit and common consciousness of the people. He described this source of law as-

According to John Austin's command theory, law is the command of the sovereign backed by a sanction. Which of the following, in Austin's view, is NOT properly 'law'?

The concept of 'Grundnorm' as the basic norm from which all other norms of a legal system derive their validity was propounded by:

In his concept of law, H.L.A. Hart described a legal system as a union of:

Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) lays down that:

Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) bars proof of a confession made by an accused while in police custody UNLESS it is made:

Illustration (g) to Section 119 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) enables the Court to presume that:

Section 23(1) and Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) are based principally on the policy of:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a confession made by an accused person to a police officer is dealt with by which provision?

The rule that so much of the information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved (formerly Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act) is now contained in which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A confession appearing to the Court to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise referring to the charge is irrelevant in a criminal proceeding under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under Section 24 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when more persons than one are being tried jointly for the same offence and a confession by one affecting himself and the others is proved, a trial held in the absence of an accused who has absconded after a proclamation is, by the Explanation, deemed to be -

Statements made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death (dying declaration), are relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Opinions of experts upon a point of foreign law, science, art, handwriting or finger impressions are relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice is a competent witness, and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon -

The principle that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A question which suggests the answer that the person putting it wishes or expects to receive (a leading question) is defined and regulated under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

The fact that any child born during the continuance of a valid marriage, or within 280 days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is conclusive proof of legitimacy is now embodied in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Communications made between spouses during marriage are protected from compelled disclosure under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the competency of witnesses, namely that every person including a child is competent to testify unless prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers, is provided in -

Admissibility of electronic records, including the requirement of a certificate, is now provided under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

The Court's power to presume the existence of certain facts, such as that a man in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft is either the thief or a receiver, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders to restrain waste, damage or alienation of property in dispute are dealt with under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a first appeal lies from:

Where a defendant, against whom a decree has been passed ex parte, applies to have it set aside on the ground that summons was not duly served or he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, the application is made under:

The inherent powers of a civil court to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court are preserved under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. This rule is contained in -

Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with the 'settlement of disputes outside the court'?

The doctrine of res judicata, barring a court from trying any suit or issue already finally decided between the same parties by a competent court, is enacted in -

A suit for the recovery of immovable property with or without rent or profits shall be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the property is situate. This is provided under -

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (A) Res judicata (B) Restitution (C) Notice to Government (D) Compensatory costs List-II 1. Section 35A 2. Section 11 3. Section 80 4. Section 144 Code:

No suit shall be instituted against the Government in respect of any act purporting to be done by a public officer in his official capacity until the expiration of how many months' notice in writing?

Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences?

An appeal from every decree passed by a court exercising original jurisdiction (first appeal) lies under which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a second appeal to the High Court shall lie only on the ground that the case involves -

The power of the High Court to call for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where the subordinate court has exercised jurisdiction not vested in it or failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested, is known as -

Application for restitution, where a decree is varied or reversed in appeal so as to place the parties in the position they would have occupied, is provided under -

Match List-I (Order of CPC) with List-II (subject) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (A) Order VI (B) Order VII (C) Order VIII (D) Order XXXIX List-II 1. Plaint 2. Pleadings generally 3. Temporary injunctions 4. Written statement Code:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the execution of decrees is governed in detail by which Order?

In Daryao v. State of U.P., AIR 1961 SC 1457, the Supreme Court held that the principle of res judicata -

'A' with intent to commit murder gives 'Z' a fatal dose of poison; while 'Z' is still alive, a stranger 'B', without A's knowledge, shoots 'Z' dead. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the correct legal position?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following correctly matches the offence with its section?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, robbery is constituted as dacoity when it is committed conjointly by:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder under Section 103(1) is:

'A', knowing 'Z' to be of unsound mind incapable of consent, performs a surgical operation on 'Z' in good faith for Z's benefit without consent, intending to save Z's life. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A's act is protected primarily by the general exception relating to:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which Section defines the situations in which culpable homicide amounts to murder?

'A', a police officer, tortures 'Z' in order to extort a confession from him that he committed an offence. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which Section principally governs the punishment for murder if 'Z' dies as a result, given that culpable homicide amounting to murder is established?

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 prescribes the punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder?

Where several persons commit a criminal act in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if he had done it alone. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this principle of joint liability is contained in—

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of criminal conspiracy is defined and punished under—

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduced 'snatching' as a distinct offence for the first time. It is defined under—

'A' is entrusted by 'B' with money to be paid to 'C' but dishonestly retains it for his own use. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is principally liable for criminal breach of trust under—

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines and punishes the offence of voyeurism?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of stalking is dealt with under—

The offence of 'organised crime', newly introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is contained in—

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, replacing the former offence of sedition?

'A', a hunger-striker, attempts to commit suicide in order to compel a public servant to refrain from discharging his lawful duty. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is liable under—

Under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 dealing with inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender, the trial may commence only after the expiry of how many days from the date of framing of the charge?

Under the first proviso to Section 479(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender (one never previously convicted of any offence) shall be released on bond by the Court if he has undergone detention for a period extending up to—

Under Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the police officer is obliged to inform the informant or the victim about the progress of the investigation, including by electronic communication, within—

Which one of the following pairs relating to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is NOT correctly matched?

Section 531 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. As regards any appeal, application, trial, inquiry or investigation pending immediately before the commencement of the BNSS, the savings clause provides that the same shall—

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of less than ten years, the total period beyond which a Magistrate cannot authorise the detention of the accused (where the investigation is not complete) is—

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the indefeasible right to default bail accrues to an accused on the failure of the investigating agency to file the police report. For an offence punishable with imprisonment for life, the maximum period of detention authorised before such right accrues under Section 187(3) is -

Under Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where information about a cognizable offence is given by electronic communication (e-FIR), it shall be taken on record only when the informant signs it within -

Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a preliminary enquiry to ascertain a prima facie case before registration of an FIR may be conducted, with prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for -

Under Section 176 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence is made mandatory in respect of any offence punishable with imprisonment for -

Under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Court of a Magistrate of the first class may, apart from imprisonment up to three years and fine up to fifty thousand rupees, also impose -

A novel feature of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is the provision for trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial. Such trial in absentia is governed by -

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death, his legal heir or relative may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within a period of -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the power of the High Court to make orders to prevent abuse of the process of any court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice - corresponding to old Section 482 CrPC - is now contained in -

Under the proviso to Section 187(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the detention of an accused in police custody (for the maximum of fifteen days) may now be authorised -

Match List-I (provision under BNSS, 2023) with List-II (subject matter) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Section 35 (B) Section 173 (C) Section 396 (D) Section 482. List-II: (1) Information in cognizable cases (2) Victim compensation scheme (3) When police may arrest without warrant (4) Anticipatory bail.

Under Section 35(7) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for an offence punishable with imprisonment less than three years, a person who is infirm or above a certain age shall not be arrested without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. That age is -

Which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice provides that only States may be parties in cases before the Court?

Under Article 38(2) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the Court may decide a case 'ex aequo et bono'-

Under Article 9 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the electors must bear in mind that in the body as a whole-

Under Article 39 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the official languages of the Court are-

The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 came into force on-

The rule 'pacta sunt servanda', that every treaty in force is binding upon the parties to it and must be performed by them in good faith, is embodied in which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969?

Under the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969, a treaty is void if, at the time of its conclusion, it conflicts with a peremptory norm of general international law (jus cogens). This is provided in-

The statement 'Everyone has the right to a nationality' is contained in which of the following instruments?

Under which Article of the Charter of the United Nations have the Members of the United Nations agreed to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council?

Which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice enumerates the sources to be applied by the Court in deciding disputes submitted to it?

The International Court of Justice consists of how many independent judges, no two of whom may be nationals of the same State?

The principle that a decision of the International Court of Justice has no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case is contained in -