Uttar Pradesh Judiciary Mock Test 8 — Questions & Solutions

The International Day of Yoga is celebrated worldwide on which date, following its adoption by the United Nations in 2014?

National Science Day is celebrated in India on 28 February to commemorate the discovery of which phenomenon?

Where is the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) located?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?

The headquarters of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is located in which city?

The headquarters of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is located in which city?

Who is the author of the autobiography 'Wings of Fire'?

The book 'The Discovery of India' was written by which author?

For which collection of poems did Rabindranath Tagore become the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature (1913)?

World Health Day is observed on 7 April every year to mark the founding anniversary of which organisation?

Which country won the ICC Men's Cricket World Cup 2023, defeating India in the final?

Veteran actor Waheeda Rehman was honoured with which award, considered the highest honour in Indian cinema?

The Dronacharya Award, instituted by the Government of India, is given for excellence in which field?

At the Paris 2024 Olympics, Neeraj Chopra won a silver medal in which event?

The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is located in which city?

International Women's Day is observed across the world on which date?

The Nobel Prizes are awarded annually in Stockholm, except for one prize awarded in Oslo. Which prize is awarded in Oslo?

Which Indian institution conducts the Census of India and is the source of official population data?

World Press Freedom Day is observed every year on which date?

The book 'The God of Small Things', which won the Booker Prize in 1997, was written by which author?

United Nations Day, marking the entry into force of the UN Charter, is observed on which date?

How many dance forms are officially recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, the national academy for music, dance and drama?

The classical dance form Sattriya, recognised as classical by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000, is associated with which state?

Mohiniyattam, a classical dance characterised by graceful swaying movements, is the classical dance of which state?

Kuchipudi, one of the eight classical dance forms, originated in which state?

Kathakali, known for its elaborate make-up and costumes depicting stories from the epics, is the classical dance-drama of which state?

Odissi, a classical dance noted for its sculpturesque tribhanga poses, is associated with which state?

The ancient Sanskrit treatise on dramaturgy, dance and music, traditionally attributed to the sage Bharata, is known as the:

The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple at Khajuraho is a classic example of which style of Indian temple architecture?

The Brihadeeswara (Brihadishvara) Temple at Thanjavur, built by Rajaraja Chola I, is a celebrated example of which architectural style?

The Vesara style of Indian temple architecture is best described as:

The 13th-century Sun Temple at Konark, designed in the form of a colossal chariot of the Sun God, was built by which ruler?

The ruins of Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, were the capital of which empire?

The Great Stupa at Sanchi, one of the oldest stone structures in India, was originally commissioned by which Mauryan emperor?

India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site, inscribed in July 2024, is the Moidams (mound-burial system) of which dynasty?

Santiniketan, inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, is associated with which Indian figure?

The 'Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas', inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023, includes temples at Belur, Halebidu and which third site?

Which trio of composers is collectively known as the 'Trinity of Carnatic Music'?

Which of the following is a classical dance form predominantly associated with Uttar Pradesh, having flourished in the courts of North India?

Madhubani (Mithila) painting, a traditional folk art using natural colours, originates from which state?

Warli painting, characterised by simple geometric shapes depicting daily life, is a tribal art form of which state?

Pattachitra, a cloth-based scroll painting tradition depicting Lord Jagannath and Krishna legends, is chiefly associated with which state?

Tanjore (Thanjavur) painting, distinguished by the use of gold foil and precious stones on a wooden base, is a classical art tradition of which state?

As of the October 2024 Cabinet decision, how many languages enjoy 'Classical Language' status in India?

Which language was the first to be granted 'Classical Language' status in India, in 2004?

The Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, was established in which year?

Which national academy is responsible for the promotion of the visual and fine arts (painting, sculpture and graphics) in India?

Which festival was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2021 as 'Durga Puja in Kolkata'?

'Garba of Gujarat', inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2023, is performed chiefly during which festival?

Kalbelia folk songs and dances, on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list, are associated with a snake-charming community of which state?

Which was the first product in India to receive a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, in 2004?

On which date did Chandrayaan-3's lander module make its historic soft landing near the Moon's south polar region, making India the first country to land there?

The Chandrayaan-3 landing site on the Moon has been officially named:

Which day is observed in India as 'National Space Day', marking the Chandrayaan-3 landing?

India's first dedicated solar mission, Aditya-L1, was placed in a halo orbit around which point?

On 21 June 2023, India became a signatory to which US-led framework for principles governing civil space exploration?

The three new criminal laws that replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act came into force on:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaces which colonial-era law?

In its February 2024 verdict, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme primarily for violating which constitutional right?

The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides for the reservation of what proportion of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

Implementation of the women's reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is contingent on the completion of which two exercises?

Which state became the first in independent India to implement a Uniform Civil Code, with the law coming into force on 27 January 2025?

According to United Nations data released in 2023, India overtook which country to become the world's most populous nation?

Under the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the earlier 10+2 school structure is replaced by which curricular and pedagogical design?

NEP 2020 recommends that, wherever possible, the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5 (and preferably Grade 8) should be the:

As per the 'Status of Tigers in India 2022' estimation, the average estimated tiger population in India was about:

The year 2023 marked the completion of how many years of India's flagship tiger conservation programme, Project Tiger?

Under 'Project Cheetah', the first batch of eight cheetahs introduced into Kuno National Park in September 2022 were brought from which country?

Kuno National Park, the site of India's cheetah reintroduction, is located in which state?

The G20 Leaders' Summit hosted by India in September 2023 was held at which venue in New Delhi?

At the 2023 New Delhi G20 Summit, which regional bloc was admitted as a new permanent member of the G20?

The theme of India's 2023 G20 Presidency, 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future', was drawn from which ancient text?

India's new Parliament building was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on:

The historical sceptre installed in the new Lok Sabha chamber, symbolising the 1947 transfer of power, is known as the:

On 11 December 2023, the Supreme Court of India delivered a verdict upholding the abrogation of which constitutional provision relating to Jammu and Kashmir?

The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated the former state into which two Union Territories?

The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched in September 2023, provides holistic support to artisans and craftspeople engaged in how many traditional trades?

In 2024 the Union Cabinet expanded Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to provide free health cover to all senior citizens irrespective of income above which age?

Senior citizens aged 70 and above newly covered under the expanded Ayushman Bharat scheme are issued which dedicated card, launched in October 2024?

In the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, which party emerged as the single largest party with 240 seats?

The Census of India 2027, whose first official notification was issued in 2025, will be notable as India's first census to be conducted:

On the recommendations of which commission was the Reserve Bank of India established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?

In which year was the Reserve Bank of India nationalised, i.e., transferred to public ownership?

Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India with effect from which date?

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Which body replaced the Planning Commission of India with effect from 1 January 2015?

Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

India's First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) was primarily based on which economic model?

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), which emphasised rapid industrialisation through heavy industries, was based on the model devised by:

In India, one-rupee notes and coins are issued by which authority?

Under which system does the Reserve Bank of India issue currency notes since 1957?

How many major commercial banks were nationalised in India in the first phase in July 1969?

Under whose Prime Ministership and as part of whose finance ministership were the major economic reforms (LPG) of 1991 launched in India?

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was given statutory status through the SEBI Act in which year?

As per the Census of India 2011, the literacy rate of India was approximately:

The 'repo rate' announced by the Reserve Bank of India refers to the rate at which:

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the portion of which of the following that banks must maintain with the RBI?

The Green Revolution in India, launched in the mid-1960s, was associated primarily with the increased production of which crop in its initial phase?

Who is widely regarded as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India'?

At present, which sector contributes the largest share to India's Gross Value Added (GDP)?

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in which year?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (IBRD) were conceived at which 1944 conference?

Where is the headquarters of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) located?

Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the 'Annual Financial Statement' (Union Budget) laid before Parliament?

The financial year (fiscal year) for the Government of India runs from:

The poverty line methodology that fixed the poverty line at about Rs.27 per day (rural) and Rs.33 per day (urban) for 2011-12 was recommended by which committee?

The first official estimate of India's national income after independence was prepared by the National Income Committee (1949) headed by:

Who is credited with the first attempt to estimate India's national income (per capita income) in 1867-68?

India adopted the decimal system of coinage, dividing the rupee into 100 paise, with effect from:

The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is maintained by commercial banks in the form of:

The Environment (Protection) Act in India was enacted in which year, largely in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the highest degree of legal protection (absolute protection) for species such as the tiger is provided under which Schedule?

In which year did the Government of India launch 'Project Tiger' for the conservation of the tiger?

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) was constituted as a statutory authority under which Act?

In which year was 'Project Elephant' launched by the Government of India as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme?

Which animal has been declared India's 'National Heritage Animal'?

The Ganges River Dolphin is recognised in India as the national ______.

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, under which the Central Pollution Control Board was established, was enacted in which year?

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in India was enacted in which year?

India's first national park (now part of a tiger reserve), established in 1936, was originally named which of the following?

Which was the first Biosphere Reserve to be established in India (in 1986)?

The Montreal Protocol, a landmark international agreement, deals primarily with which environmental issue?

The Ramsar Convention, signed in 1971 in Ramsar (Iran), is concerned with the conservation of which type of ecosystem?

The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, which led to the designation of World Environment Day, was held in 1972 in which city?

World Environment Day is observed every year on which date?

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature in 1992 at the Earth Summit held in which city?

The Cartagena Protocol, a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, primarily deals with which subject?

The Nagoya Protocol, adopted in 2010 under the Convention on Biological Diversity, is concerned with which of the following?

India enacted the Biological Diversity Act in which year, to give effect to the Convention on Biological Diversity?

The headquarters of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) of India is located in which city?

How many global biodiversity hotspots are recognised within India's territory?

Which of the following is one of India's four recognised global biodiversity hotspots?

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in India under an Act of which year?

Where is the Principal Bench (principal place of sitting) of the National Green Tribunal located?

The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, is associated with which international convention?

The Paris Agreement on climate change was adopted in which year under the UNFCCC?

By definition, the global warming potential (GWP) of which gas is taken as the reference value of 1?

The CITES convention regulates which of the following?

In an ecosystem, organisms that synthesise their own food using sunlight, such as green plants, are classified as:

The Forest (Conservation) Act, which restricts the de-reservation of forests and use of forest land for non-forest purposes, was enacted in which year?

Which of the following is a base (fundamental) unit in the International System of Units (SI)?

The SI unit of force is the:

The approximate speed of light in vacuum is:

Which physical quantity is measured in pascal (Pa)?

The SI unit of electrical resistance is the:

A nautical instrument that always points roughly towards the geographic north uses which property?

The phenomenon responsible for the splitting of white light into seven colours by a prism is:

According to Newton's first law of motion, a body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external:

The unit 'watt' is used to measure:

Which mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles because it gives an erect, diminished image and a wider field of view?

Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, by using the expression "irrespective of the area where the offence is committed", has given statutory recognition to which concept?

Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer-in-charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain a prima facie case within a period of:

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an accused becomes entitled to default bail on expiry of ninety days of detention where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with:

Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 preserves the inherent powers of the High Court to make orders to prevent abuse of the process of any Court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the power to grant anticipatory bail (direction for release in the event of arrest) is contained in:

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except:

The sources of international law which the International Court of Justice is to apply are enumerated in which Article of the Statute of the ICJ?

Under Article 27(3) of the Charter of the United Nations, a decision of the Security Council on non-procedural (substantive) matters requires an affirmative vote of-

Under Article 23 of the United Nations Charter, the ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of-

The International Court of Justice consists of fifteen judges who, under the Statute of the ICJ, are elected for a term of-

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, who may be parties in contentious cases before the Court?

Under Article 96 of the United Nations Charter, which of the following may request an advisory opinion of the International Court of Justice?

Which of the following is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations as declared by the Charter?

The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations, under Article 61 of the Charter, consists of-

Under Article 4 of the United Nations Charter, the admission of a new member State to the United Nations is effected by-

The concept of jus cogens (a peremptory norm from which no derogation is permitted) is defined in which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969?

The doctrine of rebus sic stantibus (fundamental change of circumstances) as a ground for terminating or withdrawing from a treaty is embodied in which provision of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969?

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted and proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly on-

Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982, the breadth of the territorial sea which a coastal State may claim shall not exceed-

Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982, the Exclusive Economic Zone of a coastal State extends up to-

Under Article 108 of the United Nations Charter, an amendment to the Charter comes into force when adopted by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the members of the United Nations, including-

Under Article 38(1) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, which of the following is NOT listed as a source the Court shall apply in deciding disputes submitted to it?

Under Article 27 of the United Nations Charter, decisions of the Security Council on all matters other than procedural matters require an affirmative vote of nine members including-

With reference to Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following best states the rule of supervening impossibility laid down in Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co.?

The substitution of a new contract for an existing one between the same parties, whereby the old contract need not be performed, is known under Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as -

Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, dealing with compensation for breach of contract, is regarded as the statutory embodiment of the rule laid down in -

A guarantee which extends to a series of transactions is, under Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, called -

Which of the following correctly distinguishes a contract of indemnity (Section 124) from a contract of guarantee (Section 126) under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration may be furnished by-

A finds a lost wallet on the street and returns it to its owner B, who had earlier publicly announced a reward of Rs. 5,000 for its return. A had no knowledge of B's announcement when he returned the wallet. Applying the principle in Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt, A is-

An agreement made out of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other is enforceable under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, only if it is-

Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement in restraint of trade is valid in the case of-

The leading Indian decision holding that an agreement entered into by a minor is void ab initio is-

Assertion (A): An advertisement promising a reward to anyone who uses a product and still catches influenza is a valid offer to the world at large. Reason (R): A general offer can be accepted by any person who, with knowledge of the offer, performs the conditions specified therein. Select the correct answer-

Under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible or unlawful by reason of an event the promisor could not prevent, becomes-

The case Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. is a leading Indian authority on-

A husband promises, while leaving for abroad, to pay his wife a monthly allowance during their separation; the parties were on amicable terms. On these facts, applying Balfour v. Balfour, the promise is-

Which of the following correctly states the requirement of Section 53A (doctrine of part performance) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

A mortgage in which the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage-money on a certain date and transfers the property absolutely to the mortgagee, subject to a proviso that the mortgagee will re-transfer it on payment, is known as:

In a mortgage by conditional sale under Section 58(c) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the condition relating to the ostensible sale becoming absolute on default must be:

A stipulation in a mortgage deed that prevents or impedes the mortgagor from redeeming the property after the mortgage-money has become due is, under the law relating to Section 60:

Where a person professes to transfer property which he has no right to transfer, and as part of the same transaction confers a benefit on the owner of the property, that owner must elect either to confirm the transfer or to dissent from it. This doctrine of election is embodied in:

Under Section 25 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, an interest created on a transfer of property and dependent upon a condition fails if the fulfilment of the condition is:

In the absence of a contract, local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is, under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deemed to be a lease:

Under Section 108 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, if a material part of the leased property is wholly destroyed by fire, tempest or flood and rendered substantially unfit for the purpose for which it was let, the lease:

Under Section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a gift of immovable property is effected:

Under Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the expression "transfer of property" means an act by which a living person conveys property, in present or in future, to one or more other living persons, or to himself. In this context, the word "living person" includes-

Which one of the following is NOT among the kinds of mortgage enumerated under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

In a usufructuary mortgage as defined under Section 58(d) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the mortgagee-

According to Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (rule against perpetuity), no transfer can create an interest which is to take effect after the lifetime of one or more persons living at the date of transfer and-

The leading decision in Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah (AIR 1962 SC 847) is concerned with the relationship between which two provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233(2) only if he has been an advocate or a pleader for not less than -

The control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State and holding any post inferior to that of district judge, is vested in -

The phrase 'for any other purpose', which makes the writ jurisdiction of the High Court wider than that of the Supreme Court, appears in -

Parliament may by law provide for the creation of an All India Judicial Service only if -

Under Article 312(3), the All India Judicial Service shall not include any post inferior to that of -

A Judge of the Supreme Court of India holds office until he attains the age of -

The retirement age of a Judge of a High Court, originally sixty years, was raised to sixty-two years by which Constitutional Amendment?

The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution, holding that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 cannot be used to alter the basic framework of the Constitution, was propounded in -

Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) was decided by a Bench consisting of -

Which one of the following is correctly matched?

Assertion (A): The right to move the High Court under Article 226 cannot be suspended during a national emergency in the same manner as the right under Article 32. Reason (R): Article 226 is a constitutional right and not itself a fundamental right contained in Part III. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following writs is issued by a court to a public official directing him to perform a public or statutory duty which he has failed to perform?

The decisions of a High Court rendered in exercise of its writ jurisdiction under Article 226 are binding -

Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (School/Theory) and select the correct code: List-I: A. Savigny B. Jeremy Bentham C. Rudolf von Ihering D. Thomas Aquinas List-II: 1. Utilitarianism 2. Volksgeist (Historical School) 3. Natural Law 4. Jurisprudence of Interests / Social purpose

The view that a judge does not 'make' law but only 'discovers' or 'declares' the pre-existing law is known as the:

In the doctrine of precedent, the binding part of a decision which constitutes authority for future cases is the:

Ronald Dworkin, in his critique of legal positivism, argued that legal reasoning is governed not merely by rules but also by:

The American Realist school of jurisprudence, which emphasised the study of "law in action" and the behaviour of courts, was prominently associated with the maxim that law is "prophecies of what the courts will do in fact." This maxim is attributed to:

Identify the correct statement regarding kinds of legal rights:

According to John Austin's command theory, which one of the following is NOT an essential element of 'positive law' (law properly so called)?

In Hans Kelsen's 'Pure Theory of Law', the term 'Grundnorm' denotes-

In H.L.A. Hart's 'The Concept of Law', the union of which two sets of rules constitutes the 'heart' of a legal system?

According to Salmond, possession in fact (corporeal possession) requires the union of two elements. The mental element-the intention to exclude others-is known as-

Sir Henry Maine, in 'Ancient Law', traced the development of law through stages. The earliest stage, in which the king delivered isolated divinely-inspired judgments, is described by the term-

In W.N. Hohfeld's scheme of fundamental legal conceptions, the jural correlative of a 'right' (claim) is-

Which of the following correctly distinguishes Section 117 from Section 118 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

In a prosecution for rape under specified aggravated clauses, where sexual intercourse is proved and the victim states in her evidence that she did not consent, Section 120 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) directs that the Court:

Where a document purporting to be thirty years old is produced from proper custody, Section 92 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) permits the Court to:

Under the scheme of Sections 104 to 109 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the burden of proving that a case falls within any of the General Exceptions in the penal law lies on the accused by virtue of:

When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him. This rule is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

The doctrine of estoppel, under which a person who by his declaration, act or omission has caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon it cannot deny its truth, is embodied in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused, and the court may convict upon his testimony though it is uncorroborated only as a matter of caution requiring corroboration. The rule of prudence that the court may presume an accomplice unworthy of credit unless corroborated in material particulars is the combined effect of Section 138 and which illustration/provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

Which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) lays down that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact?

Under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), when a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody, how much of that information may be proved?

Section 23(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) provides that:

A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death is relevant under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

In Pakala Narayana Swami v. King Emperor (AIR 1939 PC 47), the Privy Council held that a dying declaration under what is now Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA):

Under Section 108 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), when a person accused of an offence claims the benefit of a General Exception in the penal law:

Under Section 39(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), the opinion of an expert is NOT relevant on a question of:

The presumption that a document thirty years old produced from proper custody was duly executed and attested is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA)?

For the presumption under Section 92 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) to apply, the document must be:

Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), a conviction based upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice is:

The rule that the Court may presume that an accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars is found in:

The leading case Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India (2005) is principally associated with which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the power of the High Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding from one court subordinate to it to another such court is provided under -

Under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an application for amendment of pleadings after the commencement of trial shall not be allowed unless the court concludes that -

All questions arising between the parties to the suit in which the decree was passed, and relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree, are to be determined by the executing court and not by a separate suit, under which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

The landmark decision in Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1961) is significant for holding that the principle underlying which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 applies to writ petitions under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution?

Which one of the following pairs relating to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is NOT correctly matched?

Assertion (A): Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit against the Government cannot ordinarily be instituted without prior notice. Reason (R): Section 80 CPC requires delivery of a written notice and expiry of the statutory period before such a suit is instituted, and a plaint that does not show such notice is liable to be rejected. Select the correct answer:

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is:

The doctrine of res judicata under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is contained in:

A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies only where the case involves:

Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 bars a further appeal (such as a Letters Patent Appeal) where an appeal has already been decided by a single Judge of a High Court?

The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 can be exercised only where the subordinate court has:

The doctrine of restitution, empowering a court to place parties in the position they would have occupied but for an erroneous decree later varied or reversed, is provided under:

A caveat lodged under Section 148A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 shall not remain in force after the expiry of:

In Kailash v. Nanhku (2005), the Supreme Court held that the time limit of ninety days for filing a written statement prescribed under Order 8 Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is:

Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the court to refer a dispute for settlement through which of the following modes?

In Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (2010), regarding reference under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Supreme Court held that consent of both parties is essential only for reference to:

No suit shall be instituted against the Government or a public officer in respect of an act purporting to be done in his official capacity until the expiry of how many months after a notice in writing has been delivered, under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offences of criminal breach of trust which were spread across Sections 405 to 409 of the old IPC have been consolidated, and the maximum ordinary imprisonment for criminal breach of trust now stands at:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of cheating, which earlier appeared as separate sections (417, 418 and 420 IPC), is now contained in a single provision at:

'A' is entrusted by 'B' with engraved blocks meant for printing B's trade catalogue. 'A' uses the very same blocks to print a catalogue for B's rival firm. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A is most appropriately guilty of:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of defamation, for which community service may be imposed as one form of punishment, is provided in:

The offence of abetment of suicide (corresponding to Section 306 of the old IPC) is contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where five or more persons acting in concert commit murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the minimum sentence each member may receive, in the alternative to death or life imprisonment, is imprisonment for not less than:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'criminal conspiracy' is defined in which section?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of caste of the victim. Each member of such group shall be punished under which provision, with what minimum imprisonment as one of the alternatives?

'A' suddenly grabs a mobile phone from 'Z's hand while passing on a motorcycle and speeds away. Which offence has 'A' primarily committed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and under which section is it newly defined?

The offence of 'organised crime', introduced for the first time as a distinct offence in the general penal law of India, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

'A', a banker, is entrusted with money belonging to 'B' in the course of his business as a banker and dishonestly converts it to his own use. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the maximum punishment to which 'A' is liable is:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a woman's death is caused by burns or bodily injury within seven years of marriage and she had been subjected to cruelty by her husband in connection with a demand for dowry, the offence and minimum punishment are:

'A' instigates 'Z', a person above eighteen years of sound mind, to commit suicide and 'Z' commits suicide. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is punishable under which section and with what maximum imprisonment?

Two persons agree to fence with each other for amusement, each consenting impliedly to suffer harm not intended to cause death or grievous hurt. If one accidentally hurts the other during fair play, the act is exempt from criminal liability under which general exception of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in which of the following situations does the right of private defence of property NOT extend to the voluntary causing of death under Section 41?

'A' cheats 'Z' and thereby dishonestly induces 'Z' to deliver immovable property to 'A'. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the maximum imprisonment to which 'A' is liable is:

The offence of 'terrorist act' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 — committed with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security or economic security of India — is contained in which section?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding:

Which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 makes it mandatory, subject to availability of technological facilities, to record the process of search and seizure (including the seizure list) through audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone?

Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, it is mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence (with videography of the process) in respect of an offence which is punishable with imprisonment of:

Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which introduces a wholly new procedure not found in the CrPC, 1973, deals with:

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir or relative) may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within a period of __ from the date the jail Superintendent informs him of the relevant dismissal/confirmation:

Under Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender (with no previous conviction) is entitled to release on bond if he has undergone detention as an undertrial up to:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the obligation of every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme is contained in:

Under Section 183 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, who is competent to record a confession of an accused during investigation?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the concept of 'Zero FIR'—permitting registration of information relating to a cognizable offence irrespective of the area where the offence is committed—has been given statutory recognition for the first time. In which Section is this provision codified?

Which one of the following correctly states the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Judicial Magistrate of the first class may pass under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a person is accused of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to less than seven years, a police officer 'shall' issue a notice directing him to appear instead of arresting him. This provision corresponds to which Section?

Match List-I (provision) with List-II (Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Anticipatory bail (B) Police custody (C) Maximum period of detention of undertrial prisoner (D) Repeal of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 List-II: 1. Section 187 2. Section 479 3. Section 531 4. Section 482

Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the attendance of a forensic expert at the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence and to videograph the process is mandatory in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of—

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of police custody of fifteen days—which under the earlier Code could be granted only within the first fifteen days from arrest—may now be authorised by a Magistrate in whole or in parts at any time during the initial—

Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces a new safeguard during search and seizure. Which one of the following does it require?

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under a sentence of death may file a mercy petition. Which one of the following correctly states the order in which such petition is to be made?

Which one of the following Sections of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 imposes a statutory duty on every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme?

The inherent right of individual or collective self-defence, exercisable if an armed attack occurs against a Member of the United Nations until the Security Council acts, is recognised in which Article of the UN Charter?

Under the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the Court consists of-

With reference to the election of judges of the International Court of Justice, which of the following statements is correct?