Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 5 — Questions & Solutions

At the 2023 G20 Summit hosted by India in New Delhi, which entity was admitted as a permanent member of the G20?

Under the Constitution of India, the Attorney-General for India is appointed by the President under which Article?

In jurisprudence, the theory that law is the 'command of the sovereign backed by sanction' is associated with:

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem' is a facet of the principles of natural justice and means:

A is the brother of B. C is the father of A. D is the sister of C. How is D related to B?

If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', then how is 'JUDGE' written in that code?

A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. The annual rate of interest is:

Select the correctly spelt and meaningful word among the following:

Who took oath as the 52nd Chief Justice of India in May 2025, becoming the first Buddhist to hold that office?

Which team won the ICC Men's Champions Trophy 2025, defeating New Zealand in the final at Dubai?

Smt. Droupadi Murmu, the first tribal woman to become President of India, took office in which year?

Which of the following persons was NOT among those conferred the Bharat Ratna in the year 2024?

The Booker Prize 2025 was awarded to David Szalay for his novel titled:

In jurisprudence, the analytical school of law that defines law as the 'command of the sovereign backed by sanction' is principally associated with:

Hans Kelsen's 'Pure Theory of Law' is built around the foundational concept of the:

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to ' MITIGATE ':

In a certain code, FRIDAY is written as GQJCBX by shifting its letters alternately +1, -1, +1, -1, +1, -1. Using the same rule, how is MONDAY written in that code?

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, 'She is the only daughter of my grandfather's only son.' How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?

If the day before yesterday was a Thursday, what day will it be on the day after tomorrow?

The Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been replaced, with effect from 1st July 2024, by which of the following enactments?

Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24th November 2025?

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado, a leading opposition figure from which country?

India won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 by defeating which team in the final at Dubai?

In jurisprudence, the maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' conveys the principle that:

Justice B. V. Nagarathna is scheduled to create history in 2027 by becoming the first:

A clock loses 5 minutes every hour. If it is set correctly at 12:00 noon, what time will the clock show when the correct time is 6:00 p.m. the same day?

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea', fundamental to criminal liability, means:

If in a certain code 'LEGAL' is written as 'OHJDO', then how will 'COURT' be written in the same code?

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, comprises how many sections in total?

Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to: FRUGAL

Select the sentence that is free from error in the use of articles.

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A statement that is taken to be true without proof, serving as a starting point for reasoning'.

Identify the word that best completes the analogy: 'Stammer is to speech as ______ is to walk.'

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'Despite overwhelming evidence, the witness gave a ______ account, contradicting himself at every turn.'

Read the passage and answer the question. 'The doctrine of precedent requires that a lower court follow the ratio decidendi laid down by a superior court. Obiter dicta, however persuasive, do not bind. A judge departing from this discipline invites reversal on appeal.' According to the passage, what is binding on a lower court?

Choose the correct active-to-passive transformation of: 'The court will pronounce the judgment tomorrow.'

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'FRUGAL':

Select the word that is the SYNONYM of 'CANDID':

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ____ all the charges levelled against him.'

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Neither the witnesses (a)/ nor the complainant (b)/ were present (c)/ in the court. (d)'

Choose the one word that correctly substitutes the phrase: 'A statement that is accepted as true without proof.'

Select the correct indirect speech: He said to me, "Are you coming to the hearing tomorrow?"

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: 'to throw down the gauntlet'.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'The lawyer's argument was so ____ that even the opposing counsel was impressed by its clarity.'

Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence: 'The court has dismissed the petition.'

Identify the correctly spelt word:

Choose the word that best completes the analogy: ABSOLVE : GUILT :: EXONERATE : ____

Read the passage and answer: 'Justice delayed is justice denied. When a litigant must wait years for a verdict, the remedy, even if eventually granted, loses much of its value, for memories fade, evidence weakens, and faith in the system erodes.' According to the passage, prolonged delay primarily harms justice because:

In the sentence 'Hardly had the judge entered the courtroom ____ everyone rose to their feet,' choose the word that correctly fills the blank:

Choose the option that correctly rearranges the parts to form a coherent sentence: (P) the principles of natural justice (Q) every administrative authority (R) is bound to follow (S) while deciding a dispute affecting rights

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'EPHEMERAL'.

Select the word that is the SYNONYM of 'PERFUNCTORY'.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The senior advocate's argument was so ______ that even the opposing counsel conceded its logical force.'

Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers (a)/ was aware (b)/ of the amendment (c)/ that had come into force. (d)'

Select the correctly spelt word.

Choose the word that best completes the analogy: AFFIDAVIT : STATEMENT :: TESTIMONY : ____

The power of revision of the High Court over subordinate courts that have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in them, or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, is contained in:

Where and to the extent a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, the provision under which the court orders restitution so as to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree is:

Nothing in the Code shall be deemed to limit or otherwise affect the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court. This saving of inherent powers is found in:

A temporary injunction restraining a party from doing a particular act may be granted by the court under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure?

The court may, at any stage of the proceedings, order that the name of any party improperly joined be struck out, or that any necessary or proper party be added. This power to add or strike out parties is contained in:

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. In this context, a suit in which the right to property or to an office is contested is :

For the rule of res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure to apply, the matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been directly and substantially in issue in the former suit between the same parties and :

The expression 'mesne profits' of property, as defined in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, means those profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received therefrom, together with interest on such profits, but does not include :

A foreign judgment shall not be conclusive under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure where it has not been pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction, or has not been given on the merits of the case, or appears on its face to be founded on an incorrect view of international law or a refusal to recognise Indian law. Which of the following is also a ground enumerated in Section 13 :

Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure relating to the place of suing, a suit for the recovery of immovable property with or without rent or profits shall ordinarily be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction :

Notwithstanding anything contained in any Letters Patent for any High Court or in any instrument having the force of law, where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order is heard and decided by a single Judge of a High Court, the position regarding any further appeal under the Code of Civil Procedure is that :

Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the Court, where it appears that there exist elements of a settlement, to refer the dispute for resolution through one of the prescribed modes. Which of the following is NOT a mode of settlement specified in Section 89 :

Where a decree is passed ex parte against a defendant, his application to the Court that passed the decree to have it set aside, on the ground that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, is made under :

Under the proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a defendant is required to present his written statement within thirty days from the date of service of summons, which the Court may for recorded reasons extend, but not beyond ninety days. In an ordinary (non-commercial) civil suit, the Supreme Court has held this outer limit to be :

Order XXI Rule 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for the mode of execution where the party against whom a decree for specific performance of a contract, restitution of conjugal rights or an injunction has been passed has had an opportunity of obeying it and has wilfully failed to obey it. Such a decree may be enforced :

Where and in so far as a decree is varied or reversed in any appeal, revision or other proceeding, the Court of first instance shall, on the application of any party entitled to any benefit by way of restitution, cause such restitution to be made as will, so far as may be, place the parties in the position which they would have occupied but for such decree. This power of restitution is contained in :

A second appeal lies to the High Court from an appellate decree under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure only :

Under Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, certain property is liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree while certain particulars are exempt. Which of the following is expressly exempted from attachment under the proviso to Section 60 :

The Court may, at any stage of the proceedings, either upon or without the application of either party, order that the name of any party improperly joined be struck out, and that the name of any person who ought to have been joined and whose presence is necessary to enable the Court to adjudicate upon and settle all questions involved be added. This power relating to addition and striking out of parties is conferred by :

The High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by a Court subordinate to it and in which no appeal lies thereto, and may make such order as it thinks fit, if such subordinate Court appears to have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, or to have failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or to have acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity. This power is the High Court's :

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a Court shall presume, upon the production of a certified copy of a foreign judgment, that such judgment was pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the record or is proved. This presumption is contained in:

A defendant on whom summons has been duly served must present his written statement within thirty days. Under Order VIII Rule 1 CPC, the Court may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, allow him to file it later, but not later than:

Which of the following modes is NOT one of the forms of settlement of disputes outside the Court enumerated in Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

The doctrine of res sub judice, which bars a Court from proceeding with the trial of a suit where the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, is embodied in:

Under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a plaint shall be rejected in all the following cases EXCEPT:

The proviso to Section 223(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces a significant safeguard at the cognizance stage in a complaint case. It provides that no cognizance of an offence shall be taken by the Magistrate without:

Under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which introduces trial in absentia, the Court may proceed with the trial and pronounce judgment in the absence of an accused who has been declared a proclaimed offender, only after publication requiring him to appear within:

Under Section 472 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir or relative) may, after being informed of the dismissal of his appeal or confirmation of the sentence, file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within:

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the sentence of imprisonment that a Court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass shall not exceed:

Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 makes it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the scene of crime and collect forensic evidence (with the process videographed) in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of:

Under the proviso to Section 64 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a summons bearing the image of the Court's seal may also be served by:

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the total period for which detention of an accused in the custody of the police may be authorised is:

Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a police officer may arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant where he has received credible information that such person has committed a cognizable offence. Which of the following statements about Section 35 is INCORRECT?

Under Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of up to ten years, the police report (charge sheet) is required to be filed, failing which the accused becomes entitled to default bail, within:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the registration of a First Information Report 'irrespective of the area where the offence is committed' (the statutory recognition of a 'Zero FIR') is provided under -

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, where investigation cannot be completed within 24 hours, the maximum period for which a Magistrate may authorise detention of an accused (police plus judicial custody) before the accused becomes entitled to release on bail in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment of ten years is -

The provision in the BNSS, 2023 enabling inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial and against whom there is no immediate prospect of arrest, is contained in -

Under the proviso to Section 223(1) of the BNSS, 2023, in a complaint case a Magistrate -

Section 176(3) of the BNSS makes it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and to videograph the process, in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment -

The power of the High Court or Court of Session to grant anticipatory bail - direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest - is now conferred under which section of the BNSS, 2023?

A judicial confession or statement of a person recorded by a Magistrate during the course of an investigation under the BNSS, 2023 is recorded under -

Under Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023, a police officer shall not arrest a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of -

Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir or relative) may file a mercy petition before the President or Governor within how many days of being informed by the jail Superintendent of dismissal of his appeal/SLP or confirmation of the death sentence?

Section 398 of the BNSS, 2023 imposes which obligation on every State Government?

When information about a non-cognizable offence is given to the officer in charge of a police station, Section 174 of the BNSS, 2023 requires him to -

Under the BNSS, 2023, the report (charge-sheet/police report) on completion of investigation is forwarded to the Magistrate empowered to take cognizance under -

In Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held that, on information disclosing a cognizable offence -

Under Section 35(3) read with the BNSS, 2023, where a police officer does not arrest the person against whom a reasonable complaint or credible information exists for an offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, he is required to -

Under the BNSS, 2023, the maximum total period of police custody of fifteen days that a Magistrate may authorise -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence formerly known as 'sedition' has been replaced by Section 152, which is titled:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'snatching' has been introduced as a distinct offence under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, organised crime is dealt with under Section 111, while a 'petty organised crime' is dealt with under:

Under Section 20 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, nothing is an offence which is done by a child:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of cheating is defined and punished under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of defamation is dealt with under:

X, intending to kill Z, fires a shot at Z, who escapes unhurt. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, X is most appropriately charged under:

Under Section 22 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general exception relating to mental incapacity uses the expression:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, dacoity is committed when the number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit a robbery is:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the definition of 'culpable homicide' and the definition of 'murder' are contained respectively in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, for a first-time conviction for theft where the value of the stolen property is less than five thousand rupees, the offender, upon return or restoration of the property, shall be punished with:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is provided in:

Which of the following is a NEW species of punishment introduced for the first time in the list of punishments under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

'A', a child aged six years, picks up a costly fountain pen lying on a desk and runs away with it, knowing it does not belong to him. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is:

The offence of 'snatching', made a distinct offence for the first time under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is dealt with in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, when a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the offence (commonly called mob lynching) is punishable under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, abetment of suicide is punishable under:

'X', without any intention to fulfil it, makes a false promise of marriage to 'Y', a woman, and on that basis has sexual intercourse with her, the intercourse not amounting to rape. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'X' is liable under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the maximum punishment for causing death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide (Section 106) has been:

The special provisions with respect to the National Capital Territory of Delhi, including the constitution of a Legislative Assembly for Delhi, are contained in Article 239AA, which was inserted by the:

Under Article 239AA, the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi may make laws with respect to matters in the State List EXCEPT those relating to:

A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States, involving any question on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends, is decided by the Supreme Court in exercise of its:

Which Article empowers a High Court to issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also 'for any other purpose', giving it a scope wider in this respect than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32?

The provision empowering the President to establish, where it appears to serve the public interest, a Council charged with inquiring into and advising upon disputes and matters of common interest between States, is contained in:

Under Article 243D of the Constitution, the proportion of seats reserved for women in seats filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be not less than:

The Directive Principle which directs the State to endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India is contained in:

Under Article 312, Parliament may provide for the creation of one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States only if the Council of States passes a resolution to that effect, supported by:

The adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of any inter-State river or river valley may, by law made by Parliament, be excluded from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and all other courts. This is provided for in:

A resolution for the abolition or creation of a Legislative Council of a State under Article 169 must be passed by the Legislative Assembly of the State by:

Under Article 61, a charge for the impeachment of the President is to be 'preferred' by:

Where any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of which authority is final?

An Ordinance promulgated by a Governor under Article 213 during the recess of the State Legislature ceases to operate, unless sooner withdrawn, at the expiration of:

In the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, 'Public order' and 'Police' fall within:

Article 243-O of the Constitution of India provides for:

The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Part III is itself guaranteed as a Fundamental Right under:

The President of India may, under Article 143, seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on:

Which Constitution (Amendment) Act, establishing the National Judicial Appointments Commission, was struck down by the Supreme Court as violative of the basic structure?

Where a document purporting to be thirty years old is produced from proper custody, the Court may presume that the signature and every other part of it are genuine. Under the BSA, 2023 this presumption is found in:

Under the BSA, 2023, the admissibility of an electronic or digital record as evidence, treating such record as a 'document', is governed by:

Under Section 23(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a confession made by a person while in police custody is not provable against him unless it is made:

Statements made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death (the dying declaration), are made relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 by:

When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinion of a person specially skilled therein is relevant. Such a person is called an expert under:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. This provision is:

The presumption that a person has caused a dowry death where it is shown that soon before her death the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with a demand for dowry is contained in which provision of the BSA, and is it a 'may presume' or 'shall presume' provision?

Where a woman is shown to have committed suicide within seven years of her marriage and to have been subjected to cruelty by her husband or his relative, the Court is empowered under Section 117 of the BSA to:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the doctrine of estoppel — that a person who by his declaration, act or omission has intentionally caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon it cannot later deny its truth — is enacted in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a leading question — one that suggests the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive — is defined and regulated under:

The rule that the burden of proving a fact especially within the knowledge of a person lies upon that person is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the general rule that whoever desires a Court to give judgment as to a legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts must prove that those facts exist is stated in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where the question is whether a person born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is the legitimate child of that man, such birth is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following correctly states the provisions for primary and secondary evidence respectively?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the admissibility of an electronic or digital record produced through a computer or communication device, supported by the prescribed certificate, is principally governed by:

An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 may not be made after three months from receipt of the award; however, the Court may, on sufficient cause, entertain it within a further period of:

A request to the arbitral tribunal to correct any computation, clerical or typographical error in an arbitral award must, under Section 33 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, be made (unless another period is agreed) within:

Under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, in matters other than international commercial arbitration, the award shall be made within twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings, and this period may be extended by the parties' consent by a further period not exceeding:

A party who seeks reference of the parties to arbitration under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 must apply to the judicial authority:

Which Section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that an arbitral award shall be enforced in the same manner as if it were a decree of the Court?

Under Section 31 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, after the arbitral award is made:

Conciliation proceedings under Part III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 commence, under Section 62, when:

Section 63 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that, in the absence of any agreement to the contrary, there shall be:

A settlement agreement drawn up and signed in conciliation proceedings under Section 73 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

Under Section 80 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the conciliator:

Under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement is deemed to be in writing in which of the following situations?

Under Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called:

The general lien available, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, to bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers is conferred by:

Under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is:

When an agreement is discovered to be void, or a contract becomes void, the person who has received any advantage under it is bound to restore it or to make compensation for it, under:

Where necessaries are supplied to a person incapable of contracting, such as a minor or a lunatic, the supplier is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of such incapable person. This rule is contained in:

Under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the general rule is that an agent acting for a disclosed principal:

A contract caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation is, under the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

Under Section 201 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agency is NOT terminated by:

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them when the purpose is accomplished, is defined as:

Where the prescribed period for a suit expires on a day when the court is closed, Section 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that the suit may be instituted:

Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for a suit for possession of immovable property or any interest therein based on title is:

A suit for specific performance of a contract falls under Article 54 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963. The limitation period of three years is computed from:

Under Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit to obtain any other (residuary) declaration must be filed within three years from:

For a suit or application for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule, the residuary Articles 113 (suits) and 137 (applications) of the Limitation Act, 1963 prescribe a period of:

In computing the period of limitation for an appeal under Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following is excluded?

Where a suit is based on the fraud of the defendant, Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that the period of limitation does not begin to run until:

For an acknowledgment of liability to furnish a fresh period of limitation under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, it must be:

A suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 to recover possession:

After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, the grant of specific performance of a contract under Section 10 has become:

Which of the following, after the 2018 amendment, is NOT among the contracts that cannot be specifically enforced under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

The newly inserted Section 14A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 empowers the court, in any suit under the Act, to:

Under Section 10 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, applications and appeals arising out of an arbitration other than an international commercial arbitration, which would ordinarily lie before a principal civil court of original jurisdiction in a district (not being a High Court), shall be filed in and disposed of by:

Under Section 12 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, for determining whether an arbitration is subject to the jurisdiction of a Commercial Court or Commercial Division, the Specified Value is based on:

Section 15 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 principally deals with which of the following?

Save as otherwise provided, the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 in relation to a limited liability partnership:

Under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, every limited liability partnership must have at least:

If the number of partners of a limited liability partnership is reduced below two and it carries on business for more than six months while so reduced, the sole continuing partner who knows the fact:

Under Section 21 of the POCSO Act, a person (not being in charge of an institution) who fails to report the commission of an offence which he has knowledge of, as required under Section 19, is liable to imprisonment which may extend to:

Which of the following is correct regarding the obligation to report offences under Section 19 of the POCSO Act?

A condition annexed to a transfer of property which absolutely restrains the transferee from parting with or disposing of his interest in the property is, under Section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882: