Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 1 — Questions & Solutions

Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025, succeeding Justice B. R. Gavai?

The Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2025 was awarded to:

Who was elected the Vice-President of India in the election held in September 2025, following the resignation of Jagdeep Dhankhar?

Which national cricket team won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025, defeating New Zealand in the final at Dubai?

Who was re-appointed as the Attorney General for India with effect from October 2025 for a further term?

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem' embodies which of the following principles?

The doctrine 'res ipsa loquitur', frequently invoked in the law of torts, means:

In jurisprudence, John Austin is most closely associated with which theory of law?

The maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' conveys which idea?

If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', then how will 'JUDGE' be written in the same code?

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, 'She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son.' How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?

A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years under simple interest. In how many years will it become four times the original sum at the same rate?

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE':

Select the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The accused, despite overwhelming evidence, remained ______ in his denial of any wrongdoing.'

A person who is appointed to settle a dispute between parties by their mutual consent, instead of through the ordinary courts, is called:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, came into force across India with effect from:

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been repealed and replaced by which of the following enactments?

Who, as of June 2026, holds the office of the Chief Justice of India?

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem', a cornerstone of natural justice, means:

The maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat' embodies the principle that:

In jurisprudence, the theory that 'law is the command of the sovereign backed by sanction' is principally associated with:

The original civil and criminal jurisdiction of the Delhi High Court, as a separate High Court, was established in which year?

Under the Constitution of India, the National Capital Territory of Delhi is governed by a special provision inserted by the 69th Constitutional Amendment, namely:

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'ABROGATE':

In a certain code, FACE is written as GBDF. How will the word JUDGE be written in the same code?

A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years under simple interest. In how many years will the same sum become four times itself at the same rate?

If in a certain month a particular date, the 1st, falls on a Wednesday, then the 23rd of the same month will fall on which day?

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado, a pro-democracy opposition leader from which country?

Choose the option that is the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word 'EPHEMERAL'.

Select the option that correctly fills the blank: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers ___ aware of the new precedent cited by the appellant.'

Choose the correctly spelt word.

Identify the meaning of the idiom 'to cut the Gordian knot'.

Choose the word nearest in meaning (SYNONYM) to 'PUGNACIOUS'.

Select the option that converts the sentence into the passive voice: 'The committee has approved the new rules.'

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ___ all the charges framed against him.'

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom 'a red herring'.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Each of the witnesses (a)/ have given (b)/ a different account (c)/ of the incident. (d)'

Choose the word that means 'a person who hates or distrusts mankind'.

Select the correctly punctuated sentence.

Choose the correct meaning of the foreign phrase 'prima facie' as commonly used in English.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'Despite the overwhelming evidence, the defence counsel remained ___ in his denial of any wrongdoing.'

Choose the option that correctly changes the sentence into indirect speech: 'He said to me, "I will help you tomorrow."'

Select the option that best replaces the underlined words to make a single word: 'a government by the wealthy class'.

Choose the word which is most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'OBDURATE'.

Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'GARRULOUS'.

Select the correct one-word substitution for 'A person who knows many foreign languages'.

From the following words, choose the one that is MIS-SPELT.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'Despite repeated warnings, he remained ______ to the consequences of his actions.'

Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.

Select the option that correctly fills the blank: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers ______ aware of the new amendment.'

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: 'To turn a blind eye'.

Select the one-word substitution for 'A statement that contradicts itself yet may be true'.

Choose the word which is most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'FRUGAL'.

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ______ all charges.'

Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence: 'The court delivered the verdict yesterday.'

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. The exclusion of jurisdiction of a Civil Court is:

Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (res sub judice) bars a Court from proceeding with the trial of a subsequently instituted suit where the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties. The bar under Section 10 operates to:

For the doctrine of res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to apply, the former suit must have been heard and finally decided by a Court competent to try the subsequent suit. A matter which 'might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack' in the former suit is, by virtue of the relevant Explanation, deemed to have been:

Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 declares that a foreign judgment shall be conclusive except in the cases enumerated therein. Which of the following is NOT one of the grounds on which a foreign judgment ceases to be conclusive under Section 13?

A files a suit for compensation for a wrong done to immovable property situate at Delhi, the relief sought being capable of being obtained entirely through the personal obedience of the defendant, who resides at Mumbai. Under the proviso to Section 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, such a suit:

The power to transfer a suit, appeal or other proceeding pending in a High Court or other Civil Court in one State to a High Court or other Civil Court in another State is vested under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 exclusively in:

Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which empowers a Court to refer a dispute for settlement outside the Court where it appears that elements of a settlement exist, enumerates which of the following modes of alternative dispute resolution?

Under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an appeal from an original decree generally lies. However, no appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Cause when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:

A second appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies to the High Court from an appellate decree only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law. As a consequence of Section 100(5), the second appeal is to be heard:

The power of revision conferred on the High Court by Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may be exercised in respect of any case decided by a subordinate Court in which no appeal lies, where the subordinate Court appears to have:

Nothing in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is deemed to limit or otherwise affect the inherent power of the Court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court. This saving of inherent powers is contained in:

Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 enumerates the grounds on which a plaint shall be rejected. Which of the following is NOT a ground for rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11?

Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a defendant is ordinarily to present his written statement within thirty days from the date of service of summons. Where he fails to do so, the Court may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, allow him to file it on a later day, but not later than:

Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply to have it set aside. The Court shall set aside the decree if the defendant satisfies it that:

The proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (inserted by the 2002 amendment) places a restriction on the amendment of pleadings. It provides that no application for amendment shall be allowed after the trial has commenced unless the Court comes to the conclusion that:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the bar of res judicata is contained in:

Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, which provides for stay of suit, applies only when the previously instituted suit is pending in:

A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 CPC lies only:

The proviso to Order VI Rule 17 CPC provides that no application for amendment of pleadings shall be allowed after the trial has commenced unless the court concludes that:

Under Order VII Rule 11 CPC, a plaint shall be rejected in which of the following cases?

An application by a defendant to set aside an ex parte decree passed against him is governed by:

The doctrine of restitution, requiring a court to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for a decree subsequently varied or reversed, is contained in:

Section 89 CPC empowers the court to refer a dispute, where it appears there exist elements of a settlement, to which of the following modes?

Arrest and detention of a judgment-debtor in execution of a decree for payment of money is regulated by which provision, requiring the court to record reasons such as the debtor's means and dishonest disposal of property?

The general power of the High Court and the District Court to transfer or withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before a subordinate court is conferred by:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the registration of a First Information Report relating to a cognizable offence, including the 'Zero FIR' that may be lodged at any police station irrespective of the place where the offence was committed, is governed by:

Where information relates to a cognizable offence made punishable for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge of a police station may, before registering the FIR, conduct a preliminary enquiry under Section 173(3) BNSS only with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

The provision empowering a police officer to arrest a person without a warrant, which also absorbs the earlier notice-of-appearance procedure of Section 41A CrPC into its sub-sections, is found in the BNSS at:

Where an offence is punishable for seven years or more, Section 176(3) BNSS makes it mandatory for which of the following to visit the scene of crime to collect evidence, the process being recorded by audio-video electronic means?

Under Section 187 BNSS, for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to ten years, the total period of police custody of fifteen days, though it may be sought in parts, must be exhausted within the first:

An accused acquires the indefeasible right to default bail under Section 187(3) BNSS if the investigation is not completed within ninety days in the case of an offence punishable with:

The power of the High Court or Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail to a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of a non-bailable offence is now conferred by the BNSS under:

Section 479 BNSS, dealing with the maximum period of detention of an under-trial prisoner, provides that a first-time offender, who has never been convicted of any offence in the past, shall be released on bond once he has undergone detention for:

A new feature of the BNSS, 2023, not available under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, is the provision for inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender. This is contained in:

Under Section 472 BNSS, a convict on whom a sentence of death has been confirmed may file a mercy petition before the President of India within a period of how many days from the date on which the Superintendent of jail informs him of the dismissal of appeal or special leave petition?

Under Section 184 BNSS, the registered medical practitioner who examines a woman in a case of rape or attempt to commit rape is required to forward his report to the investigating officer within:

Section 258 BNSS, prescribing a time limit for delivery of judgment, requires the court in a trial to pronounce judgment as soon as possible and in any event within thirty days from the completion of arguments, extendable, for reasons to be recorded in writing, to a maximum of:

Section 530 BNSS, which represents a major procedural shift, provides that all trials, inquiries and proceedings, including the examination of witnesses and recording of evidence, may be held in:

Upon completion of investigation, the police report (charge-sheet) on the basis of which a Magistrate takes cognizance is required to be forwarded under which provision of the BNSS, 2023?

Under the BNSS, 2023, when a police officer in charge of a station decides not to investigate a cognizable case, or where an informant aggrieved by refusal to register information of a cognizable offence approaches the Superintendent of Police, the relevant remedy of sending information to the Magistrate empowered to take cognizance is reflected in the scheme of Section 173 read with the magistrate's power to order investigation under:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the procedure when investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours, and the consequent power of the Magistrate to authorise detention, is contained in -

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, the maximum period for which the Magistrate may authorise detention of the accused otherwise than in police custody, where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of ten years or more, is -

A police officer's power to arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, in cognizable cases, is now governed by which provision of the BNSS, 2023 (corresponding to Section 41 of the old CrPC) -

Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023, in the case of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, no arrest of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall be made except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of -

The concept of registration of a First Information Report irrespective of the territorial jurisdiction in which the offence is committed (popularly the 'Zero FIR') has been statutorily recognised for the first time under which provision of the BNSS, 2023 -

Under the BNSS, 2023, a forensic expert is mandatorily required to visit the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term of -

Under Section 105 of the BNSS, 2023, where any search or seizure is conducted, the process shall be recorded through audio-video electronic means, and such recording shall be forwarded without delay to the -

The provision in the BNSS, 2023 enabling a trial to be conducted in absentia against a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial, a novel feature absent in the old CrPC, is -

Under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023, a first-time offender who has never been convicted of any offence in the past shall, as a general rule, be released on bond if he has undergone detention as an undertrial for a period extending up to -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, when a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on a ground such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the offence (commonly called mob lynching) is punishable under -

Which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 newly introduces 'community service' as a recognised form of punishment, a category that had no counterpart in the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Section 22 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (act of a person incapable of judgment) replaces the expression used in Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code. The IPC expression 'unsoundness of mind' has been substituted in the BNS by -

'A', a registered medical practitioner, causes the death of a patient by a rash or negligent act while performing a medical procedure, the act not amounting to culpable homicide. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the maximum term of imprisonment to which 'A' is liable is -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching' has been introduced as a distinct offence. The maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for snatching is -

The offence of cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property, which corresponded to Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code, is now contained in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a woman's death caused by burns or bodily injury otherwise than under normal circumstances, in connection with a demand for dowry, attracts the offence of dowry death only if such death occurs -

Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces an offence with no exact counterpart in the Indian Penal Code. It punishes sexual intercourse obtained by -

Under Section 64(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the minimum term of rigorous imprisonment prescribed for the offence of rape (in cases not falling under the aggravated category) is -

The offence of criminal conspiracy, defined in Section 120A and made punishable by Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code, is now defined and punished under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under Section 111 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where the commission of an organised crime has resulted in the death of any person, the offender shall be punished with death or imprisonment for life, and also liable to a minimum fine of -

The offence of a 'terrorist act' has been incorporated for the first time into the general criminal code under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. It is defined and made punishable under -

'A' instigates 'B', a person of sound mind, to commit suicide and 'B' in consequence commits suicide. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence committed by 'A' (abetment of suicide) falls under -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, culpable homicide is defined in Section 100 and murder in Section 101. The general punishment for the offence of murder is provided in -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of theft, which corresponded to Sections 378 and 379 of the Indian Penal Code, is now contained in -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general punishment for murder is provided in:

'A', a registered medical practitioner, causes the death of a patient while performing a medical procedure by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide. Under Section 106 BNS, the maximum imprisonment to which A is liable is:

Which of the following is, for the first time, made a distinct offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, dealt with separately from theft?

A person commits theft for the first time, the value of the stolen property being less than five thousand rupees, and on being apprehended returns or restores the property. Under Section 303 BNS, such a person:

Under the second proviso to Article 368 of the Constitution of India, certain amendments require, in addition to the special majority in each House, ratification by the Legislatures of:

The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court for the first time in:

The Ninety-ninth Constitutional Amendment, which established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 on the ground that it violated:

Even during the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency, the enforcement of the rights conferred by which Articles can never be suspended under Article 359?

A question whether a Bill is a 'Money Bill' or not, when it is presented to the Council of States, is decided by:

The power of the President to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament is contained in:

The Constitution of India provides that there shall be a separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. This is contained in:

The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, under which the President may refer a question of law or fact of public importance for its opinion, is provided in:

The Finance Commission, constituted at the expiration of every fifth year, is provided for under which Article of the Constitution?

Parliament may, if the Council of States declares by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, create new All India Services. This power flows from:

The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and State Legislatures is vested in the Election Commission under:

Where the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the Proclamation issued is made under:

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose duty is to audit the accounts of the Union and the States, is appointed by the President under:

An order to a public official or authority commanding the performance of a public or statutory duty which it has failed to perform is issued by way of the writ of:

Protection in respect of conviction for offences, namely the bar against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy and self-incrimination, is guaranteed by:

The words "Socialist", "Secular" and "Integrity" were inserted into the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Constitutional Amendment?

Fundamental Duties of citizens are contained in which Part and Article of the Constitution of India?

By the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, the right to property ceased to be a fundamental right and was made a constitutional/legal right under which Article?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the rule that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence is contained in:

Under the BSA, 2023, the principle that so much of the information received from an accused in police custody as distinctly relates to the fact thereby discovered may be proved is found in:

A statement made by a person, since deceased, as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death (a dying declaration) is made relevant under which provision of the BSA, 2023?

When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinion of a person specially skilled is relevant under:

Under the BSA, 2023, 'primary evidence' and 'secondary evidence' are defined respectively in:

Which section of the BSA, 2023 provides that all facts, except the contents of documents, may be proved by oral evidence?

Under the BSA, 2023, the provision that an electronic or digital record shall not be denied admissibility merely on the ground that it is an electronic record, and shall have the same legal effect as other documents, is:

Under the BSA, 2023, the burden of proving any fact especially within the knowledge of a person lies upon that person. This rule is contained in:

Where a question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with a demand for dowry, the Court shall presume that such person caused the dowry death. This presumption appears in which section of the BSA, 2023?

Under the BSA, 2023, an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. This is provided in:

The rule that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact is contained in which section of the BSA, 2023?

Under the BSA, 2023, the order of examination of a witness is that he shall be first examined-in-chief, then cross-examined (if the adverse party so desires), and then re-examined (if the party calling him so desires). This is laid down in:

Under the BSA, 2023, a 'leading question' (any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive) is dealt with under:

A witness may, while under examination, refresh his memory by referring to any writing made by himself at the time of the transaction, or so soon afterwards that the Court considers it likely that the transaction was then fresh in his memory. This is permitted under which section of the BSA, 2023?

Under the BSA, 2023, the bar on disclosure of communications made between spouses during marriage (privileged communications during marriage) is contained in:

Under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement may be in the form of:

What is the minimum number of arbitrators permissible under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have agreed on an even number?

A judicial authority before which an action is brought in a matter that is the subject of an arbitration agreement must refer the parties to arbitration on an application under Section 8, if such application is made:

The doctrine that an arbitral tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction, including any objection to the existence or validity of the arbitration agreement, is embodied in which provision of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

Under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (as amended in 2019), the arbitral award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made within a period of:

An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 must be made within how many months from the date of receipt of the award?

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the 'public policy of India' ground for setting aside an award under Section 34 does not permit a review of the award on its merits?

Under Section 36 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (as amended in 2015), the mere filing of an application to set aside an award under Section 34:

Which of the following orders is NOT appealable under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

Under Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a party may apply to a court for an interim measure of protection:

The Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 introduced Section 11(6A), which directed the Supreme Court or High Court, while considering an application for appointment of an arbitrator, to confine its examination to:

Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration may move:

An agreement made without consideration is valid under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act if it is:

An agreement entered into by a minor is:

A supplies necessaries suited to his condition in life to B, a lunatic. Under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, A is entitled to be reimbursed:

Under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, an agreement by way of wager is:

The doctrine of frustration of contract under Indian law is statutorily embodied in:

Where a contract has been broken and a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of such breach, under Section 74 the aggrieved party is entitled to receive:

A contract of guarantee under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act involves:

Under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, the liability of the surety is:

A plaint is presented to a Civil Judge in Delhi after the period of limitation prescribed in the Schedule has expired, but the defendant does not raise the bar of limitation in his written statement. Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the court:

The benefit of Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (condonation of delay on sufficient cause) is, as a rule, available to:

Under the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for possession of immovable property based on title (Article 65) is barred after a period of:

'A', recorded owner of a plot in Delhi, allows the twelve-year period for a suit for possession against 'B', who has been in adverse possession, to expire without filing suit. The effect under Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is that:

For an acknowledgment of liability in writing to give rise to a fresh period of limitation under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the acknowledgment must be:

Where the prescribed period for filing an appeal in the District Court at Delhi expires on a day when the court is closed, Section 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that the appeal may be filed:

In computing the period of limitation for an appeal under the Limitation Act, 1963, Section 12 requires the exclusion of:

An application to set aside an ex parte decree passed by a Civil Judge is governed by Article 123 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, which prescribes a period of:

After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, which of the following best describes the nature of specific performance of a contract under Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person dispossessed of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law may recover possession by such suit. No suit under this section shall be brought:

Which of the following contracts is NOT specifically enforceable under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as amended in 2018?

Under Section 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as amended, a plaintiff seeking specific performance must:

Under Section 2(1)(i) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, the "Specified Value" of a commercial dispute, as presently amended, shall not be less than which of the following amounts (or such higher value as may be notified by the Central Government)?

Before its amendment in 2018, the minimum "Specified Value" required for a dispute to be treated as a commercial dispute under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 was:

Section 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 makes pre-institution mediation a mandatory pre-condition to filing a suit EXCEPT where:

Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the:

The mere sharing of profits arising from property held jointly by several persons, by itself:

Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, every partner is liable for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner:

Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, the expression "child" means any person below the age of:

Penetrative sexual assault as an offence is defined under which provision of the POCSO Act, the punishment for it being prescribed by a separate following section?

The chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate during the lifetime of the propositus (spes successionis) is rendered non-transferable under which provision of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?