Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 8 — Questions & Solutions

Select the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXCULPATE'.

Find the number that completes the series: 3, 7, 16, 35, 74, ?

The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025 was awarded to Maria Corina Machado for her work promoting democratic rights in which country?

Which novel won the Booker Prize 2025?

How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, contain?

Who has been chosen as the recipient of the 59th Jnanpith Award (for the year 2024)?

Who heads the 16th Finance Commission of India, constituted to make recommendations for the period 2026-27 to 2030-31?

Who was re-appointed as the Attorney General for India with effect from 1 October 2025 for a further term of two years?

Who is the first Chairperson of the Lokpal of India under whom it began functioning from a Supreme Court Judge background, having assumed office on 10 March 2024?

In jurisprudence, the concept that a right and its correlative duty are two aspects of the same relationship, elaborated through 'jural correlatives' and 'jural opposites', is most associated with which jurist?

The legal maxim 'nemo dat quod non habet' expresses the principle that:

If the day after tomorrow is three days before Sunday, then what day is today?

A sum of money becomes Rs. 4,000 in 2 years and Rs. 5,000 in 4 years at simple interest. What is the principal sum?

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to ' INCHOATE':

Articles 81 and 82 of the Constitution of India provide that the delimitation of Lok Sabha seats is to be readjusted on the basis of:

Who was sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai?

Judge Iwasawa Yuji, who was elected President of the International Court of Justice with effect from 3 March 2025, is a national of which country?

Senior Advocate R. Venkataramani, the 16th Attorney General for India, was re-appointed in September 2025 for a further term of:

The legal maxim 'actus curiae neminem gravabit' embodies which of the following principles?

The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been replaced by which of the following enactments?

Who, as on June 2026, holds the office of the Chief Justice of India?

The High Court of Delhi was established by the Delhi High Court Act, 1966 in the year:

As on June 2026, who is the Attorney General for India?

Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem' embodies which principle?

In Austin's analytical school of jurisprudence, law is best described as:

Choose the word most opposite in meaning to 'CANDID':

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of 'EXONERATE':

A is the brother of B. C is the mother of A. D is the father of C. E is the mother of D. How is A related to E?

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Each of the candidates / have been / asked to / submit their forms.'

Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to: GREGARIOUS

Fill in the blank with the most suitable word: Despite the overwhelming evidence, the defence counsel remained ______ that his client was innocent.

Choose the correctly punctuated and worded sentence.

Choose the meaning of the foreign-origin legal phrase commonly used in English: 'bona fide'.

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'CANDID'.

Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'PRUDENT'.

Select the one word that best substitutes the expression: 'A person who knows many foreign languages'.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'The judge directed the witness to confine his answers strictly to the matter ____ issue.'

Choose the option that correctly conveys the meaning of the idiom: 'to throw down the gauntlet'.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Neither the petitioner / nor the respondents / was present / when the matter was called.'

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'TRANSIENT'.

Select the one word that best substitutes the expression: 'A statement which is so obviously true that it need not be stated'.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'Despite the overwhelming evidence, the accused remained ____ in his denial of the charge.'

Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.

Choose the option that correctly conveys the meaning of the idiom: 'to let the cat out of the bag'.

Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'MITIGATE'.

Select the one word that best substitutes the expression: 'That which cannot be revoked or taken back'.

Fill in the blank with the correct pair: 'Hardly ____ the court risen ____ the parties resumed their argument in the corridor.'

Choose the word that is MOST NEARLY OPPOSITE in meaning to the word in capitals: ABSTRUSE

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers (a)/ was satisfied (b)/ with the manner in which (c)/ the witness was examined. (d)'

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: 'To cut the Gordian knot'.

Choose the word that is the SYNONYM of: PERFUNCTORY

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option: 'The advocate's argument was so ______ that the bench accepted it without further deliberation.'

Select the option that best fills the blank to form a grammatically correct sentence: 'If he ______ the deadline, he would have been awarded the contract.'

Choose the word that means: 'A person who renounces a religious or political belief or principle.'

Choose the option that is the correct passive form of: 'The legislature has passed the new bill.'

Where any period is fixed or granted by the court for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, the court may, in its discretion, enlarge such period even though the originally fixed period has expired. This power of enlargement of time is found in:

The court may, at any stage of a suit and even without an application, order that the name of any party improperly joined be struck out, or that the name of any person who ought to have been joined be added, so that the real matter in controversy may be effectually adjudicated. This power is conferred by:

A plaint is liable to be rejected under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in which of the following circumstances?

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal lies (except on a question of law) from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Cause where the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:

A second appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 shall lie to the High Court from an appellate decree only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves:

An application to set aside an ex parte decree under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 must, under Article 123 of the Limitation Act, 1963, ordinarily be made within:

In a money suit, the sole defendant dies during the pendency of the suit. No application to bring his legal representatives on record is made within the prescribed period of ninety days. The consequence under Order XXII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is that:

Where the plaint discloses a cause of action barred by a law of limitation on its own averments, the proper course for the court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is to:

A suit for partition and separate possession of immovable property situate wholly within the local limits of one court must, under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, be instituted in the court within whose jurisdiction:

All questions arising between the parties to a suit in which a decree was passed, and relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree, are to be determined under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 by:

The proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that no application for amendment of pleadings shall be allowed after:

Where a plaintiff withdraws a suit without the leave of the court to file a fresh suit, the consequence under Order XXIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is that he:

Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, dealing with settlement of disputes outside the court, enumerates the modes of alternative dispute resolution. Which of the following is NOT one of the modes specified therein?

The bar of res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 operates only where the matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit was, in the former suit, heard and finally decided by a court:

Two suits between the same parties involve directly and substantially the same matter in issue. The previously instituted suit is pending in a competent court. The proper course in respect of the subsequently instituted suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is to:

Where a suit has been dismissed and the decree is subsequently varied or reversed in appeal, the court of first instance may, on the application of any party, place the parties in the position which they would have occupied but for such decree. This relief is granted under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 by way of:

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is:

The provision in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 which saves the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court, is:

A subsequently instituted suit is liable to be stayed where the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties. This principle of res sub judice is contained in:

A point which might and ought to have been raised as a ground of attack or defence in a former suit, but was not so raised, is deemed to have been a matter directly and substantially in issue in that suit. This rule is known as:

No suit shall be instituted against the Government, in respect of any act purporting to be done by a public officer in his official capacity, until the expiration of a notice of:

Where a decree under which money has been recovered is subsequently varied or reversed in appeal, the court of first instance shall, on the application of the party entitled, cause restitution to be made. The provision empowering such restitution is:

A second appeal to the High Court under the Code of Civil Procedure lies only where the case involves:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, the High Court shall not, in exercise of its revisional jurisdiction, vary or reverse any order against which:

Where the plaint does not disclose a cause of action, the court is bound to:

The inherent powers of the High Court to prevent abuse of process of any court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice (formerly Section 482 CrPC) are now saved under which section of the BNSS, 2023?

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for ten years or more, the fifteen days of police custody may be sought by the Magistrate within an initial window of:

Which of the following is a new feature of police custody under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, that was absent under Section 167 CrPC?

Under Section 173 of the BNSS, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry, which must be completed within:

Under Section 176(3) of the BNSS, 2023, the mandatory visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence and to videograph the process applies to offences punishable with imprisonment of:

Inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender, a provision newly introduced by the BNSS, 2023, is contained in:

Anticipatory bail under the BNSS, 2023 (formerly Section 438 CrPC) may now be applied for under:

Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023 entitles a first-time offender who has never been convicted of any offence to be released on bond on undergoing detention up to what fraction of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the offence?

Under Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023, the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding:

Under Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023, a Magistrate of the first class may impose a fine not exceeding:

Section 105 of the BNSS, 2023 introduces a new mandatory requirement that the process of search and seizure be:

Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023, where the offence is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years and the person is infirm or above sixty years of age, no arrest shall be made without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

Under Section 183 of the BNSS, 2023, confessions and statements recorded by a Magistrate during investigation:

Section 398 of the BNSS, 2023 casts a statutory obligation, for the first time in the procedural code, upon which authority to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the concept of a 'Zero FIR'—that information relating to a cognizable offence may be registered irrespective of the area where the offence is committed—is statutorily codified in:

A is accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to five years. The investigating officer wishes to arrest A without a warrant. Which provision of the BNSS, 2023 requires that a notice be issued to A directing him to appear before the police officer before resorting to arrest?

Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023, no arrest shall be made without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police where the offence is punishable with imprisonment of less than three years and the person to be arrested is:

Under the scheme of Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, the fifteen days of police custody of an accused:

An undertrial prisoner, who is not accused of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment and is a first-time offender with no previous conviction, becomes entitled to be released on bond under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023 on having undergone detention for:

Which provision of the BNSS, 2023 deals with the order for maintenance of wives, children and parents, corresponding to Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

A confession or statement made during investigation, or at any time before the commencement of inquiry or trial, is recorded by a Magistrate under which provision of the BNSS, 2023?

A statement made by a witness to a police officer in the course of investigation under Section 180 of the BNSS, 2023:

Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, a convict under sentence of death, or his legal heir or relative, may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within how many days of being informed by the jail Superintendent of the dismissal of the appeal or the confirmation of the death sentence?

The inherent powers of the High Court—to prevent abuse of the process of any court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice—are saved under which provision of the BNSS, 2023?

For the first time, a distinct provision punishing 'mob lynching' - murder by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief - has been introduced in the BNS, 2023 in -

Under the BNS, 2023, the offence of 'snatching' has been introduced as a distinct offence. It is dealt with in -

Under the BNS, 2023, 'dacoity' is committed when robbery is conjointly committed or attempted by -

The offence which under the IPC was known as 'sedition' (Section 124A) has been replaced in the BNS, 2023 by 'Acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India', contained in -

Match List-I (offence) with List-II (BNS section) and select the correct answer: List-I: (a) Dowry death (b) Cruelty by husband or relative (c) Criminal conspiracy (d) Rape List-II: 1. Section 85 2. Section 80 3. Section 63 4. Section 61

Under Section 80 of the BNS, 2023, for a death of a woman to be a 'dowry death', it must occur otherwise than under normal circumstances within -

'Organised crime' and 'terrorist act' have been introduced for the first time as offences in the BNS, 2023 respectively in -

'A' attempts to commit suicide with the intent to compel a public servant from discharging his official duty. Under the BNS, 2023, 'A' has committed an offence punishable under -

Which one of the following is a punishment newly introduced as a form of sentence in Section 4 of the BNS, 2023, which was NOT a recognised punishment under the IPC?

Under the BNS, 2023, the offences of 'cheating' and 'criminal breach of trust' are respectively dealt with in -

'A', intending to kill 'B', fires a shot at 'B' but misses and kills 'C', whose presence 'A' was unaware of. Under the BNS, 2023, 'A' is liable for the murder of 'C' on the principle embodied in -

Under the BNS, 2023, the punishment for 'culpable homicide not amounting to murder' is provided in -

Which of the following statements regarding the modes of abetment under Section 45 of the BNS, 2023 is INCORRECT?

Under the BNS, 2023, the offences of 'grievous hurt' and 'criminal intimidation' are respectively dealt with in -

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'snatching' has been introduced for the first time as a distinct offence. Snatching is dealt with under:

Match List-I (offence) with List-II (BNS section) and select the correct answer using the code below: List-I: (a) Dowry death (b) Punishment for murder (c) Criminal conspiracy (d) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt List-II: 1. Section 61 2. Section 80 3. Section 117 4. Section 103

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces a specific provision for so-called 'mob lynching'. Where a group of five or more persons acting together commits murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the offence and its punishment are dealt with under:

'A', intending to kill 'B', fires a shot at 'B' but misses; the bullet strikes and kills 'C', a bystander whose presence 'A' was unaware of. The principle on which 'A' is held guilty of the murder of 'C' is best described as:

Which of the following statements regarding Section 3(5) and Section 190 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is INCORRECT?

A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State is eligible for direct appointment as a district judge under Article 233(2) only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than:

Which Article confers on the High Court control over the district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State?

The right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, guaranteed by Article 32, was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as:

Which of the following correctly distinguishes the writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 from that of the Supreme Court under Article 32?

Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India as Part IV-A by which Constitutional Amendment, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee?

Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A were increased to eleven by which amendment, which added the duty of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to a child between six and fourteen years?

Parliament may, by law, provide for the creation of one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States only if the Rajya Sabha has so declared by a resolution supported by:

Following the 99th Constitutional Amendment, the National Judicial Appointments Commission was held unconstitutional by the Supreme Court as violative of the basic structure. In which decision was the NJAC struck down?

The residuary power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or the State List is vested by the Constitution of India in:

In which case did the Supreme Court of India first propound the doctrine that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 does not extend to altering its basic structure?

The right of minorities, whether based on religion or language, to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice is guaranteed by:

Adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley may be provided for by Parliament by law under which Article of the Constitution of India?

Which one of the following Fundamental Rights remains enforceable, and cannot be suspended, even during the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352?

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described which Article of the Constitution of India as its 'heart and soul', being one without which the Constitution would be a nullity?

The basic structure doctrine, limiting Parliament's amending power under Article 368, was first propounded by the Supreme Court in which case?

Special provisions with respect to the National Capital Territory of Delhi, including its Legislative Assembly, are contained in which Article of the Constitution?

The protection against being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once (double jeopardy) is guaranteed under which clause of Article 20?

The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were inserted into the Preamble of the Constitution by which amendment?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the relevancy of the opinion of an expert upon a point of foreign law, science, art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions is dealt with by which section?

