Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 10 — Questions & Solutions

Which Article of the Constitution provides for the abolition of 'Untouchability'?

The Right to Education (Article 21A), making elementary education a Fundamental Right, was inserted by which amendment?

How many freedoms are guaranteed to citizens under Article 19 of the Constitution at present?

The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with which system of voting?

The Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of which House of Parliament?

On what ground can the President of India be removed from office through impeachment under Article 61?

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is appointed by:

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added which new Part and Schedule to the Constitution?

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, dealing with Municipalities, added which Schedule to the Constitution?

The anti-defection provisions are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985?

The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:

Which Article empowers the Parliament to amend the Constitution and lays down the procedure for amendment?

The writ issued by a court to secure the release of a person who has been unlawfully detained is known as:

Which writ is issued against a person who unlawfully holds or usurps a public office, questioning the authority by which the office is held?

Under Article 226, the power to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose is vested in the:

The Finance Commission of India is constituted under which Article of the Constitution?

The superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in the Election Commission under which Article?

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is established under which Article of the Constitution?

Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution (as Article 51A, Part IV-A) on the recommendation of which committee?

The power to form a new State or alter the boundaries of existing States is given to the Parliament under which Article?

On which date did ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 mission achieve a soft landing on the Moon, making India the first country to land near the lunar south pole?

What are the names of the lander and rover of the Chandrayaan-3 mission, respectively?

The landing site of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon was named by India as:

Aditya-L1, India's first dedicated solar mission, is placed in a halo orbit around which point?

By which launch vehicle was India's Aditya-L1 solar mission launched in September 2023?

Who was announced in 2024 as one of the four astronaut-designates for India's Gaganyaan mission and later flew on Axiom Mission 4?

Who took charge as the Chairman of ISRO in January 2025, succeeding S. Somanath?

Shubhanshu Shukla, who travelled to the ISS aboard Axiom Mission 4 in 2025, became which Indian to travel to space?

Which Indian became the first Indian citizen to travel to space, aboard the Soviet Soyuz T-11 mission in 1984?

In March 2024, India successfully conducted 'Mission Divyastra', the first flight test of the Agni-5 missile equipped with which technology?

INS Arighaat, commissioned in August 2024, is India's:

ISRO's SpaDeX mission, whose docking was achieved on 16 January 2025, demonstrated which capability, making India the fourth country to do so?

The SpaDeX satellites were launched in December 2024 using which ISRO launch vehicle?

India's first semiconductor fabrication (fab) facility, approved under the India Semiconductor Mission, is being built by Tata Electronics (with PSMC) at:

The NISAR satellite, launched in July 2025, is a joint Earth-observation mission between ISRO and which space agency?

NISAR is notable for being the first satellite to carry radar operating in which two frequency bands?

In which year was the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?

In November 2024, DRDO successfully conducted the first flight trial of India's first long-range hypersonic missile off the coast of which state?

XPoSat, launched by ISRO on 1 January 2024, is a satellite dedicated to the study of:

The first aircraft of the indigenous Tejas Mk1A variant completed its maiden flight in March 2024 at Bengaluru. It is manufactured by:

Which gas, making up about 78% of the Earth's atmosphere by volume, is the most abundant atmospheric gas?

Which vitamin is synthesised in the human skin on exposure to sunlight (ultraviolet rays)?

The chemical formula of common table salt (sodium chloride) is:

Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the Raman Effect, for which he received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930?

The 'Digital India' programme was launched by the Government of India in which year?

India's first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier, commissioned in 2022, is:

The indigenously developed BrahMos supersonic cruise missile is a joint venture between India and which country?

Which ISRO mission was India's first interplanetary mission, making India the first country to reach Mars orbit on its maiden attempt?

The Indian regional satellite navigation system developed by ISRO, providing positioning services over India, is known as:

The heaviest rocket of ISRO, used to launch Chandrayaan-3 and capable of carrying heavy payloads to geostationary transfer orbit, is:

Who, along with Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, was named a recipient of the 58th Jnanpith Award (for 2023)?

The Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, was conferred posthumously on which socialist leader and former Chief Minister of Bihar in 2024?

The Nobel Peace Prize 2024 was awarded to the Japanese organisation Nihon Hidankyo for its efforts towards which cause?

Samantha Harvey won the Booker Prize 2024 for which novel set aboard the International Space Station?

How many medals did India win at the 2024 Paris Olympic Games?

Who was the first woman to hold the office of President of India?

Who was the first woman to receive India's highest sporting honour, now called the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?

The International Day of Yoga is celebrated worldwide on which date, following its adoption by the United Nations in 2014?

National Science Day is celebrated in India on 28 February to commemorate the discovery of which phenomenon?

Where is the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) located?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?

The headquarters of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is located in which city?

The headquarters of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is located in which city?

Who is the author of the autobiography 'Wings of Fire'?

The book 'The Discovery of India' was written by which author?

For which collection of poems did Rabindranath Tagore become the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature (1913)?

World Health Day is observed on 7 April every year to mark the founding anniversary of which organisation?

Which country won the ICC Men's Cricket World Cup 2023, defeating India in the final?

Veteran actor Waheeda Rehman was honoured with which award, considered the highest honour in Indian cinema?

The Dronacharya Award, instituted by the Government of India, is given for excellence in which field?

At the Paris 2024 Olympics, Neeraj Chopra won a silver medal in which event?

The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is located in which city?

International Women's Day is observed across the world on which date?

The Nobel Prizes are awarded annually in Stockholm, except for one prize awarded in Oslo. Which prize is awarded in Oslo?

Which Indian institution conducts the Census of India and is the source of official population data?

World Press Freedom Day is observed every year on which date?

The book 'The God of Small Things', which won the Booker Prize in 1997, was written by which author?

United Nations Day, marking the entry into force of the UN Charter, is observed on which date?

How many dance forms are officially recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, the national academy for music, dance and drama?

The classical dance form Sattriya, recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000, is associated with which state?

Mohiniyattam, a classical dance characterised by graceful swaying movements, is the classical dance of which state?

Kuchipudi, one of the eight classical dance forms, originated in which state?

Kathakali, known for its elaborate make-up and costumes depicting stories from the epics, is the classical dance-drama of which state?

Odissi, a classical dance noted for its sculpturesque tribhanga poses, is associated with which state?

The ancient Sanskrit treatise on dramaturgy, dance and music, traditionally attributed to the sage Bharata, is known as the:

The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple at Khajuraho is a classic example of which style of Indian temple architecture?

The Brihadeeswara (Brihadishvara) Temple at Thanjavur, built by Rajaraja Chola I, is a celebrated example of which architectural style?

The Vesara style of Indian temple architecture is best described as:

The 13th-century Sun Temple at Konark, designed in the form of a colossal chariot of the Sun God, was built by which ruler?

The ruins of Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, were the capital of which empire?

The Great Stupa at Sanchi, one of the oldest stone structures in India, was originally commissioned by which Mauryan emperor?

India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site, inscribed in July 2024, is the Moidams (mound-burial system) of which dynasty?

Santiniketan, inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, is associated with which Indian figure?

The 'Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas', inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, includes temples at Belur, Halebidu and which third site?

Which trio of composers is collectively known as the 'Trinity of Carnatic Music'?

Which of the following is a classical dance form predominantly associated with Uttar Pradesh, having flourished in the courts of North India?

Madhubani (Mithila) painting, a traditional folk art using natural colours, originates from which state?

Warli painting, characterised by simple geometric shapes depicting daily life, is a tribal art form of which state?

Pattachitra, a cloth-based scroll painting tradition depicting Lord Jagannath and Krishna legends, is chiefly associated with which state?

Tanjore (Thanjavur) painting, distinguished by the use of gold foil and precious stones on a wooden base, is a classical art tradition of which state?

As of the October 2024 Cabinet decision, how many languages enjoy 'Classical Language' status in India?

Which language was the first to be granted 'Classical Language' status in India, in 2004?

The Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, was established in which year?

Which national academy is responsible for the promotion of the visual and fine arts (painting, sculpture and graphics) in India?

Which festival was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2021 as 'Durga Puja in Kolkata'?

'Garba of Gujarat', inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2023, is performed chiefly during which festival?

Kalbelia folk songs and dances, on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list, are associated with a snake-charming community of which state?

Which was the first product in India to receive a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, in 2004?

On which date did Chandrayaan-3's lander module make its historic soft landing near the Moon's south polar region, making India the first country to land there?

The Chandrayaan-3 landing site on the Moon has been officially named:

Which day is observed in India as 'National Space Day', marking the Chandrayaan-3 landing?

India's first dedicated solar mission, Aditya-L1, was placed in a halo orbit around which point?

On 21 June 2023, India became a signatory to which US-led framework for principles governing civil space exploration?

The three new criminal laws that replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act came into force on:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaces which colonial-era law?

In its February 2024 verdict, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme primarily for violating which constitutional right?

The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides for the reservation of what proportion of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

Implementation of the women's reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is contingent on the completion of which two exercises?

Which state became the first in independent India to implement a Uniform Civil Code, with the law coming into force on 27 January 2025?

According to United Nations data released in 2023, India overtook which country to become the world's most populous nation?

Under the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the earlier 10+2 school structure is replaced by which curricular and pedagogical design?

NEP 2020 recommends that, wherever possible, the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5 (and preferably Grade 8) should be the:

As per the 'Status of Tigers in India 2022' estimation, the average estimated tiger population in India was about:

The year 2023 marked the completion of how many years of India's flagship tiger conservation programme, Project Tiger?

Under 'Project Cheetah', the first batch of eight cheetahs introduced into Kuno National Park in September 2022 were brought from which country?

Kuno National Park, the site of India's cheetah reintroduction, is located in which state?

The G20 Leaders' Summit hosted by India in September 2023 was held at which venue in New Delhi?

At the 2023 New Delhi G20 Summit, which regional bloc was admitted as a new permanent member of the G20?

The theme of India's 2023 G20 Presidency, 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future', was drawn from which ancient text?

India's new Parliament building was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on:

The historical sceptre installed in the new Lok Sabha chamber, symbolising the 1947 transfer of power, is known as the:

On 11 December 2023, the Supreme Court of India delivered a verdict upholding the abrogation of which constitutional provision relating to Jammu and Kashmir?

The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated the former state into which two Union Territories?

The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched in September 2023, provides holistic support to artisans and craftspeople engaged in how many traditional trades?

In 2024 the Union Cabinet expanded Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to provide free health cover to all senior citizens irrespective of income above which age?

Senior citizens aged 70 and above newly covered under the expanded Ayushman Bharat scheme are issued which dedicated card, launched in October 2024?

In the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, which party emerged as the single largest party with 240 seats?

The Census of India 2027, whose first official notification was issued in 2025, will be notable as India's first census to be conducted:

On the recommendations of which commission was the Reserve Bank of India established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India nationalised, i.e., transferred to public ownership?

Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India with effect from which date?

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Which body replaced the Planning Commission of India with effect from 1 January 2015?

Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

India's First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on which economic model?

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), which emphasised rapid industrialisation through heavy industries, was based on the model devised by:

In India, one-rupee notes and coins are issued by which authority?

Under which system does the Reserve Bank of India issue currency notes since 1957?

How many major commercial banks were nationalised in India in the first phase in July 1969?

Under whose Prime Ministership and as part of whose finance ministership were the major economic reforms (LPG) of 1991 launched in India?

Under the Charter of the United Nations, the Economic and Social Council consists of -

Under Article 27 of the UN Charter, a decision of the Security Council on a non-procedural matter requires -

The 'inherent right of individual or collective self-defence if an armed attack occurs against a Member of the United Nations' is recognised in -

Which one of the following organs of the United Nations may, under Article 96 of the Charter, request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question?

Where a party fails to perform the obligations incumbent upon it under a judgment of the International Court of Justice, the other party may have recourse to -

Under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in the absence of a contract to that effect, an agent cannot personally enforce contracts entered into on behalf of his principal. A contract to the contrary is, however, presumed to exist where-

Under the definition in Section 2 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration for a promise-

An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is under Section 2 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872-

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is termed:

An agreement made without consideration is valid under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is a promise to compensate a person who has:

A promise to pay a time-barred debt is enforceable without consideration under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, only if it is:

An agreement by a minor is void ab initio. This principle was authoritatively settled by the Privy Council in:

Where a person incapable of contracting, such as a minor or a lunatic, is supplied by another with necessaries suited to his condition in life, Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that the supplier:

A contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible or unlawful by reason of an event the promisor could not prevent:

If the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it, then under Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

When a contract has been broken, the compensation recoverable under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is for loss or damage which:

Where a sum is named in a contract as the amount payable in case of breach, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 entitles the aggrieved party to:

A 'contract of guarantee' under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a contract to perform the promise, or discharge the liability, of a third person in case of his default. It:

Under Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, on a contract that they shall be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them, is called:

The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called a pledge under Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. The bailee in such a case is called the:

To claim protection under Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (transfer by an ostensible owner), the transferee must establish that:

Match List-I (doctrine) with List-II (Section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882): List-I: (A) Election (B) Part performance (C) Feeding the grant by estoppel (D) Improvements by a bona fide holder under defective title List-II: (1) Section 43 (2) Section 35 (3) Section 51 (4) Section 53A

Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions required to claim the defence of part performance under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the case of tangible immovable property of a value of one hundred rupees and upwards, a sale can be made:

Under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee and authorises him to retain possession until payment and to receive the rents and profits in lieu of interest, the mortgage is a:

A condition absolutely restraining the transferee from alienating the property is void under Section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, EXCEPT:

Where property is transferred for the benefit of an unborn person, Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 requires that:

Under Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, for a valid gift the acceptance by the donee must be made:

'A' makes a gift of an estate to 'B' and in the same instrument purports to give a fund belonging to 'B' to 'C'. 'B' is put to election under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. This means that 'B':

Which of the following is correctly matched with its provision under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

During his father's lifetime, 'A', the eldest son, executes a deed purporting to transfer for consideration the share he expects to inherit from his father's estate to 'B'. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the legal effect of this transfer is that it is—

'A' fraudulently represents to 'B' that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property and sells it to 'B' for consideration, though A has no title at that time. A later acquires title to the very same property while the contract of transfer subsists. Under Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer—

With respect to the doctrine of lis pendens under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, from which point in time is the pendency of a suit or proceeding deemed to commence?

After the Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001, which of the following is essential for a transferee to claim protection of the doctrine of part performance under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in respect of a contract executed after 24 September 2001?

A person not already in the service of the Union or the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233(2) only if -

The doctrine that a Proclamation issued under Article 356 is not immune from judicial review and can be struck down if it is found to be mala fide or based on wholly irrelevant material was authoritatively settled in -

Assertion (A): A High Court may issue a writ under Article 226 to enforce an ordinary legal right and not merely a fundamental right. Reason (R): The expression 'for any other purpose' in Article 226 enlarges the writ jurisdiction of the High Court beyond the enforcement of fundamental rights. Select the correct answer:

By which Constitutional Amendment was Article 21A, making the right to free and compulsory education for children a Fundamental Right, inserted into the Constitution of India?

In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court held that the decision of the Speaker/Chairman on a disqualification petition under the Tenth Schedule is—

After the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978, the right to property in India is best described as—

In Re: The Berubari Union (1960), the Supreme Court advised that the cession of Indian territory to a foreign State can be effected only by—

The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 added Part IX 'The Panchayats' and the Eleventh Schedule. The Eleventh Schedule enumerates how many subjects in relation to Panchayats?

In Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court struck down the unamended portion of Article 31C (as widened by the 42nd Amendment) primarily because it—

Arrange the following landmark decisions of the Supreme Court on the amending power of Parliament in correct chronological order: (i) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (ii) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (iii) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (iv) Minerva Mills v. Union of India. Select using the code below.

Match List-I (Provision) with List-II (Article) and select the correct answer using the code below. List-I: (A) Power of the President to grant pardons (B) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (C) Uniform Civil Code (D) Special address by the President to Parliament List-II: (1) Article 143 (2) Article 72 (3) Article 87 (4) Article 44

Which of the following statements regarding the proclamation of a Financial Emergency under Article 360 is correct?

Under Article 16(4A) of the Constitution, the State may make provision for reservation in matters of promotion, with consequential seniority, in favour of—

Roscoe Pound's theory of 'social engineering' is principally concerned with:

The theory that law is the expression of the 'Volksgeist' (the common consciousness or spirit of the people) is associated with which jurist of the Historical School?

On the analysis of legal rights propounded by W.N. Hohfeld, the jural opposite of a 'right' (claim) is:

Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Theory/Concept) and select the correct answer: List-I: (A) Jeremy Bentham (B) Rudolf von Ihering (C) Leon Duguit (D) John Rawls List-II: (1) Social Solidarity (2) Theory of Justice as fairness (3) Utilitarianism / felicific calculus (4) Law as a means to a social purpose

Salmond classified legal rights into 'rights in rem' and 'rights in personam'. A right in rem is best described as:

In the theory of possession, Savigny held that possession consists of two elements. The mental element, the intention to hold the thing as one's own to the exclusion of others, is termed:

Which of the following is a kind of legal liability that does NOT require proof of mens rea or fault on the part of the defendant?

The doctrine of 'stare decisis' under the theory of precedent means that:

Lon L. Fuller's idea of the 'inner morality of law', consisting of eight principles such as generality, promulgation, clarity and non-contradiction, is best described as:

The Supreme Court invoked the doctrine of 'constitutional morality' over prevailing social or popular morality to strike down a discriminatory practice in:

In Hohfeld's scheme of fundamental legal conceptions, the jural opposite of 'immunity' is:

According to Salmond, a right which arises only on the violation of another right and which generally seeks compensation or enforcement is called a:

Under Section 2(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a fact is said to be 'proved' when, after considering the matters before it, the Court either believes it to exist or

Where one fact is declared by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) to be 'conclusive proof' of another, the Court

A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, is relevant under Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)

Where, in consequence of information received from an accused person in the custody of a police officer, a fact is discovered, the proviso to Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) permits proof of

A confession made by an accused person to a police officer

Under Section 22 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a confession is irrelevant in a criminal proceeding when it appears to the Court to have been caused by an inducement, threat, coercion or promise which

'When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him.' This rule is contained in

When a person is accused of an offence and claims the benefit of a General Exception in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within that exception

The fact that a person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is, under Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA),

In a prosecution for rape under the specified clauses of Section 64(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the woman states in her evidence that she did not consent, Section 120 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) directs that the Court

When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, or of science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant. This is provided in

Following the principle laid down in Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014) 10 SCC 473 (decided under the corresponding earlier provision), secondary evidence of the contents of an electronic record (such as a CD or VCD) under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)

Under Section 124 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), who may testify?

With respect to the testimony of an accomplice, the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) provides under Section 138 that

Under Section 148 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), where it is intended to contradict a witness by a previous statement made by him in writing,

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which section bars a confession made to a police officer from being proved against a person accused of any offence?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the principle that so much of information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved, is contained in—

A dies of injuries. Before death he tells a Magistrate the name of his assailant and how he was attacked. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the relevancy of such a statement (dying declaration) falls under—

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting those of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. With reference to this provision, which of the following statements is correct?

Explanation VIII to Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976) provides that an issue heard and finally decided by a court of limited jurisdiction, competent to decide such issue, shall operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit. The effect of this Explanation is that:

A foreign judgment is conclusive under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, except in the cases specified therein. Which of the following is NOT a ground on which a foreign judgment ceases to be conclusive under Section 13?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the power of the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding from a High Court or other civil court in one State to a High Court or other civil court in any other State is contained in:

Under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a plaint shall be rejected in certain cases. Which of the following is a ground for rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11?

Under the proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the defendant fails to file the written statement within thirty days, he shall be allowed to file it on such other day, as may be specified by the court, for reasons to be recorded in writing, but which shall not be later than:

A decree was passed ex parte against the defendant. The defendant applies under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to set aside the ex parte decree. The court may set aside the decree if it is satisfied that:

During the pendency of a suit, the sole defendant dies and an application to bring his legal representatives on record is not made within the period of limitation prescribed therefor. Under Order XXII Rule 4 read with the Limitation Act, 1963, the consequence is that:

Under Order XXIII Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has been adjusted wholly or in part by a lawful agreement or compromise, such agreement or compromise must, after the 1976 amendment, be:

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes, when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:

Under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a second appeal lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only:

Under Section 102 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, as substituted by the Amendment Act of 2002, no second appeal shall lie from any decree when the subject-matter of the original suit is for recovery of money not exceeding:

Under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the High Court may call for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where such subordinate court appears to have:

Where, in any suit, a person claims a right to lodge a caveat so that he may be heard before an application made in the contemplated proceeding is granted, the relevant provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is:

Rule 5 of Order XV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, as inserted by the U.P. Civil Laws (Amendment) Act, 1972 in its application to Uttar Pradesh, empowers the court in a suit by a lessor for eviction of a lessee to strike off the defence where the defendant fails to:

In its application to Uttar Pradesh, Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (as amended by U.P. Act No. 46 of 1999, w.e.f. 1.7.2002) confers revisional jurisdiction in cases arising out of original suits of value exceeding one lakh rupees upon-

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in a suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes, no appeal shall lie except on a question of law where the value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed-

Assertion (A): No appeal lies from a decree passed by the court with the consent of the parties. Reason (R): A party who has consented to the terms of a decree cannot be said to be aggrieved by it. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if the act were done by him alone. This principle of joint liability is contained in:

In the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the definition of 'culpable homicide' and the definition of 'murder' are contained respectively in:

Punishment for murder under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is provided in:

A provision newly framed in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 prescribes that when a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any other ground, each member of that group shall be liable. This 'mob lynching' provision is contained in:

'Z', a girl below eighteen years of age, commits suicide. It is proved that 'A' instigated her to do so. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, abetment of suicide of a child or a person with mental illness is dealt with under:

The offence of 'snatching', introduced for the first time in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is defined and punished under:

Match List-I (offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (Section) and select the correct answer: List-I: (A) Theft (B) Extortion (C) Robbery (D) Dacoity List-II: (1) Section 308 (2) Section 303 (3) Section 310 (4) Section 309

'A' is entrusted by 'B' with certain printing blocks for the purpose of printing 'B's catalogue. 'A' instead uses the same blocks to print the catalogue of a rival firm. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is guilty of:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of robbery is converted into a graver form when, among other circumstances, it is committed on a highway between sunset and sunrise, raising the maximum imprisonment to fourteen years. The provision dealing with robbery is:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'criminal conspiracy' is defined in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death of the assailant only in the situations enumerated in:

An assembly of five or more persons becomes an 'unlawful assembly' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 if the common object of the persons composing it falls within the enumerated heads. The definition of unlawful assembly is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime' and the offence of 'terrorist act' — both introduced into the general penal law — are contained respectively in:

'A' intentionally puts 'Z' in fear of grievous hurt and thereby dishonestly induces 'Z' to hand over his gold ring. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' has committed:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'defamation' is contained in:

'A' and 'B', sharing a common intention to commit dacoity, break into 'Z's house. While inside, 'B' alone fatally stabs 'Z'. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the provision under which 'A' may be held vicariously liable for the act of 'B' is contained in -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, each member shall be liable to imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which one of the following Sections corresponds to the order for maintenance of wives, children and parents (the provision that replaced Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973)?

Match List-I (provision under BNSS, 2023) with List-II (subject-matter) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: A. Section 35 B. Section 47 C. Section 144 D. Section 482. List-II: 1. Person arrested to be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail 2. When police may arrest without warrant 3. Direction for grant of bail to person apprehending arrest 4. Order for maintenance of wives, children and parents. Code:

Anticipatory bail, i.e. a direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest, is provided under which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 confers inherent powers on the High Court (the provision corresponding to Section 482 of the CrPC, 1973)?

Information relating to a cognizable offence, popularly called the First Information Report (FIR), and now expressly permitting registration irrespective of the place where the offence is committed (Zero FIR) as well as registration through electronic communication, is provided under which Section of the BNSS, 2023?

Under the BNSS, 2023, the proviso requiring that for offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more the investigation be completed and the police report filed within ninety days (failing which the accused is entitled to default bail) is found in which Section?

Assertion (A): Under the BNSS, 2023, a statement made by a witness to a police officer in the course of investigation need not be signed by the person making it. Reason (R): Section 180 of the BNSS expressly provides that no such statement shall be signed by the person making it, nor shall it be used for any purpose save as provided by the Sanhita. Select the correct answer:

Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023, in the case of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall not be arrested without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of-

Which one of the following is correctly matched with respect to the BNSS, 2023?

Mercy petition in death sentence cases is, for the first time, given statutory recognition in the BNSS, 2023. A convict under sentence of death may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within how many days of being informed by the Superintendent of jail about the dismissal of his appeal/review/SLP or confirmation of the death sentence?

Under Section 176 of the BNSS, 2023, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, it is now mandatory that-

Cognizance of an offence by a Magistrate of the first class (and any Magistrate of the second class specially empowered) upon receiving a complaint, upon a police report, or upon information received from any person other than a police officer, is dealt with under which Section of the BNSS, 2023?

Match List-I (subject-matter) with List-II (Section of the BNSS, 2023) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: A. First Information Report B. Default bail on failure to complete investigation in time C. Mercy petition in death sentence cases D. Inherent powers of the High Court. List-II: 1. Section 528 2. Section 173 3. Section 472 4. Section 187. Code:

Which of the following pairs relating to the BNSS, 2023 is NOT correctly matched?

Under the BNSS, 2023, the obligation of a person arrested without warrant to be informed forthwith of the grounds of his arrest, and where the offence is bailable, of his right to be released on bail, is contained in which Section?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may now be given through electronic communication. Which Section embodies this provision for registration of First Information Report, including by electronic means?

Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with the maximum period of detention of an undertrial prisoner and provides for release on bond after specified portions of the maximum sentence have been undergone?

Under Article 23 of the Charter of the United Nations, the Security Council consists of fifteen members. Of these, the number of non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly is -

Under Article 27 of the U.N. Charter, a decision of the Security Council on a non-procedural (substantive) matter requires an affirmative vote of nine members including -

The sources of international law that the International Court of Justice shall apply are enumerated in which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?

Under Article 13 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the members of the Court are elected for a term of -

Which of the following statements regarding contentious jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is correct in light of its Statute?

The International Court of Justice may decide a case ex aequo et bono (according to what is fair and good, going beyond strict legal rules) -

Under the Charter of the United Nations, the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any State is prohibited by -

The inherent right of individual or collective self-defence, which arises 'if an armed attack occurs against a Member of the United Nations', is recognised under which Article of the U.N. Charter?

Under Article 99 of the U.N. Charter, who may bring to the attention of the Security Council any matter which in his opinion may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security?

Amendments to the U.N. Charter come into force when adopted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the members of the United Nations. This is provided in -

Under the U.N. Charter, the admission of a new State to membership of the United Nations is effected by -

Under Article 9 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, the receiving State may declare a member of the diplomatic staff 'persona non grata' -

Inviolability of the premises of a diplomatic mission, so that agents of the receiving State may not enter them except with the consent of the head of mission, is guaranteed by which Article of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961?

Among the principal organs of the United Nations, which one suspended its operations on 1 November 1994 after the last trust territory (Palau) attained independence?

Match List-I (concept) with List-II (instrument/provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I: (A) Sources of international law (B) Right of self-defence (C) Veto in Security Council (D) Persona non grata List-II: (1) Article 51, U.N. Charter (2) Article 9, Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961 (3) Article 38, ICJ Statute (4) Article 27, U.N. Charter

Under which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice are the sources of international law enumerated?

Which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice provides that the Court shall consist of fifteen members, no two of whom may be nationals of the same State?

Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer-

In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, the Privy Council held that an agreement entered into by a minor is-

Where necessaries suited to his condition in life are supplied to a minor, the supplier under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is entitled to be reimbursed-

An agreement made without consideration is valid under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 if it is-