A confession made to a police officer, under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, is governed by which provision rendering it inadmissible against the accused?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody, so much of such information as distinctly relates to the fact discovered may be proved. This discovery rule appears in:

A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, in cases in which the cause of that person's death comes into question, is relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within any of the General Exceptions in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, or within any special exception, lies on the accused. This is provided in:

The admissibility of electronic or digital records, requiring the certificate where the record is produced from a computer or communication device, is dealt with under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice is declared a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon his corroborated testimony. This is provided in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the question 'who may testify' (competency of witnesses) is dealt with by which section?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, communications made between husband and wife during marriage are protected from disclosure under:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the expression that the Court 'may presume' a fact means that the Court may:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no particular number of witnesses is required for the proof of any fact. This principle is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, facts of which the Court shall take judicial notice need not be proved. The list of such facts is enumerated in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when the Court has to form an opinion as to information transmitted or stored in any computer resource or other electronic or digital form, the opinion of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence referred to in Section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, is a relevant fact under:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the relevancy of facts showing motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct of any party is provided in:

Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, is INCORRECT?

Under Section 36 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the time for making an application to set aside the award has expired, the arbitral award shall be enforced:

Section 42A, inserted into the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 by the 2019 Amendment, casts an obligation upon the arbitrator, the arbitral institution and the parties to maintain confidentiality of all arbitral proceedings except where disclosure is necessary for:

Under Part III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have not agreed otherwise on the number of conciliators, the conciliation shall be conducted by:

Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a settlement agreement drawn up and signed in conciliation proceedings:

Which of the following correctly states a restriction imposed by Section 80 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on a conciliator?

Regarding the role of the conciliator under Section 67 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which statement is correct?

Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties to an arbitration agreement fail to determine the number of arbitrators, the arbitral tribunal shall consist of:

An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 must ordinarily be made within three months from receipt of the award. If prevented by sufficient cause, the Court may entertain it within a further period of, but not thereafter:

The power of an arbitral tribunal to rule on its own jurisdiction, including ruling on any objection with respect to the existence or validity of the arbitration agreement, is embodied in which provision of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

Under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made by the arbitral tribunal within a period of:

A person whose relationship with the parties or the subject-matter of the dispute falls within any category specified in the Seventh Schedule is ineligible to be appointed as an arbitrator. This ineligibility may be waived only by:

When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is:

Committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code, or unlawfully detaining or threatening to detain any property, to the prejudice of any person, with intent to cause him to enter into an agreement, amounts to:

An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is:

A contract to perform the promise, or discharge the liability, of a third person in case of his default is:

A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called a contract of:

Under Section 171, the right of general lien to retain goods bailed as security for a general balance of account, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, is available to:

The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called:

In the absence of a contract to that effect, an agent who enters into a contract on behalf of his principal:

Where a sum is named in a contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, the party complaining of breach is entitled to receive from the party in default:

The effect of Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963, read with Article 65 of the Schedule, on a suit for possession of immovable property based on title is that:

Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, governing a suit to obtain any declaration, prescribes a period of:

Where no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule, an application is governed by the residuary Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which prescribes a period of:

Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where a suit is instituted after the prescribed period of limitation, the court is required to:

Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, permitting extension of the prescribed period on showing 'sufficient cause', applies to:

In which decision did the Supreme Court hold that the expression 'sufficient cause' in Section 5 of the Limitation Act is elastic enough to enable courts to do substantial justice, and that a liberal approach should be adopted in condoning delay?

Where the prescribed period for a suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, Section 4 of the Limitation Act provides that it may be instituted, preferred or made:

Under Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963, once time has begun to run:

Clause (ha) inserted in Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 by the 2018 amendment provides that an injunction cannot be granted if it would:

Under Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (post-2018 amendment), compensation for breach of contract may be awarded by the court:

Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law must bring a suit for recovery of possession within:

Which of the following is correct regarding a suit instituted under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

Where the subject-matter of an arbitration is a commercial dispute of a Specified Value and is an international commercial arbitration, applications and appeals under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 filed in a High Court shall, under Section 10, be heard by:

The Supreme Court in Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprises Ltd. v. K.S. Infraspace LLP (2020) interpreted the expression "immovable property used exclusively in trade or commerce" in the definition of commercial dispute to mean property:

Under Section 12 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, for a suit for recovery of money, the Specified Value of the commercial dispute is determined by:

The goodwill of a partnership business, subject to contract between the partners, is treated under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 as:

Under Section 42 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, subject to contract between the partners, a firm is dissolved on:

In settling the accounts of a firm after dissolution under Section 48 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, losses including deficiencies of capital shall be paid:

In Just Rights for Children Alliance v. S. Harish (2024), the Supreme Court held that mere viewing, storing or possessing child sexual exploitative and abusive material, even without distribution, is an offence under which provision of the POCSO Act?

Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, the expression 'child' as defined in Section 2(1)(d) means any person below the age of -

Under Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, for a gift of immovable property to be valid, acceptance by or on behalf of the donee must be made: